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Rad Positioning > Chapter 15 > Flashcards

Chapter 15 Flashcards

1
Q

How is trauma defined by the ARRT?

A

Serious injury or shock to the body

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2
Q

Displacement of bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

Dislocation

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3
Q

Partial dislocation

A

Subluxation

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4
Q

Forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments

A

Sprain

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5
Q

Bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture

A

Contusion

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6
Q

Disruption of bone caused by mechanical force

A

Fracture

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7
Q

What is fracture alignment?

A

Relationship between long axes of the fracture fragments - a fracture is aligned if the long axes of the bone remain parallel to each other

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8
Q

What describes how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other?

A

Apposition

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9
Q

Three types of apposition

A

Anatomic
Lack of apposition (distraction)
Bayonet apposition

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10
Q

Anatomic alignment of ends of fractured bone fragments, wherein the ends of the fragments make end-to-end contact

A

Anatomic apposition

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11
Q

The ends of fragments are aligned but pulled apart and not making contact with each other

A

Lack of apposition (distraction)

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12
Q

The fracture fragments overlap and the shafts make contact, but not at the fracture ends

A

Bayonet apposition

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13
Q

What describes the loss of alignment of the fracture?

A

Angulation

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14
Q

What are the three types of angulation?

A

Apex
Varus
Valgus

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15
Q

Describes the direction or angle of the apex of the fracture

A

Apex angulation

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16
Q

Distal fragment ends are angled toward the midline of the body and the apex is pointed away from the midline

A

Varus deformity

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17
Q

Distal fragment ends are angled away from the midline and the apex is angled toward the midline

A

Valgus deformity

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18
Q

Fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

Simple (closed) Fracture

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19
Q

Fracture in which a portion of bone protrudes through the skin

A

Compound (open) Fracture

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20
Q

Fracture does not traverse through the entire bone

A

Incomplete (partial) Fracture

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21
Q

Two types of Incomplete (Partial) Fractures

A

Torus/Buckle
Greenstick

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22
Q

This buckle of the cortex is characterized by local expansion or torus of the cortex

A

Torus/Buckle

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23
Q

Fracture is on one side only. The cortex on one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent.

A

Greenstick Fracture

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24
Q

The break is complete and includes the cross-section of bone

A

Complete Fracture

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25
Q

What are the three major types of complete fractures?

A

Transverse
Oblique
Sprial

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26
Q

Fracture is transverse at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

Transverse

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27
Q

The fracture passes through bone at an oblique angle

A

Oblique Fracture

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28
Q

The bone has been twisted apart

A

Sprial Fracture

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29
Q

The bone is splintered or crushed at the site of impact, resulting in two or more fragments

A

Comminuted Fracture

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30
Q

What are the 3 types of comminuted fractures?

A

Segmental
Butterfly
Splintered

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31
Q

A type of double fracture in which two fracture lines isolate a distinct segment of bone

A

Segmental

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32
Q

A comminuted fracture with two fragments on each side of a main, wedge-shaped separate fragment

A

Butterfly

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33
Q

Comminuted fracture in which the bone is splintered into thin sharp fragments

A

Splintered

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34
Q

Fracture of the distal radius often associated with dislocation or subluxation of the radiocarpal joint

A

Barton Fracture

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35
Q

Fracture of the distal phalanx is caused by a ball striking the end of the an extended finger

A

Baseball fracture

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36
Q

Longitudinal fracture which occurs at the base of the first metacarpal with the fracture line entering the carpometacarpal joint

A

Bennett

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37
Q

Usually involves the distal fifth metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation

A

Boxer

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38
Q

Fracture of the wrist in which the distal radius is fractured with the distal fragment displaced posteriorly

A

Colles

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39
Q

Fracture of the wrist with the distal fragment of the radius displaced anteriorly

A

Smith

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40
Q

Fracture occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2) with or without displacement of C2 or C3

A

Hangman

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41
Q

Intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson (Chauffeur) Fracture

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42
Q

Fracture of the proximal half of the ulna along with dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia Fracture

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43
Q

Fracture of the distal fibula with major injury to the ankle joint and distal tibia

A

Pott’s Fracture

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44
Q

Results from severe stress to a tendon or ligament. A fragment of bone is separated or pulled away by the attached tendor or ligament

A

Avulsion

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45
Q

Result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma

A

Blowout or Tripod Fracture

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46
Q

Involves an isolated bone fragment

A

Chip Fracture

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47
Q

Vertebral fracture caused by a compression-type injury. The vertebral body collapses or is compressed

A

Compression Fracture

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48
Q

Skull fracture where a fragment is depressed

A

Depressed (Ping-pong) Fracture

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49
Q

Fracture due to disease process within the bones

A

Pathologic Fracture

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50
Q

What is used to describe the severity of an epiphyseal fracture?

A

Salter-Harris classification

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51
Q

Fracture lines radiate from a central point of injury with a starlike pattern

A

Stellate Fracture

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52
Q

Nontraumatic fracture resulting from repeated stress on a bone

A

Stress Fracture

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53
Q

Fracture of the ankle joint that involves the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia

A

Trimalleolar Fracture

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54
Q

Comminuted fracture of the distal phalanx caused by a crushing blow to the distal finger or thumb

A

Tuft or Burst Fracture

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55
Q

For severe fractures with significant displacement where a surgical procedure is required

A

Open Reduction

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55
Q

What are the 3 principles for trauma?

A
  1. Two projections 90 degrees to each other with true CR/IR alignment
  2. Entire structure or trauma area included on image receptor
  3. Maintain the safety of the patient, health care workers, and the public
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55
Q

Fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast

A

Closed Reduction

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56
Q

Battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units are powered by how many rechargeable batteries?

A

10-16, 12 volt batteries

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57
Q

What is the average walking speed for battery operated mobile x-ray units?

A

2.5 to 3 mph with a max incline of 7 degrees

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58
Q

Non-motor-driver x-ray units use what power source?

A

110V, 15 amp
220V, 10 amp

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59
Q

The primary difference between general radiography and trauma is:

A

Adaptation

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60
Q

For all upper and lower limb follow-up examinations, always include:

A

A minimum of one joint nearest to the site of injury

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61
Q

This modality is useful for fully assessing skeletal trauma

62
Q

This modality is used with patients have experienced blunt abdominal trama or to look at the female reproductive system

A

Sonography

63
Q

This modality is useful for the evaluation of pulmonary embolus, testictular torsion, and GI bleeding

64
Q

This modality is indicated for studies of the aortic arch

A

Angiography

65
Q

What are the 4 attributes of a successful surgical technologist?

A

Confidence
Mastery
Problem solving
Communication

66
Q

In surgery, the tech must have clear communication with:

A

The surgeon and the anesthesiologist

67
Q

In surgery, the tech must communicate radiation safety concerns such as:

A

Failure to wear lead
Overuse of real-time imaging
Placement of hands in radiation field

68
Q

Licensed and trained physician who has the primary responsibility for the entire surgical procedure

69
Q

Administers drugs to induce and maintain anesthesia in the patient

A

Anesthesiologist

70
Q

Assists the surgeon - suctioning, tying and clamping blood vessels, and assisting in cutting and suturing

A

Surgical assistant

71
Q

Health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments

A

Certified surgical tech

72
Q

Nonsterile CST or RN who assists in the OR by responding to the needs of scrubbed members in the sterile field

A

Circulator

73
Q

CST or RN who prepares the sterile field scrubs, gowns the members, and sterilizes the instruments

74
Q

During OR cases, the rad tech receives instructions from:

A

Physician (surgeon, anesthesiologist)

75
Q

What type of cleaner is recommended for the C-arm?

A

A liquid type

76
Q

How often must equipment be cleaned the is stored in the surgical area?

77
Q

Where is the intensifier and the tube located with a C-arm

A

Intensifer is on top of the patient
Tube is on the bottom

78
Q

What are the disadvantages of having the C-arm tube on top of the patient?

A

Increased OID
Significant increase in exposure to the head

79
Q

How many display moniters are used with C-arm?

A

2 - active image on one and stored image on the other

80
Q

Images are recored in rapid succession while contrast medium is injected and then displayed as a moving image

A

Cine loop capability

81
Q

This mode is used to magnify the image for better visualization

A

Magnification mode

82
Q

This mode is used to create an x-ray beam that pulsates at timed increments to reduce exposure

A

Pulse mode

83
Q

This mode activates a digital spot, which results in a higher quality computer-enhanced image

A

Snapshot or digital spot

84
Q

This allows for exposure by the operator if desired, or the use of AEC

A

Auto/manual exposure control

85
Q

What is subtraction?

A

A technique in which an initial image is recorded during contiuous fluoroscopy

The initial image is then used as a filter for the next images

All stationary structures are removed from the image and only moving structures are imaged

86
Q

What is roadmapping?

A

Method of image display wherein a specific fluoroscopic image is held on the screen in combination with continuous fluoro.

It removes stationary structures from the screen

87
Q

Mobile x-ray system designed for 2D fluoroscopic and 3D imaging

A

O-arm imaging system

88
Q

When is the O-arm useful?

A

When the physician needs 2D and 3D information of anatomic structures and objects with high attenuation such as bony structures or metallic objects

89
Q

The primary source of radiation exposure to the fluoroscopy staff is from:

A

Scattered radiation from the patient

90
Q

0.5mm lead reduces exposure by ____%

A

50 or more

91
Q

The operator of the C-arm should always stand a minimum of ____ feet away from the tube during an exposure

92
Q

A 30 degree C-arm tilt will increase dose to the face and neck region by a factor of:

93
Q

How much does the dose increase when the tube is on top and the intensifier on the bottom

A

Up to 100x higher

94
Q

Is manual technique or automatic used in fluoro?

A

Automatic brightness control

95
Q

How does automatic brightness control work?

A

Compensates brightness loss caused by lower transmission of xrays by generating more xrays and/or producing more penetrating xrays (lowering contrast)

96
Q

What is the maximum exposure rate at 1 foot from the image receptor?

A

88 mGy/min = 10R/min

97
Q

What is the maxium exposure rate for high-level fluoro?

A

176 mGy/min or 20R/min

98
Q

Where must dosimetry monitors be for fluoro?

A

Outside the apron at collar level

99
Q

Where are sterile gowns considered sterile?

A

From the shoulder to the level of the sterile field and at the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow

100
Q

When must masks be changed?

A

Between procedures or when moisture is detected

101
Q

What size IR is used for an operative cholangiography? And where is it placed?

A

14x17
Top of the IR is just below the right axilla

102
Q

What images are preferred for a cholecystectomy?

A

AP, slight RPO, slight LPO

103
Q

Where is the IR positioned for retrograde urography?

A

14x17 LW, centered to the iliac crest

104
Q

What are the 3 radiographs taken during a retrograde urograph?

A

Scout radiograph - used to check positioning and catheter placement

Pyelogram - contrast is injected through the catheter into the renal pelvis

Ureterogram - contrast is injected to one or both ureters

105
Q

What are the 3 common hip fractures?

A

Femoral neck
Intertrochanteric
Subtrochanteric

106
Q

What 2 positions are used during a hip fracture?

A

PA
Xtable Lateral

107
Q

ACL

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

108
Q

Stiffening of a joint by operative means

A

Arthrodesis

109
Q

Creating of an artificial joint to correct ankylosis

A

Arthroplasty

110
Q

A state of sterility; condition in which living pathogens are absent

111
Q

Orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone

A

Cancellous screw

112
Q

Large screw used for internal fixation of non-displaced fractures of proximal femur

A

Cannulated screw

113
Q

An artificial regulator for cardiac rate and rhyhm

A

Cardiac pacemaker

114
Q

Orthopedic wire that tightens around fracture site to reduce shortning of limb

A

Cerclage wire

115
Q

The use of radioactive cesium in the treatment of certain malignancies, including prostate cancer

A

Cesium implants

116
Q

Surgical removal of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystectomy

117
Q

Procedure in which bone fragments are reduced manually without surgical intervention

A

Closed reduction

118
Q

Narrow orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix cortical bone

A

Cortical screw

119
Q

Lighted tubular endoscope used for examination of the urinary bladder

A

Cystoscope

120
Q

Screw and plate combination used to apply forces through the fracture site; used commonly for long bone shaft fractures in which stress may be great

A

Dynamic compression plate

121
Q

Electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system

A

ESWL - extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

122
Q

EX-FIX

A

External fixation

123
Q

DHS

A

Dynamic hip screw

124
Q

A special OR table used for hip pinnings and other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb and allow fluoro to be performed during the procedure

A

Fracture table

125
Q

Surgical procedure designed to reduce proximal femoral fractures thorugh the use of various internal fixation devices

A

Hip pinning

126
Q

HTO

A

High tibial osteotomy

127
Q

Procedure in which a special external fixator is used to lengthen long bones as a treatment for severe fracture or congenital deformity

A

Ilizarov technique

128
Q

IM nail

A

Intramedullary nail

129
Q

Titanium or other alloy cage filled with bone and inserted between the vertebral bodies to maintain disk space height and permit fusion of the intervertebral joint

A

Interbody bone fusion device

130
Q

A flexible or rigid device placed within the medullary cavity to reduce a fracture or stabilize a diseased long bone

A

Intramedullary rod

131
Q

Unthreaded or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of the wrist and individual bones of the hands and feet; also may be used for skeletal traction

A

Kirschner wire (K-wire)

132
Q

A surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement by removing an aspect of the lamina in the vertebral arch

A

Laminectomy

133
Q

Surgical opening into one or more laminae of the vertebral arch

A

Laminotomy

134
Q

Use of a special endoscopic device to visualize and assist with surgical removal of the gallbladder

A

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

135
Q

Crushing calcification in the renal pelvis, ureter, or urinary bladder by mechanical force or sound waves

A

Lithotripsy

136
Q

Microsurgical procedure performed on the spine to remove bony fragments or disk material that may be causing neural impingement

A

Microdiskectomy

137
Q

A condition in which bony changes or a herniated disk produces impingement of the spinal nerves that pass through the vertebral arch of the vertebra

A

Neural impingement

138
Q

Radiographic procedure performed during surgery to visualize and locate undetected stones or obstructions within the biliary ducts

A

Operative cholangiography

139
Q

ORIF

A

Open reduction with internal fixation

140
Q

PCL

A

Posterior cruciate ligament

141
Q

Fabricated substitute for a diseased or missing anatomic part

A

Prosthesis

142
Q

To align two or more bone fragments in the correct position as treatment for a fracture, as applied in orthopedic medicine

143
Q

A nonfunctional examination of the urinary system during which contrast medium is introduced directly retrograde into the pelvicalyceal system via catheterization by a urologist during a minor surgical procedure

A

Retrograde urography

144
Q

Flexible and thin orthopedic plate used to fix and connect fractures

A

Semitubular plate

145
Q

An isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the nonsterile environment; often used to permit the use of C-arm fluoroscopy during a hip pinning procedure

A

Shower curtain

146
Q

Surgical fusion of one vertebra to another, which stabilizes them following laminectomy or as treatment for a degenerative condition or fracture

A

Spinal fusion

147
Q

Condition caused by degenerative changes that result in enlargement of the facet joints, which often leads to impingement of the spinal nerves that pass by them

A

Spinal stenosis

148
Q

Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drap, cover, or protective barrier, permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas

A

Strike-through

149
Q

THR, THA

A

Total hip replacement
Total hip appliance

150
Q

TKR, TKA

A

Total knee replacement
Total knee appliance

151
Q

The use of artificial joint implants to restore motion and function of a joint

A

Total joint arthroplasty

152
Q

The process of putting a limb, bone, or group of muscles under tension with the use of weights and pulleys to align or immobilize the part

153
Q

What are the 4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma?

A

Shoulder
Fingers/thumb
Patella
Hip

Rad Positioning (39 decks)

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