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SECOND SEM 3rd YEAR > CC2 Lec Midterm > Flashcards

CC2 Lec Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Of the immunoassay labels, the ________ labels are compounds that have the same atomic number but different weights than the parent nuclide.

a. Chemiluminescent
b. Enzyme
c. Radioisotope
d. Fluorescent

A

c. Radioisotope

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2
Q

Control Sera: use to check performance of new instrument

a. unassayed commercial control sera
b. homemade pooled sera
c. assayed commercial control sera
d. none of the above

A

c. assayed commercial control sera

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3
Q

Control Sera: can be used for all routine analyses

a. unassayed commercial control sera
b. homemade pooled sera
c. assayed commercial control sera
d. none of the above

A

a. unassayed commercial control sera

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4
Q

Electrophoresis is conducted by applying specimen at the origin, of a (1)_____acetate or (2)____ electrophoresis plate

a. 1:Cellulose, 2: Agarose
b. 1:Fiber, 2: Agarose
c. 1:Cellulose, 2: Fiber
d. 1:Agarose, 2: Cellulose

A

a. 1:Cellulose, 2: Agarose

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5
Q

Ms. X’s protein electrophoresis showed the following result. Which would best explain her finding?

Result:
Albumin = Normal
a1= Normal
a2 = Normal
b = Normal
y = Elevated

a. Immunoglobulin synthesis by antigen activated B Lymphocytes
b. Beta-gamma bridging due to increased IgA
c. Increased hepatic synthesis of acute inflammatory phase reactant proteins
d. Presence of a homogeneous immunoglobulin

A

d. Presence of a homogeneous immunoglobulin

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6
Q

This pathologic electrophoresis pattern was seen in Mrs. B’s serum. Give your diagnosis

Result:
Albumin = decreased
a1= decreased
a2 = elevated
b = decreased
y = decreased

a. Chronic Inflammatory Disease
b. Nephrotic Syndrome
c. Multiple Myeloma
d. Cirrhosis

A

b. Nephrotic Syndrome

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7
Q

A patient, Mr. A, presented the following pathologic electrophoresis pattern. Which would LEAST likely explain his serum protein result?

Result:
Albumin = decreased
a1= normal
a2 = elevated
b = elevated
y = elevated

a. decreased IgA
b. decreased albumin
c. decreased proteins in beta band
d. decreased proteins in alpha band

A

a. decreased IgA

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8
Q

Which organs are defective in this patient?

Result:
Albumin = decreased
a1= decreased
a2 = elevated
b = decreased
y = decreased

a. bone marrow
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. lungs

A

c. kidneys

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9
Q

(1) __ relates to how closely a single measurement agrees with the true value, whereas (2)___ relates to how an average of a series of measurements agrees with the true value

a. 1: sensitivity, 2: bias
b. 1: specificity, 2: sensitivity
c. 1: inaccuracy, 2: bias
d. 1: specificity, 2: bias

A

c. 1: inaccuracy, 2: bias

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10
Q

In Typhoid Fever tittering of Antigen, how should the serial dilution be interpreted?

a. severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the most concentrated mixture
b. recovery from the disease will show turbidity only in the least concentrated mixture
c. severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the least concentrated mixture
d. recovery from the disease will show turbidity in all tubes

A

c. severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the least concentrated mixture

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11
Q

QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM: Ensure inter-laboratory comparability

a. Internal Quality Control
b. External Quality Assurance

A

b. External Quality Assurance

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12
Q

QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM: Concurrent & continuous

a. Internal Quality Control
b. External Quality Assurance

A

a. Internal Quality Control

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13
Q

QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM: Release of reliable results on day to day basis

a. Internal Quality Control
b. External Quality Assurance

A

a. Internal Quality Control

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14
Q

In order of increasing mobility of the migration patterns of Alkaline Electrophoresis, which is the fastest?

a. HbS
b. Hb F
c. Hb Bart
d. HbH
e. Hb A2

A

a. HbS

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15
Q

What is causing the bridging of beta & gamma band in this patient?

Result:
Albumin = decreased
a1= normal
a2 = decreased
b = elevated
y = elevated

a. increased IgM
b. increased IgG
c. increased IgA
d. increased CRP

A

c. increased IgA

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16
Q

Which protein is the cause for the changes of alpha-1 band of this patient?

Result:
Albumin = normal
a1= decreased
a2 = normal
b = normal
y = normal

a. alpha1-antitrypsin
b. transcortin
c. ceruloplasmin
d. thyroid-binding globulin

A

a. alpha1-antitrypsin

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17
Q

This test DON’T need fasting

a. Uric Acid
b. Protein
c. Glucose
d. Lipid
e. Phosphate

A

b. Protein

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18
Q

A peripheral smear was requested on this Patient. Which finding would confirm the diagnosis?

Result:
Albumin = normal
a1= normal
a2 = normal
b = normal
y = elevated

a. Fragmented red cells secondary to hemolysis
b. Increased Rouleaux formation due to elevated plasma viscosity
c. Toxic granulation of Neutrophils secondary to acute infection
d. Lymphocytosis in response to chronic inflammation

A

b. Increased Rouleaux formation due to elevated plasma viscosit

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19
Q

Normally, the LD isoenzyme 2 comprises ____________ % of the total

a. 35 – 52 %
b. 29 - 42 %
c. 17 - 27 %
d. 16 - 32 %

A

b. 29 - 42 %

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20
Q

Given the following data: 11.7, 14.4, 12.1, 12.7, 12.0, 13.5, 12.0, 16.0, 15.0, 14.5, 13.8

Give the Standard Deviation:
a. 4.3
b. 3.5
c. 1.9
d. 1.4

A

d. 1.4

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21
Q

Given the following data: 11.7, 14.4, 12.1, 12.7, 12.0, 13.5, 12.0, 16.0, 15.0, 14.5, 13.8

Give the Variance:
a. 4.3
b. 3.5
c. 1.9
d. 1.4

A

c. 1.9

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22
Q

Of the 2 components of the immunoassay, the (1)__ is the most important component of the system, because it determines the (2)__ or ability to detect small amounts, and the (3)__ or the degree of uniqueness of the procedure.

Answer in no. 1?
a. antigen
b. specificity
c. antibody
d. sensitivity

A

c. antibody

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23
Q

Of the 2 components of the immunoassay, the (1)__ is the most important component of the system, because it determines the (2)__ or ability to detect small amounts, and the (3)__ or the degree of uniqueness of the procedure.

Answer in no. 2?
a. antigen
b. specificity
c. antibody
d. sensitivity

A

d. sensitivity

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24
Q

Of the 2 components of the immunoassay, the (1)__ is the most important component of the system, because it determines the (2)__ or ability to detect small amounts, and the (3)__ or the degree of uniqueness of the procedure.

Answer in no. 3?
a. antigen
b. specificity
c. antibody
d. sensitivity

A

b. specificity

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25
Q

Mr. C, admitted at Intensive Care Unit (ICU), presented the following pathologic Electrophoresis pattern. This is usually associated with what condition?

Result:
Albumin = normal
a1= decrease
a2 = normal
b = normal
y = normal

a. Pulmonary Emphysema
b. Abdominal Ascitis
c. Acute Inflammatory Disease
d. Renal Disease

A

a. Pulmonary Emphysema

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26
Q

In order of increasing mobility of the migration patterns of Acid Electrophoresis, which is the slowest?

a. HbS
b. Hb F
c. Hb A2
d. Hb Bart
e. HbH

A

d. Hb Bart

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27
Q

In the Lineweaver–Burk plot that signifies (1)____ inhibition, the inhibitors have the same y-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but there are different slopes and x-intercepts between the two data sets; (2)___ inhibition produces plots with the same x-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but different slopes and y-intercepts; while the (3)____ inhibition causes different intercepts on both the y and x-axes but the same slope.

Answer in no. 1?
a. Noncompetitive
b. Competitive
c. Uncompetitive
d. None of the Above

A

b. Competitive

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28
Q

In the Lineweaver–Burk plot that signifies (1)____ inhibition, the inhibitors have the same y-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but there are different slopes and x-intercepts between the two data sets; (2)___ inhibition produces plots with the same x-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but different slopes and y-intercepts; while the (3)____ inhibition causes different intercepts on both the y and x-axes but the same slope.

Answer in no. 2?
a. Noncompetitive
b. Competitive
c. Uncompetitive
d. None of the Above

A

a. Noncompetitive

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29
Q

In the Lineweaver–Burk plot that signifies (1)____ inhibition, the inhibitors have the same y-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but there are different slopes and x-intercepts between the two data sets; (2)___ inhibition produces plots with the same x-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but different slopes and y-intercepts; while the (3)____ inhibition causes different intercepts on both the y and x-axes but the same slope.

Answer in no. 3?
a. Noncompetitive
b. Competitive
c. Uncompetitive
d. None of the Above

A

c. Uncompetitive

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30
Q

Depending on the charge of the molecule (1)__ particle migrate more to the anode, while the (2)__ particle migrate more to the cathode.

Answer in no. 1?
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Neutral

A

b. Positive

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31
Q

Depending on the charge of the molecule (1)__ particle migrate more to the anode, while the (2)__ particle migrate more to the cathode.

Answer in no. 2?
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Neutral

A

a. Negative

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32
Q

The difference between results of duplicate analysis _____ to the Med Tech’s performance.

a. is not related
b. is directly proportional
c. has variable relationship
d. is inversely proportional

A

d. is inversely proportional

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33
Q

Malignant neoplasia are classified as (1)__ if they are of epithelial cell origin, (2)__ if they are of mesenchymal origin, (3)__ if they are cancers of the blood, and (4)__ if they are of lymphoid origin.

Answer in #1?
a. carcinoma
b. lymphoma
c. sarcoma
d. leukemia

A

a. carcinoma

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34
Q

Malignant neoplasia are classified as (1)__ if they are of epithelial cell origin, (2)__ if they are of mesenchymal origin, (3)__ if they are cancers of the blood, and (4)__ if they are of lymphoid origin.

Answer in #2?
a. carcinoma
b. lymphoma
c. sarcoma
d. leukemia

A

c. sarcoma

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35
Q

Malignant neoplasia are classified as (1)__ if they are of epithelial cell origin, (2)__ if they are of mesenchymal origin, (3)__ if they are cancers of the blood, and (4)__ if they are of lymphoid origin.

Answer in #3?
a. carcinoma
b. lymphoma
c. sarcoma
d. leukemia

A

d. leukemia

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36
Q

Malignant neoplasia are classified as (1)__ if they are of epithelial cell origin, (2)__ if they are of mesenchymal origin, (3)__ if they are cancers of the blood, and (4)__ if they are of lymphoid origin.

Answer in #4?
a. carcinoma
b. lymphoma
c. sarcoma
d. leukemia

A

b. lymphoma

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37
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- unoccupied in basement membrane of
malignant cells

a. Laminin receptor
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Creatine Kinase
d. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA

A

a. Laminin receptor

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38
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- tumors of epithelial cell origin & estimating
brain tumor size

a. Laminin receptor
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Creatine Kinase
d. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA

A

c. Creatine Kinase

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39
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- primary bone and hepatic malignancies

a. Laminin receptor
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Creatine Kinase
d. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA

A

b. Alkaline Phosphatase

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40
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- extracapsular prostate cancer

a. Laminin receptor
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Creatine Kinase
d. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA

A

d. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA

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41
Q

In adults, high blood levels of Alpha-Feto Protein are seen in the following situations EXCEPT:

a. Germ cell tumors
b. Hepatocellular CA
c. Melanoma
d. Metastatic cancer in liver

A

c. Melanoma

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42
Q

Synthesized and secreted by malignant cells, (1)_____ and (2)_____ are responsible for degrading the extracellular matrix and thus permitting their invasion and metastasis in bone malignancies and in breast cancer respectively.

Answer in #1?
a. histaminase
b. cathepsin d
c. muramidase
d. collagenase

A

d. collagenase

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43
Q

Synthesized and secreted by malignant cells, (1)_____ and (2)_____ are responsible for degrading the extracellular matrix and thus permitting their invasion and metastasis in bone malignancies and in breast cancer respectively.

Answer in #2?
a. histaminase
b. cathepsin d
c. muramidase
d. collagenase

A

b. cathepsin d

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44
Q

A decision criterion for judging whether an analytical run is in or out of control

a. control limits
b. control rule
c. control measurements
d. control value

A

a. control limits

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45
Q

When used with multiple rule, this can be used as a warning rule to trigger careful inspection of control data:

a. R 4s
b. 1 2s
c. 1 3s
d. 2 2s

A

b. 1 2s

46
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: cancer of red blood cells

a. Hepatoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Erythroleukemia
d. Lipoma

A

c. Erythroleukemia

47
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: cancer of glandular epithelium

a. Hepatoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Erythroleukemia
d. Lipoma

A

b. Adenocarcinoma

48
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: benign tumor of blood vessels

a. Hemangioma
b. Osteoma
c. Leiomyoma
d. Hepatoma

A

a. Hemangioma

49
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: Malignant tumor of skin

a. Lipoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

50
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: Malignant tumor of skin

a. Lipoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

b. Chondrosarcoma

51
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: benign tumor of bone

a. Hemangioma
b. Osteoma
c. Leiomyoma
d. Hepatoma

A

b. Osteoma

52
Q

Give the tissue of origin of the following tumors: benign tumor of adipose tissue

a. Erythroleukemia
b. Lipoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Rhabdomyoma

A

b. Lipoma

53
Q

This level of AFP could be a clue for Hepatoma.

a. over 500 nanograms/liter
b. over 500 milligrams/milliliter
c. over 50 nanograms/milliliter
d. over 500 nanograms/milliliter

A

d. over 500 nanograms/milliliter

54
Q

AFP is a good marker for primary hepatoma because it is elevated in approximately __ of the cases.

a. 50-60%
b. 100%
c. 70-90%
d. 60-80%

A

d. 60-80%

55
Q

Germ cell tumors are cancers originating from the following organs:

a. 7%
b. 14%
c. 10%
d. 5%
e. 9%

A

b. 14%

56
Q

The paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, which result from the __ hormonal production, are often the first indication of malignancy.

a. moderate
b. excessive
c. low

A

b. excessive

57
Q

Elevations of the enzyme, ____ correlates well with osteoblastic activity.

a. alkaline phosphatase
b. acid phosphatase
c. creatine kinase

A

a. alkaline phosphatase

58
Q

This is not elevated in patients with medullary thyroid carcinoma, and serves to help discriminate between this tumor and other hyperthyroid diseases

a. thyroglobulin
b. Histaminases
c. calcitonin
d. diamine oxidase

A

a. thyroglobulin

59
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- liver & pancreatic cancers

a. Gamma Glutamyl transferase
b. Estrogen & progesterone receptors
c. Histaminases & Calcitonin
d. Muramidase or lysozyme

A

a. Gamma Glutamyl transferase

60
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- monocytic& myelomonocytic leukemias

a. Gamma Glutamyl transferase
b. Estrogen & progesterone receptors
c. Histaminases & Calcitonin
d. Muramidase or lysozyme

A

d. Muramidase or lysozyme

61
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- medullary thyroid cancer

a. Gamma Glutamyl transferase
b. Estrogen & progesterone receptors
c. Histaminases & Calcitonin
d. Muramidase or lysozyme

A

c. Histaminases & Calcitonin

62
Q

MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS/TUMOR USAGE
- breast & endometrial cancers

a. Gamma Glutamyl transferase
b. Estrogen & progesterone receptors
c. Histaminases & Calcitonin
d. Muramidase or lysozyme

A

b. Estrogen & progesterone receptors

63
Q

It is the graphical map for displaying control results

a. Levey-Jennings chart
b. James Westgard graph
c. FRR chart

A

a. Levey-Jennings chart

64
Q

If tumors of the endocrine glands are responsible for the production of the elevated hormone, it is called (1)__ production; if the increased hormone level is secreted by tumors of other organs that normally do not produce the hormone, it is called (2)__ production.

Answer in #1
a. isolated
b. eutopic
c. iatrogenic
d. ectopic

A

b. eutopic

65
Q

If tumors of the endocrine glands are responsible for the production of the elevated hormone, it is called (1)__ production; if the increased hormone level is secreted by tumors of other organs that normally do not produce the hormone, it is called (2)__ production.

Answer in #2
a. isolated
b. eutopic
c. iatrogenic
d. ectopic

A

d. ectopic

66
Q

These receptors are assayed clinically to determine which breast cancer patients may respond to endocrine therapy such as tamoxifen

a. Estrogen Receptors
b. Epidermal growth factor receptors
c. Progesterone Receptors
d. A & C

A

d. A & C

67
Q

The brain fraction of Creatine Kinase, is normally not observed in serum due to

a. the blood-brain barrier
b. its epithelial cell origin
c. its association with malignancy

A

a. the blood-brain barrier

68
Q

Enzyme/s __ may both be elevated in cases of cirrhosis.

a. 5’Nucleotidase (5’NT)
b. gamma glutamyltransferase
c. leucine amino peptidase
d. B & C

A

d. B & C

69
Q

Tumors are produced when the following occurs on the DNA

a. DNA mutations
b. presence of oncogenes
c. absence of suppressor genes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

70
Q

This is elevated in patients with increased endogenous insulin production, like beta cell pancreatic tumors.

a. Laminin receptor
b. glucagon
c. Beta2-Microglobulin
d. C-peptide

A

d. C-peptide

71
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: breast (with ovarian & endometrial cancers)

a. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA
b. Neuron specific enolase
c. Alpha fetoprotein
d. Estrogen & progesterone receptors w/ c-erbB-2 gene

A

d. Estrogen & progesterone receptors w/ c-erbB-2 gene

72
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: hepatocellular carcinoma

a. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA
b. Neuron specific enolase
c. Alpha fetoprotein
d. Estrogen & progesterone receptors w/ c-erbB-2 gene

A

c. Alpha fetoprotein

73
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: tumors associated with the neuroendocrine system

a. Acid Phosphatase in conjunction with PSA
b. Neuron specific enolase
c. Alpha fetoprotein
d. Estrogen & progesterone receptors w/ c-erbB-2 gene

A

b. Neuron specific enolase

74
Q

The coefficient of variation (CV) is defined as:

a. the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the mean µ.
b. the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the median.
c. the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the variance σ2.
d. the ratio of the standard deviation µ to the mean σ

A

a. the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the mean µ.

75
Q

To be acceptable, the value for coefficient of variation should be NOT MORE
THAN____

a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 11%
d. 15%

A

c. 11%

76
Q

It is the fetal form of the enzyme, Creatine Kinase

a. CK MB
b. CK MM
c. CK BB

A

c. CK BB

77
Q

Bence Jones protein are also present in patients with these cancers

a. multiple myeloma
b. lymphoma
c. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
d. A & C

A

d. A & C

78
Q

Galactose is converted to glucose by these two important enzymes:

a. galactokinase
b. galactase
c. galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
d. A & C

A

d. A & C

79
Q

The major iron transport protein is:

a. ferritin
b. ceruloplasmin
c. transferrin
d. Bence Jones protein

A

c. transferrin

80
Q

This is a mucin marker:

a. Cyfra 21-1
b. CA72-4
c. CA 19-9
d. CA 15-3

A

c. CA 19-9

81
Q

Found on the surface of all nucleated cells, it is used as a marker for leukemias, lymphoma, and multiple Myeloma, but may also be elevated in patients suffering from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

a. infection.
b. Beta2-microglobulin
c. CEA
d. Tissue polypeptide antigen
e. cathepsin D

A

b. Beta2-microglobulin

82
Q

This marker is elevated in alcoholism, inflammation of the bowel, cystic fibrosis, and in heavy cigarette smokers

a. Lipid-associated Sialic acid
b. ferritin
c. AFP
d. CEA

A

d. CEA

83
Q

Lewis-negative patients will not produce this marker:

a. CA125
b. CEA
c. CA135
d. CA19-9

A

d. CA19-9

84
Q

This method is considered the most specific non-enzymatic method for glucose.

a. Neocuproine
b. Condensation with phenols
c. Somogyi-nelson
d. Condensation with aromatic amines.

A

d. Condensation with aromatic amines.

85
Q

How much NaF should the Med Tech add to the 3ml blood if he wanted to preserve it?

a. 20mg
b. 5mg
c. 15mg
d. 6mg

A

d. 6mg

86
Q

The level of glucose in a fasting individual is maintained within the range of:

a. 50-110 mg/dL
b. 6.2 -8.2 mmol/L
c. 95-120 mg/dL
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

87
Q

Cancer cells may have an abnormally high percentage of their cells that is in:

a. S phase
b. G1 phase
c. G2 phase
d. G0 phase

A

a. S phase

88
Q

__ of squamous cell carcinomas (head, neck, ling, esophagus) show elevated levels of SCC antigen.

a. 5.8%
b. 85%
c. 58%
d. 65%

A

c. 58%

89
Q

A patient’s HbA1c was 8%. Conclusion:

a. the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet
b. Patient is having gestational diabetes
c. his diet has nothing to do with this test
d. patient’s Diabetes is well-controlled by his diet

A

a. the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet

90
Q

This/These is/are found in cell membranes of chemotherapy drug-resistant cells. Cancer patients who are negative on this marker respond significantly better to chemotherapy.

a. Collagenase
b. Beta2-microglobulin
c. P-Glycoprotein
d. cathepsin D

A

c. P-Glycoprotein

91
Q

TUMOR MARKERS: breast cancer

a. CA15-3
b. LD-5 & Carcinoembryonic antigen
c. p53 gene mutation

A

a. CA15-3

92
Q

TUMOR MARKERS: adenocarcinomas

a. CA15-3
b. LD-5 & Carcinoembryonic antigen
c. p53 gene mutation

A

b. LD-5 & Carcinoembryonic antigen

93
Q

TUMOR MARKERS: continuous cellular proliferation

a. CA15-3
b. LD-5 & Carcinoembryonic antigen
c. p53 gene mutation

A

c. p53 gene mutation

94
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: continuous cellular proliferation

a. CA125
b. CA19-9
c. c-abl/bcr gene
d. p53 gene mutation

A

d. p53 gene mutation

95
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: breast cancer

a. CA125
b. CA19-9
c. c-abl/bcr gene
d. p53 gene mutation

A

c. c-abl/bcr gene

96
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: ovarian carcinomas

a. CA125
b. CA19-9
c. c-abl/bcr gene
d. p53 gene mutation

A

a. CA125

97
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: pancreatic cancer

a. CA125
b. CA19-9
c. c-abl/bcr gene
d. p53 gene mutation

A

b. CA19-9

98
Q

Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is indicated in cases of the following EXCEPT:

A

a. the diagnosis of acromegaly.
b. galactose intolerance
c. unequivocal fasting or random blood glucose concentrations
d. unexplained glycosuria particularly in pregnancy

99
Q

Characteristics of suppressor genes include the following EXCEPT:

a. their loss promotes metastasis
b. their presence allows continuous transcription of growth
c. protein products down regulate cellular proliferation
d. but their loss promotes cell proliferation

A

b. their presence allows continuous transcription of growth

100
Q

Characteristics of oncogenes include the following EXCEPT:

a. down regulate cellular proliferation
b. promoting increased transcription of growth
c. activated by mutational events
d. products antagonizes normal cellular apoptosis

A

a. down regulate cellular proliferation

101
Q

In Hexokinase method, the increase in absorbance due to the ____ in the second reaction is measured directly at 340 nm.

a. production of NADP from ATP
b. production of NAD from NADH
c. production of NADH from NAD
d. production of G6PD from G6P

A

b. production of NAD from NADH

102
Q

Increased PSA density __(1)___ and increased PSA velocity __(2)___ correlate better with prostatic cancer than with prostatic hyperplasia.

Answer in #1
a. >0.15
b. >1.5
c. >7.05ng/ml/day
d. >0.75ng/ml/day

A

a. >0.15

103
Q

Increased PSA density __(1)___ and increased PSA velocity __(2)___ correlate better with prostatic cancer than with prostatic hyperplasia.

Answer in #2
a. >0.15
b. >1.5
c. >7.05ng/ml/day
d. >0.75ng/ml/day

A

d. >0.75ng/ml/day

104
Q

Match the following processes with the correct term: glycogenesis

a. glycogen converted to glucose
b. amino acids converted into glucose
c. process of building glycogen from glucose
d. triglyceride degradation

A

c. process of building glycogen from glucose

105
Q

Match the following processes with the correct term: glycogenolysis

a. glycogen converted to glucose
b. amino acids converted into glucose
c. process of building glycogen from glucose
d. triglyceride degradation

A

a. glycogen converted to glucose

106
Q

Match the following processes with the correct term: lipolysis

a. glycogen converted to glucose
b. amino acids converted into glucose
c. process of building glycogen from glucose
d. triglyceride degradation

A

d. triglyceride degradation

107
Q

Match the following processes with the correct term: gluconeogenesis

a. glycogen converted to glucose
b. amino acids converted into glucose
c. process of building glycogen from glucose
d. triglyceride degradation

A

b. amino acids converted into glucose

108
Q

Match the following processes with the correct term: proteolysis

a. glycogen converted to glucose
b. amino acids converted into glucose
c. process of building glycogen from glucose
d. proteins are degraded to form amino acids

A

d. proteins are degraded to form amino acids

109
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: marker of cellular proliferation

a. c-abl/bcr gene
b. Loss of WT1 gene
c. Loss of BRCA1 or BRCA2
d. Tissue polypeptide antigen

A

d. Tissue polypeptide antigen

110
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: chronic myelogenous leukemia

a. c-abl/bcr gene
b. Loss of WT1 gene
c. Loss of BRCA1 or BRCA2
d. Tissue polypeptide antigen

A

a. c-abl/bcr gene

111
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: breast cancer

a. c-abl/bcr gene
b. Loss of WT1 gene
c. Loss of BRCA1 or BRCA2
d. Tissue polypeptide antigen

A

c. Loss of BRCA1 or BRCA2

112
Q

TUMORS & MARKERS: Wilm’s tumor

a. c-abl/bcr gene
b. Loss of WT1 gene
c. Loss of BRCA1 or BRCA2
d. Tissue polypeptide antigen

A

b. Loss of WT1 gene

SECOND SEM 3rd YEAR (39 decks)

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