bones and joints patholgy/disease Flashcards

1
Q

normal bone

A
  • outer solid cortical bone
  • inner trabecular (spongy) bone
  • outside surface periosteum
  • inner space (medullar) contains fat or haemopoietic marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

functions of bone

A
mechanical
mineral homeostasis(Calcium)
houses haemopoeitic system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bone disease types

A

1) infections
2) tumours
3) trauma/degeneration
4) also specific dearrangmenst of bones specialised processed and functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bone matrix formation diseases

A

osteogenesis imperfecta
due to mutation in type 1 collagen
can also affect ear/eye/teeth/skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cartilage matrix formation fisroders

A

achondroplasia

  • failure of cartilage maturation at the growth plate (of long bones)
  • caused by mutation of fibroblast growth receptor 3 which causes it to be continually activated (it is a negative regulator of bone growth)
  • failure of proper remodelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

disease of mienralisation

A

osteomalacia/rickets

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

osteomalacia

A

defiicey in Vit D/calcium
can be dietary or metabolic
failure of mineralise - cartilage overgrowth, failure of longitudinal growth

causes fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rickets

A

rickets in growing skeleton
due to failure of mineralisation of growth plate cartilage – growth plate cartilage functions in quiesant and hypertrophic zone, as it mineralises gets resorbed and replaced by bone, but the final stage fails in rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

osteoporsis

A

increase in porosity of bone due to reduction bone mass (gaps in trabecular bone increase)

hormones, lifestyle, activity, genetic, nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

complications of osteoporosis

A

fragility fractues
kyphosis (dowagers hump, as spinous processes stronger tan vertebral bodies)
loss of height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

treatment of osteoporosis

A

inhibit bone resorption (bisphosphonates)

increase bone formation? experiments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

disorders of abnormal turnover

A
pages disease
deformity of individual bones
increase in resorption and poor controlled bone formation
can develop sarcoma 
no cure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

bone infections

A

osteomyelitis
complicate of compound fractres
necrosis bone fragmetns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

common organisms causing osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

M tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bone tumours

A

most are metastases

top 3 - lung breast prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

primary bone tumours can be

A

chondrogenic
osteogenic
other (e.g. non matrix forming)

17
Q

chondrogenic bengin tumoir

A

1) osteochrondroma
- from the growth plate, buds out forming a tumour typically long bones
2) chrondroma
- forms inside bones, typically in small bones

more benign than malignant

18
Q

malignant chrondrogenic tumoir

A

1) chondrosarcoma
- resistant to radio therapy
- need to be surgical removal, difficult
- pelvis or proximal femur

19
Q

osteogenic tumours benign

A

fewer benign

1) osteoid osteoma
- any site
- small tumours in cortex
2) osteoblastoma
- larger tumours

20
Q

malignant osteogenic tumoirs

A

osteosarcoma

most common in distal femur

21
Q

which bone tumours affect younger pt more

A

osteosarcoma

ewings sarcoma

22
Q

types of joint diseases

A

1) infections
2) crystal arthropathies
3) chronic inflammatory arthritis
4) osteoarthritis/osteoarthrosis
5) tumours

23
Q

joint infections

A

septic arthritus
usually staph aureus
Iv Ab with /without draiange

24
Q

crystal arthropathies

A

gout

psudogout

25
Q

gout

A

urate crystals secondary to raised serum uric acid

treated with drugs to lower serum rate

26
Q

psuedogout

A

deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals
age related
treated symptimatically

27
Q

chronic infalmamtory arthritis

A

generally autoimmune

rheumatoid most common

28
Q

rheumatoid arthritis and tx

A

systemic inflmamtory disorder
progressive destruction synovitis
joint deformity

tx - anti TNF

29
Q

osteoarthrisis/throsis

A

degenerativ disase
erosion of cartialge
minimal inflammation
predisposed by previous joint failure

30
Q

treatment of osteoathritis

A

cannot cure

end stage treated by arthroplasty