78 - Acne Vulgaris Flashcards

1
Q

The prevalence of acne is adolescents is higher in _____, but in adults is higher in _____

A

Males

Females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Two indigenous populations that have been described that do not develop acne

A

Papua New Guinea

Paraguay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drug-induced acne may be caused by

A
Anabolic steroids
Corticosteroids 
Corticotropin
Phenytoin
Lithium
Isoniazid
Vitamin B complexes
Halogenated compounds
Certain chemotherapy medications, particularly with EGFR inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hormonal therapy which can exacerbate or induce acne vulgaris

A

Progestin-only contraceptives
Injectables
Intrauterine devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Y/N: True cysts are rarely found in acne

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Although the majority of inflammatory lesions appears to originate from _____ (54%), a significant number of inflammatory (26%) lesions arise from _____

A

Comedones

Normal uninvolved skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Categories of atrophic scars in acne

A

Ice pick scars
Boxcar scars
Rolling scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Narrow, deep scars that are widest at the surface of the skin and taper to a point in the dermis

A

Ice pick scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Wide sharply demarcated scars that do not taper to a point at the base

A

Boxcar scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Shallow, wide scars that have an undulating appearance

A

Rolling scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Another type of scar, which typically presents as atrophic soft papules on the upper part of the trunk

A

Perifollicular elastolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Key elements in the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris

A
  1. Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation
  2. Sebum production
  3. Propionibacterium acnes
  4. Inflammation and immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is converted from dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S) by

A

17-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (HSD)

5-alpha reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compared with epidermal keratinocytes, follicular keratinocytes have increased _____, thus enhancing DHT production

A

17-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (HSD)

5-alpha reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(High/Low) levels of linoleic acid induce follicular keratinocyte hyperproliferation and the production of proinflammatory cytokines

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IL-_____ induces follicular keratinocyte hyperproliferation and microcomedone formation

A

1alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On average, people with acne excrete more sebum than those without acne, and secretion rates (have been shown/have not been shown) to correlate with the severity of clinical manifestations

A

Have been shown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Main component of sebum

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Broken down into free fatty acids by P. acnes

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The dose of estrogen required to decrease sebum production is (greater/less) than the dose required to inhibit ovulation

A

Greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Released by the hypothalamus and increased in response to stress

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Predominant cell type within 24 hours of comedo rupture

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ lymphocytes are found around the pilosebaceous unit, and _____ cells are found perivasularly

A

CD4+

CD8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

One to two days after comedo rupture, the _____ becomes the predominant cell type

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Gram-positive, anaerobic, microaerophilic bacterium found in the sebaceous follicle Dominant bacterial inhabitant of the human sebaceous gland
P. acnes
26
There is a significant increase in P. acnes colonization at
Puberty
27
Y/N: There are no consistent data correlating the raw number of P. acnes organisms present in a sebaceous follicle and the severity of the acne
Yes
28
Recent studies provide evidence that _____ diets may exacerbate acne and _____ ingestion appears to be weakly associated with acne
High glycemic loads | Dairy
29
Excess androgens may be produced by
Adrenal gland | Ovary
30
Laboratory workup to measure excess androgen
``` Serum DHEAS Total testosterone Free testosterone LH:FSH ratio Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone ```
31
Considered the most sensitive for PCOS
Free testosterone
32
Additional test to consider to identify an adrenal source of androgens
Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
33
Androgen testing should be obtained
Just before or during the menstrual period
34
Patients taking contraceptives that prevent ovulation will need to discontinue their medication for at least _____ before testing
1 month
35
Values of DHEAS in the range of 4000 to 8000 ng/mL may be associated with
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
36
Patients with a serum DHEAS greater than 800 ng/mL could have a/an
Adrenal tumor
37
Serum total testosterone in the range of 150 to 200 ng/dL or an increased LH-to-FSH ratio (>2.0) can be found in cases of
PCOS
38
Greater elevations in serum testosterone (>200 ng/dL) may indicate a/an
Ovarian tumor
39
In women, there is often variation in relation to the menstrual cycle, with a flare just before the onset of menstruation, especially in those older than _____ of age
30 years
40
Binding of these agents to nuclear RAR affects the expression of genes involved in cell proliferation, differentiations, melanogenesis, and inflammation
Retinoids
41
Retinoids have _____ properties
Comedolytic | Antiinflammatory
42
Some newer formulations use a microsphere delayed-delivery technology or are incorporated within a polyolprepolymer to decreased the _____ potential of tretinoin while allowing greater concentration of medication
Irritancy
43
Inactivated by concomitant use of benzoyl peroxide and is photolabile
Generic tretinoin
44
Specifically targets the RARgamma receptor | Both photostable and can be used in conjunction with benzoyl peroxide
Adapalene
45
The only retinoid recently made available by the US FDA for over-the-counter treatment for acne in those 12 years and older
Adapalene 0.1% gel
46
Tazarotene exerts its action through its metabolite, _____, which in turn inhibits the RARgamma receptor
Tazarotenic acid
47
Powerful antimicrobial agent, markedly reducing the bacterial population via release of free oxygen radicals Also has mild comedolytic properties
Benzoyl peroxide
48
Can produce significant dryness and irritation | Can bleach clothing and hair
Benzoyl peroxide
49
Bacteria are unable to develop resistance to _____, making it the ideal agent for combination with topical or oral antibiotics
Benzoyl peroxide
50
Most recently approved topical antibiotic for acne
Topical dapsone 5% and 7.5% gel
51
Y/N: Topical dapsone is not safe for use in patients with G6PD deficiency
No -safe for use
52
Topical dapsone should not be applied concomitantly with _____, or it may impart an orange color on the skin
Benzoyl peroxide
53
Lipid-soluble beta-hydroxy acid which has comedolytic properties by somewhat weaker than those of a retinoid Causes exfoliation of the stratum corneum through decreased cohesion of the keratinocytes Less effective then benzoyl peroxide
Salicylic acid
54
Dicarboxylic acid which has both antimicrobial and comedolytic properties Also a competitive inhibitor of tyrosinase
Azelaic acid
55
Thought to have antibacterial properties though their inihibition of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA), an essential substance for P. acnes growth
Sulfonamides
56
Inhibits the formation of free fatty acids and has presumptive keratolytic properties Often combined with sodium sulfacetamide to enhance its cosmetic tolerabilty due to sulfur's disctinctive odor
Sulfur
57
Resorcinol is also indicated for use in acne for its _____ properties
Antimicrobial
58
Does not alter sebum production | Decreases the concentration of free fatty acids while the esterified fatty acid content increases
Oral tetracyclines
59
Doxycyline and minocycline are the most commonly used tetracycline derivatives for acne. They have the distincy advantage that
They can be taken with food with minimal impaired absorption
60
Major disadvantages of doxycycine and minocycline
Potential risk of photosensitivity reaction
61
Can cause blue-black pigmentation, especially in acne scars
Minocycline
62
Should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before or 1 hours after meals
Tetracycline
63
Tetracycline should not be administered to pregnant women, especially after the fourth month of gestation, and are not recommended for use in children younger than
9 years of age
64
Because of the prevalence of _____-resistant strains of P. acnes, the use of oral _____ is generally limited to pregnant women or children
Erythromycin
65
First-generation cephalosporin Hydrophilic; penetrates poorly into the pilosebaceous unit Success is most likely caused by antiinflammatory rather than antimicrobial properties
Cephalexin
66
Antibiotic resistance should be suspected in patients unresponsive to appropriate antibiotic therapy after _____ of treatment
6 weeks
67
Resistance is highest with _____ and lowest with _____
Erythromycin | Lipophilic tetracylines, doxycyline and minocycline
68
The least resistant is noted with
Minocycline
69
Recent guidelines recommend limiting the duration of oral antibiotic therapy in acne to _____ to reduce risk of resistance
3 to 6 months
70
Two progestins have demonstrated antiandrogenic properties
1. Cyproterone acetate | 2. Drospirenone
71
Usually restricted to severely involved patients, often overlapping with isotretinoin to limit any potential flaring at the start of treatment
Glucocorticoids
72
Glucocorticoids in low dosages are also indicated in
Female patients who have an elevation in serum DHEAS associated with an 11- or 21-hydroxylase deficiency Other individuals with demonstrated androgen excess
73
Act on the pituitary gland to disrupt its cyclic release of gonadotropins
GnRH agonists, such as leuprolide
74
GnRH agonists are used in the treatment of
Ovarian hyperandrogenism
75
Aldosterone agonist and functions in acne as both an androgen-receptor blocker and inhibitor of 5-alpha reductase
Spironolactone
76
Side effects of spironolactone
``` Diuresis Potential hyperkalemia Irregular menstrual periods Breast tenderness Headache Fatigue ```
77
Combining spironolactone treatment with _____ can alleviate the symptoms of irregular menstrual bleeding
Oral contraceptive
78
Long-term studies in rats receiving high doses of spironolactone demonstrated an increased incidence of _____, resulting in a black box warning by the FDA
Adenomas on endocrine organs and the liver
79
Progestational antiandrogen that blocks the androgen receptor
Cyproterone acetate
80
Androgen receptor blocker
Flutamide
81
Liver function tests should be monitored while using flutamide because cases of _____ have been reported
Fata hepatitis
82
Isotretinoin is also effective in the treatment of
Gram-negative folliculitis Pyoderma faciale Acne fulminans
83
The risk of _____ may be increased with concomitant used of tetracyclines and isotretinoin
Pseudotumor cerebri
84
Most common musculosketal complain with the use of isotretinoin
Myalgia
85
Baseline laboratory monitoring for patients taking isotretinoin
CBC Liver function tests Lipid panel
86
The greatest attention should be paid to following serum _____ levels
Triglyceride
87
Baseline values for serum triglycerides should be obtained and repeated at _____ of therapy
4 and 8 weeks
88
If serum triglycerides increase above _____, the levels should be monitored frequently. Levels above _____ are a reason for interrupting therapy or treating the patient with a lipid-lowering drug
500 mg/dL | 700 to 800 mg/dL
89
Y/N: Isotretinoin is not mutagenic; its effect is on organogenesis
Yes
90
Y/N: Because isotretinoin is not mutagenic, there is no risk to a fetus conceived by a man who is taking isotretinoin
Yes
91
Patients with severe acne often need pretreatment for 1 to 2 weeks with _____, which may be continued for the first 2 weeks of therapy
Prednisone (40-60 mg/day)
92
It is standard practice to allow at least _____ between courses of isotretinoin
2 to 3 months
93
Preferable type of comedo extractor | Has a broad flat plate and no narrow sharp edges
Unna
94
The removal of _____ comedones is desirable for cosmetic purposes. In contrast, _____ comedones should be removed to prevent their rupture
Open | Closed
95
Subcision is most effective for _____ acne scars
Rolling
96
Major endogenous porphyrin of P. acnes | Can absorb light at the near-UV and blue spectrum of 415 nm
Coproporphyrin III
97
_____ light is currently approved for the treatment of moderate inflammatory acne
Blue
98
Penetrates deeper into the dermis and has greater antiinflammatory properties but causes less photoactivation of the porphyrins
Red light
99
The most consistent improvement in acne after light treatment has been demonstrated with
Photodynamic therapy
100
Photodynamic therapy involves the topical application of aminolevulinic acid (ALA) 1 hour before exposure to a low-power light source. The topical ALA is taken up by the pilosebaceous unit and metabolized to
Protoporphyrin IX
101
Applies negative pressure (ie, suction) to the skin and then delivers a broadband-pulsed light (400-1200 nm)
Photopneumatic device
102
Retinoid: "may use during pregnancy"
Adapalene
103
Retinoid: "consider avoiding use during pregnancy"
Tretinoin
104
Retinoid: "use alternative during pregnancy"
Tazarotene
105
Pregnancy Category B mediations
``` Azelaic acid Clindamycin Erythromyin Metronidazole Oral amoxicillin Oral azithromycin Oral cephalexin Oral erythromycin ```