20 - Pigmentation and Melanocyte Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Specialized cells of the epidermis and hair follicle whose primary function is to synthesize and transfer melanjn to adjacent keratinocytes

A

Melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Melanin synthesis occurs in a specialized organelle

A

Melanosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Y/N: Melanocyte numbers are different in individuals of different racial backgrounds

A

No - similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Location of melanocytes

A

Basal layer of the epidermis
Hair bulb
Outer root sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Melanocytes contain (round/oval) nuclei slightly (larger/smaller) than that of surrounding keratinocytes

A

Oval

Smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Melanocytes are present at about ______ the number of keratinocytes

A

1/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Silver stains that rely on the ability of melanin to become impregnated with silver

A

Fontana-Mason stain

Warthin-Starry stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Y/N: Silver stains react with melanocytes from eumelanotic, but not pheomelanotic skin tissue

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Immunohistologic identification of melanocytes using antibodies directed against

A

Tyrosinase
MITF
Melan-A/Mart1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Although less specific for melanocyte lineage, antibodies directed against _____ protein have long been used with great sensitivity to detect melanocytes and melanoma

A

S100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Immunostaining with antibody _____ is negative in normal adult melanocytes but offers additional specificity for examination of melanocytic neoplasms

A

HMB-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Reduced pigmentation of iris and retina
Photosensitivity
Decreased visual acuity
Nystagmus
Strabismus
Misrouting of optic nerve
A

Ocular albinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Cutaneous albinism (pigmentary dilution of skin and hair)
Ocular albinsim
A

Oculocutaneous albinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

OCA: tyrosinase-negative (severe) albinism (complete loss of tyrosinase function)

A

OCA1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OCA: tyrosinase-positive (mild to moderate) albinism

A

OCA1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

OCA: “Brown” albinism

A

OCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OCA: “Rufous albinism”

A

OCA3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OCA: variable degrees of albinism

A

OCA4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Piebaldism
Congenital deafness
Heterochromia irides
Synophrys
Broad nasal root
Dystopia canthorum
A

Waardenburg syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WS: classic type

A

WS1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WS: lacks dystopica canthorum

A

WS2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WS: limb abnormalities (hypoplasia, syndactyly)

A

WS3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

WS: Hirschsprung disease

A

WS4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tyrosinase-positive cutaneous albinism
Deafness
Eyebrow hypoplasia

A

Tietz syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Depigmented forelock and abdominal skin
Piebaldism
26
``` Tyrosinase-positive oculocutaneous albinism (melanosome dysfunction) Bleeding diathesis (platelet granule dysfunction) ```
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
27
HPS: interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
HPS 1, 2, 4
28
HPS: granulomatous colitis
HPS 1, 4
29
HPS: neutropenia and cytotoxic T-cell dysfunction
HPS2
30
``` Tyrosinase-positive oculocutaneous albinism (melanosome dysfunction) Bleeding diathesis (platelet granule dysfunction) Progressive neurologic dysfunction (mechanism unknown) Severe immunodeficiency (NK cell, cytotoxic T cell, neutrophil dysfunction) Lymphomalike syndrome (overwhelming infiltration of organs by defective white blood cells) Giant lysosome-related organelles (these large granules are visible within leukocytes in PBS) ```
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
31
Pigmentary dilution of skin and hair (clumping of melanin within melanocytes)
Griscelli syndrome
32
GS: neurologic abnormalities
GS1
33
GS: immunodeficiency
GS2
34
Generalized patches of hyperpigmentation of skin and mucous membranes without systemic symptoms
Familial progressive hyperpigmentation
35
Diffuse hyperpigmented and hypopigmented patches without systemic symptoms Variable penetrance
Familial progressive hyper- and hypopigmentation
36
Eumalonosome stage: melanosomes are round, approximately 0.3 um in diameter, and contain small intraluminal vesicles reminiscent of multivesicular bodies of the early endosomal compartment
Stage I
37
Eumalonosome stage: melanosomes are oval in shape and approximately 0.5 um in diameter and exhibit deposition of a parallel fibrillar matrix
Stage II
38
Eumalonosome stage: melanosomes demonstrate deposition of pigment along the filaments
Stage III
39
Eumalonosome stage: melanosomes are fully melanized, with the electron-dense melanin completely obscuring the underlying structures
Stage IV
40
Pheomelanosomes exhibit similar ultrastructural stages of maturation with _____ pheomelansomes exhibiting melanization obscuring underlying structures
Late stage III and IV
41
(Pheo-/eumelanosomes) are smaller, retain a rounded morphology at all stages, and contain a disorganized and less dense filament network
Pheomelanosomes
42
Cutaneous interfollicular melanocytes are present at highest density in the _____, and at lower density in the skin of the _____
Facial and genital skin | Trunk and extremities
43
Characterized by a melanocyte and each of the keratinocytes that it physically contacts
Epidermal melanin unit
44
Each melanocyte contacts and delivers melanin to approximately _____ keratinocytes
40
45
Under the pathologic circumstance of nerve injury, _____ may undergo dedifferentiation to generate ectopic melanocytes
Schwann cells
46
Y/N: Within the hair follicle, the melanocyte population varies by the stage of the hair cycle
Yes
47
Melanocyte stem cells reside within the
Permanent bulge/secondary hair germ
48
During the anagen phase of the hair cycle, the McSCs become activated via
Wnt signaling
49
Differentiated melanocytes of the hair bulb undergo apoptosis during
Late catagen
50
Y/N: Gradual loss of McSC population occurs through each hair cycle
No - McSC population persists through each hair cycle
51
Y/N: Gradual loss of McSCs occurs with age
Yes
52
Has been demonstrated as a niche for McSCs of the acral epidermis
Lower permanent portion of the eccrine gland
53
Acral melanomas are diagnosed with high sensitivity and specificity as a result of their preferential pigmentation of the eccrine-rich _____ of the dermatoglyphs
Ridges
54
Synthesize melanin and form melanosomes but these cells are derived from the neuroectoderm and are developmentally unrelated to the neural crest/melanocyte lineage
Retinal pigment epithelium
55
(Lighter/Darker) eye pigmentation is associated with decreased incidence of age-related macular degeneration
Darker
56
Autoimmunity directed agains melanocytes can lead to severe CNS inflammation in
Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
57
In the cochlea of the ear, melanocytes are located in and required for the normal development and function of the _____ layer
Stria vascularis
58
Sensorineural deafness | Pigmentation defects
Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes
59
Dysfunction of cardiac melanocytes predispose to
Arrhythmias
60
Melanocytes are exclusively derived from the highly migratiry and multipotent _____ population
Neural crest
61
Transient cell population that forms at the margin of the early forming neural tube
Neural crest
62
Neural crest cell migration between the somites and the ectoderm
Dorsolateral migration pathway
63
Second wave of melanocytes derived from Schwann cell precursors that migrate along developing nerves
Ventromedial migratory pathway
64
Melanocyte precursors
Melanoblasts
65
Master melanocyte transcription factor that is first expressed in melanoblasts shortly after exit from neural tube at embryonic day 10.5-11
MITF
66
Structure between the neural tube and somites where melanoblasts paude before traveling upon the dorsolateral migration pathwayl
Migration staging area
67
Other markers of melanoblast specification such as the melanogenic enzymes _____ are expressed during the dorsolateral migration
Dct | TYRP1
68
Melanocytes express the key melanigenic enzyme _____ by embryonic day 14.5
Tyrosinase
69
Melanocytes display pigmentation by embryonic day
16.5
70
Y/N: Most premigratory and migratory neural crest cells give rise to multiple cell types and likely retain developmental plasticity
Yes
71
Factors that regulate melanocyte development, survival and migration: transcription factors
``` MITF PAX3 SOX10 SOX2 FoxD3 ```
72
Germline mutations in _____ were identified in Waardenburg syndrome type 2, characterized by pigmentation defects and hearing loss
MITF (microphthalmia-associated transcription factor)
73
Defects in retinal pigment epithelium, osteoclasts, and mast cells Loss of melanocytes of the skin and inner ear
Microphthalmia
74
Most lineage selective in specifying melanocyte differentiation
MITF, in particular the melanocyte-specific isoform m-MITF)
75
Also regulate expression of other lineages, including certain muscle groups and enteric ganglia/neurons
SOX10 | PAX3
76
Mutation of _____ results in prominent pigment cell-related phenotypes wherease mutations of _____ produce pigment cell defects as well as certain nonpigmentary phenotypes (such as megacolon for _____)
MITF SOX10 and PAX3 SOX10
77
Required for the survival, proliferation and differentiation of melanocytes Acts as an oncogene and is amplifies in a subset of melanoma
MITF
78
The E318K MITF polymorphism found at low frequency in European, North American, and Australian populations is associated with significantly increased melanoma risk, an effect likely mediated by disruption of a concensus MITF _____ site
Sumoylation
79
One of the earliest markers of the neural crest Mutations result in pigmentation defects, abnormalities of neural crest derivatives of the sensory and sympathetic ganglia, Schwann cells, and cardiac neural crest Positive regulator of the MITF promoter in melanocytes and melanoma
PAX3 (Paired Box 3)
80
Mutated in human Waardenburg syndromes types 1 and 3 (hearing loss, pigmentation defect, arm and hand developmental defects)
PAX3
81
Required for the development of neural, glial, and melanocyte neural crest lineages First expressed in premigratory neural crest cells Loss leads to complete absence of melanoblasts Required for survival of postnatal melanocytes, melanocyte stem cells, nevi, and melanoma
SOX10 (SRY-Box 10)
82
One of 4 transcription factors required for reprogramming of somatic cells to induced pluripotent stem cells Play a role in specifying the melanocyte lineage during development Binds and represses the MITF promoter
SOX2
83
Factors that regulate melanocyte development, survival and migration: growth factor signaling
Ednrb c-Kit Wnt/Beta-Catenin Neuregulin/ErbB2/ErbB3
84
G-protein-coupled receptor that activates several signaling pathways, including PKC, MAPK and CAMP/PKA Does not seem to be required for the initial specification of melanoblasts; required mainly for proper melanoblast migration Induce melanocyte proliferation and skin pigmentation
Ednrb (endothelin receptor type B)
85
Ednrb agnosists, the endothelins, are encodes by 3 genes:
Edn1 Edn2 Edn3
86
Ednrb mutation results in
Hirschsprung disease
87
Edn3 mutation results in
Waardenburg plus megacolon
88
Upregulated during neural crest development and is important for establishing the neural crest lineage Loss leads to loss of most neural crest-derived stuctures Represses MITF to favor the Schwann cell fate
FoxD3 (Forkhead Box D3)
89
Mutated in Waardenburg type IV (Waardenburg plus megacolon)
SOX10
90
Also known as Steel factor or stem cell factor
cognate Kit ligand (KITLG)
91
KITLG exists in transmembrane and soluble forms and is produced by
Endothelial cells and keratinocytes
92
Mutation of c-Kit results in _____, which is characterized by a depigmentation of the forelock and abdominal skin
Piebaldism
93
Does not appear to be necessary for the specification of melanoblasts Deficiency results in melanoblasts soon disappearing after migration from the neural tube Regulating survival and differentiation/pigmentation of mature melanocytes
c-Kit
94
Polymorphisms in KITLG has been shown to cause
Familial progressive pigmentation | Familial progressive hyper- and hypopigmentation
95
Enlarging hyperpigmented patches corresponding to increased melanization without change in melanocyte number
Familial progressive pigmentation | Familial progressive hyper- and hypopigmentation
96
Activating mutations and amplification of c-Kit drive the progression of a subset of
Acral lentiginous, mucosal, and lentigo maligna melanomas
97
Consisting of APC, Axin1/2, and GSK3beta | Target beta-catenin for phosphorylation and ubiquitin-dependent degradation
Multiprotein membrane destruction complex
98
Binding of a Wnt family ligand to a _____ family receptor signals _____ to inhibit the membrane destruction complex, allowing for beta-catenin to enter the nucleus and to activate gene transcription
Frizzled | Dishevelled
99
Beta-catenin pathway activation also (potentiates/inhibits) melanoma formation and metastasis in mouse models
Potentiates
100
Controls Schwann cell proliferation, migration, and myelination
ErbB2/ErbB3 heterodimer tyrosine kinase receptor
101
ErbB2/ErbB3 heterodimer tyrosine kinase receptor ligand | Promotes Schwann cell fate and represses the melanocyte fate
Neuregulin
102
Factors that regulate melanocyte development, survival and migration: regulation of melanocyte motility and migration
Rac1
103
Belongs to the Rho superfamily of GTPases | When deleted, melanoblasts migrate less efficiently
Rac1
104
Mutation of _____, a guanine nucleotide exchange factor, occurs frequently in human melanomas, and these mutations may promote melanoma through activation of Rac1
PREX2
105
The 2 forms of melanin, eumelanin | and pheomelanin, are both derived from the precursor
Tyrosine
106
Tyrosinase converts tyrosine to
Dopaquinone
107
Brown/black melanin
Eumelanin
108
Yellow/orange melanin
Pheomelanin
109
Composed of polymers of 5,6-dihydroxyindole and the carboxylate form 5,6-dihydroxyindole-2-carboxylic acid
Eumelanin
110
Formed by oxidation and polymerization of sulfur-containing cysteinyldopa
Pheomelanin
111
Eu- vs pheomelanin: may act as a pro-oxidant
Pheomelanin
112
UVA interacts with pheomelanin, and to a lesser extent, eumelanin, leading to melanin degradation products that induce CPD formation long after UV exposure has ended
Dark CPD
113
Tyrosinase requires binding of ______ for proper function
Copper
114
Two tyrosine-related proteins, _____, show significant homology to tyrosinase and play key roles in melanogenesis (proper trafficking and stabilization of tyrosinase)
TYRP1 | TYRP2/Dopachrome tautomerase (DCT)
115
Defects of tyrosinase, TYRP1, and DCT cause
Oculocutaneous albinism
116
Eumelanogenesis: Dopaquinone spontaneously undergoes intramolecular cyclization to form
Cyclodopa
117
Eumelanogenesis: Cyclodopa then undergoes redox exchange with a second molecule of dopaquinone to form
Dopachrome | Dopa
118
Eumelanogenesis: Dopachrome spontaneously decarboxylates to form _____ (less soluble, black) and _____ (more soluble, lighter black/brown)
DHI | DHICA
119
Eumelanogenesis: Although the uncatalyzed reaction favors DHI formation, the presence of the _____ favors production of DHICA
(DCT) protein
120
Eumelanogenesis: DHI and DHICA are then oxidized and polymerized to form
Eumelanin
121
Eumelanogenesis: _____ exhibits DHICA-oxidase activity, promoting incorporation of DHICA into eumelanin
TYRP1
122
Pheomelanogenesis: Nonenzymatic addition of sulfhydryl groups to dopaquinone results in the formation of
5-S-cysteinaldopa | 2-S-cysteinaldopa
123
Pheomelanogenesis: _____ serves as a major source of sulfhydryl groups, with the other source being ______
Cysteine | Glutathione
124
Cysteinaldopa synthesis predominates in the presence of ______, whereas high tyrosine and/or low cysteine favor ______
Cysteine | Eumelanogesis
125
Pheomelanogenesis: Cysteinaldopa then undergoes redox exchange with dopaquinone to produce
Cysteinaldopaquinones
126
Pheomelanogenesis: Oxidation and cyclization of cysteinaldopaquinones is followed by dehydation, rearrangement, and decarboxylation to form
Benzothiazole intermediates
127
Pheomelanogenesis: The benzothiazole intermediates then polymerize to form
Pheomelanin
128
Melanosomes are lysosome-related organelles that exist only in
Melanocytes | Retinal pigment epithelium
129
As melanosomes mature, the key ultrastructural feature is the appearance of the
Parallel fibrillar network
130
Pigment cell-specific protein that has been shown to be the main component of the parallel fibrillar network
PMEL (gp100 or silver)
131
First site of PMEL deposition
Intraluminal vesicles of stage I melanosomes
132
Increased organization of PMEL amyloid into visible proteinaceous fibrils, which push the intraluminal vesicles outward to fuse with the melanosome membrane
Stage II melanosomes
133
Become increasingly pigmented as melanogenic enzymes are delivered and melanin synthesis has ceases
Stage III melanosomes
134
Fully pigmented, and tyrosinase activity and melanin synthesis has ceased
Stage IV melanosome
135
Mutations of any of the 10 genes encoding components of the BLOC-1, BLOC-2, BLOC-3, and AP-3 protein complexes have been long known to be responsible for
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
136
Hypopigmentation due to melanosome dysfunction in addition to platelet dysfunction, immunodeficiency, and lung fibrosis due to abnormalities of other lysosome-related organelles
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
137
Coordinated the action of microtubule- and actin-dependent machineries to allow proper formation and stabilization of recycling endosomal tubules required for transfer of cargoes to melanosomes
BLOC1
138
Acts to properly direct recycling endosomal tubular transport intermediates to maturing melanosomes to promote melanogenic cargo delivery
BLOC-2
139
Also important for sorting cargo proteins bound for melanosomes, and in different scenarios can act in concert with or independently of BLOC complexes
AP-3
140
The final step in the delivery of cargo to melanosomes is the fusion of cargo-containing vesicle and tubules with the developing melanosome. This involve _____ that are required for membrane fusion
SNARE protein
141
SNARE responsible for BLOC-1-dependent delivery of TYRP1 to the melanosome
VAMP7
142
Is required for the subsequent recycling of VAMP7 after delivery of cargo to the melanosome
BLOC-3
143
Stage IV melanosomes are first transferred to the dendrite tips by _____-mediated microtubule-dependent anterograde transport. _____-mediated retrograde transport melanosomes away from the melanocyte dendrites have been reported
Kinesin | Dynein
144
GTPase _____ is incorporated into the melanosome membrane by a hydrophobic geranylgeranyl tail
Rab27a
145
The adapter protein _____ binds Rab27a and serves a linker to the actin-binding motor protein _____, following transport and retention of melanosomes on the actin cytoskeleton
Melanophilin (Mlph) | MyosinVa (MyoVa)
146
Mutations in Rab27a, Mlph, and MyoVa have been identified in
Griscelli syndrome (partial albinism and immunodeficiency)
147
Melanosomes are transferred by dynein-mediated retrograde transport to a perinuclear location (“_____”) to protect basal keratinocytes from UV-induced DNA damage
Nuclear capping
148
In (dark-/light-) skinned individuals, melanosomes are smaller, and are grouped in membrane-enclosed clusters of 4-8 melanosomes
Light
149
In (darker-/lighter-) skinned individuals, melanosomes are larger, more numerous, and are distributed individually
Darker
150
Y/N: Melanosomes are thought to be degraded during the keratinocyte terminal differentiation process
Yes
151
Keratinocytes derived from (darker-/lighter-) skinned individuals degrade melanosomes more slowly
Darker
152
G-protein-coupled receptor expressed primarily by melanocytes Critical role in determining if a melanocyte produces predominantly eumelanin or pheomelanin
MC1R (melanocortin 1 receptor)
153
(Gain-/Loss-) of-function variants of MC1R are associated with the “red hair phenotype”
Loss
154
Canonical agonist for MC1R
Alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone
155
Alpha-MSH is derived from proteolytic processing of its precursor
Proopiomelanocortin (POMC)
156
_____ gene mutation, in addition to endocrine dysfunction, display the red hair phenotype
POMC
157
Antagonist of MC1R signaling
Agouti protein
158
Transcriptionally activated by MITF in melanocytes and serves as a negative feedback regulator that degrades cAMP
Phosphodiesterase D4
159
Human pigmentation is categorized into
Constitutive and inducible responses
160
Inducible pigmentation after UV exposure (sun tanning) has 2 components that are wavelength dependent
Immediate tanning | Delayed tanning
161
Immediate tanning occurs within minutes to hours after sun exposure, and is mainly a response to _____ radiation. It is most noticeable in _____-skinned individuals and is mediated by oxidation and redistribution of existing melanin
UVA | Darker
162
Delayed tanning is mainly a response to _____ and peaks at about 3 days to 1 week after sun exposure
UVB and shorter-wavelength UVA
163
Immediate vs delayed tanning: much more protective against subsequent sun exposure
Delayed
164
Y/N: Pigmentary pathways downstream of a defective MC1R remain intact
Yes
165
UV radiation of keratinocytes (increases/decreases) TGFbeta1 production
Decreases