Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FD9 > 175 - Gonorrhea, Mycoplasma, and Vaginosis (INCOMPLETE) > Flashcards

175 - Gonorrhea, Mycoplasma, and Vaginosis (INCOMPLETE) Flashcards

1
Q

Gram-negative, aerobic coccus-shaped bacterium found in pairs
Visualized intracellularly, located within PMN leukocytes

A

Neiserria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gonococcal infections were termed _____ in the 16th century in Europe

A

“The clap”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Before the advent of antibiotic, _____ were used to treat gonorrhea

A

Silver preparations including silver nitrate and silver proteinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The prevalence of gonorrhea will be slightly higher in

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Incubation period of gonorrhea in men

A

Typically from 2-8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most gonorrhea infections in men are symptomatic by _____ after exposure

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common manifestation of gonococcal infection in men

A

Urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Entire distal penis becoming swollen in gonorrhea

A

Bull head clap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epididymitis is more commonly caused by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis or by combined infection with N. gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____% of women infected with N. gonorrhea are asymptomatic

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Y/N: Vaginitis does not occur except in prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women because the vaginal epithelium of sexually mature women does not support the growth of N. gonorrhea

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Manifestation of gonococcal infection manifesting in those who practice unprotected anoreceptive intercours

A

Proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gonococcal proctitis is most common in

A

MSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classic triad of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Dermatitis
Migratory polyarthritis
Tenosynovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection occurs in _____%

A

0.5-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Skin findings of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Small- to medium-sized macules or, most typically, hemorrhagic vesicopustules on an erythematous base located on palms and soles or on the trunk and elsewhere on the extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Term to describe the cutaneous lesions of DGI

A

Gun metal gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Y/N: On the palms and soles, DGI lesions may be tender, but in other sites, they tend to be both nonpruritic and painless

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Histologic findings of cutaneous lesions of DGI

A

Perivascular neutrophilia, dermal vasculitis, and epidermal neutrophil infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Symptoms of PID tend to occur or worsen at the time of

A

Menses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inflammation of the liver capsule associated with GU tract infection

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Whereas true septic arthritis caused by gonorrhea is more typically (monoarticular or pauciarticular/polyarticular), (monoarticular or pauciarticular/polyarticular) disease is most often associated with active bacteremia

A

Monoarticular or pauciarticular

Polyarticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Gonococcal meningitis tends to be (more/less) severe than meningococcal meningitis

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gonococcal endocarditis represents a rare complication of disseminated disease, affecting _____% of those with disseminated gonococcus

A

1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Serious complication that often fails antimicrobial therapy and requires surgical interventions

A

Gonococcal endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Neonates may acquire N. gonorrhea during passage through the birth canal from contact with infected secretions
Characterized by profuse, purulent ocular discharge and can lead to severe corneal perforation of scarring

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Prophylactic use of _____ for prevention of ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Silver nitrate drops

Erythromycin, or tetracycline ophthalmic ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pharyngeal or genital gonococcal infection in children is often a sign of

A

Sexual abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Released by N. gonorrhea during periods of rapid growth and contributes to its pathogenesis in disseminated infection

A

Lipooligosaccharide endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Y/N: Humans are the only natural hosts of N. gonorrhea

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Because of high specificity (>99%) and sensitivity (>95%), _____ that demonstrates PMN leukocytes with intracellular gram-negative diplococci can be considered diagnostic for infection with N. gonorrhea in symptomatic men

A

Gram stain of a urethral specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Y/N: A negative Gram stain result can be considered sufficient for ruling out gonococcal infection in asymptomatic men at high risk for infection

A

No - cannot be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Y/N: In contrast to urethral Gram stains, the sensitivity of Gram stain in endocervical swabs is less than 35% and should not be used as a screening tool in women

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

_____ specimens are never recommended for diagnostic purposes because the _____ mucosa resists gonococcal invasion

A

Vagina

Vaginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Has been the “gold standard” diagnostic test for years in the diagnosis of gonorrhea

A

Bacterial culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Culture of N. gonorrhea can be performed on _____ medium

A

Modified Thayer-Martin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Provide more rapid diagnosis

Highly sensitive and specific and may be able to detect even the presence of one organism

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diagnosis via any nonculture method does not allow for

A

Antibiotic sensitivity testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Y/N: Previously treated gonococcal infection reduces the risk of reinfection

A

No - does not reduce the risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

First-line treatment of patients with N. gonorrhea

A

Combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose plus
Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

About _____% of people with gonococcal infection are coinfected with Chlamydia

A

10-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Recommended regimen for DGI affecting the joints

A

Ceftriaxone 1 g IM/IV every 24 hours for 7 days plus

Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Treatment for gonococcal meningitis and endocarditis

A

Ceftriaxone 1-2 g IV every 12-24 hours for 10-14 plays plus

Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment for gonococcal infection in neonates

A

Ceftriaxone 25-50 mg/kg/day IV/IM in a single daily dose for 7 days or 10-14 days if meningitis is documented or
Cefotaxime 25mg/kg IV/IM every 12 hours for 7 days, or for 10-14 days if meningitis is documented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment of partners of _____ patients diagnosed with gonorrhea empirically is as or more effective that the traditional reliance on referral, testing, and as-needed treatment. No studies have evaluated empiric treatment of gonorrhea (or chlamydia) in _____

A

Female or heterosexual male

MSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The CDC currently recommends _____ screening of men who engage in receptive anal intercourse, all sexually active women younger than 25 years old, any woman with a new sex partner, multiple sex partners, or a sex partner with a known STI. Other at-risk populations include those who are not in monogamous relationships, have a current or past history of STIs, or who exchange sex for money or drugs

A

Yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Smallest free-living, self-replicating bacteria

Developed by degenerative evolution from lactobacilli

A

Mycoplasma

48
Q

Mycoplasma (have/lack) a cell wall

A

Lack

49
Q

Mycoplasma routinely colonize the _____ tracts of humans

A

Respiratory

Urogenital

50
Q

Referred to as the genital mycoplasmal organisms

A

Mycoplasma spp

other Ureaplasma spp

51
Q

Most common strains of Mycoplasma

A

Mycoplasma hominis

Mycoplasma genitalium

52
Q

Rates of colonization with Mycoplasma tend to be lower in _____, except in the setting of HIV coinfection

A

Men

53
Q

Y/N: The detection of M. hominis in a urethral smear is irrelevant to NGU because it is thought to be a commensal organism with low virulence

A

Yes

54
Q

Most common cutaneous disease in men with mycoplasma infection

A

Urethritis

55
Q

Most common cutaneous disease in men with mycoplasma infection

A

Cervicitis

56
Q

Y/N: There is a clear relationship between genital mycoplasma and epididymitis or prostatitis

A

No - no clear relationship

57
Q

The abundance of _____ to metabolize predisposes Ureaplasma spp to the urinary tract

A

Urea

58
Q

Y/N: All genital mycoplasmas multiply as parasites because they are unable to complete various metabolic reactions

A

Yes

59
Q

Required for growth of Mycoplasma and is taken from the epithelial cell

A

Cholesterol

60
Q

Y/N: Mycoplasma spp tend to migrate away from mucosal surfaces

A

No - tend to remain localized to mucosal surfaces

61
Q

Mycoplasmas are slow-growing organisms, and culture can take up to _____ to speciate

A

6 months

62
Q

M. hominis and U. urealyticum can be cultured on special media, which is enriched with _____ as a nutrient source

A

Horse serum

63
Q

Preferred method of testing for Mycoplasma

A

NAAT

64
Q

Preferred specimen to submit when the reference laboratory plans to use NAAT for Mycoplasma

A

First-voided urine

65
Q

FDA-approved diagnostic laboratory test for detection of Mycoplasma spp

A

None

66
Q

Y/N: Gram stain will not detect Mycoplasma spp

A

Yes

67
Q

Because Mycoplasma spp lack a cell wall, they are inherently resistant to _____ antibiotics because these drugs target cell wall synthesis

A

Beta-lactam

Cephalosporin

68
Q

Treatment for mycoplasma urethritis

A

Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose or
Azithromycin 500 mg PO on day 1 + 250 mg PO for 4 days or
Moxifloxacin 400 mg/day for 7-14 days

69
Q

In macrolide-resistant mycoplasma infection, consider a course of _____ and retesting of patients 3 to 4 weeks after therapy completion to assess for clearance

A

Oral moxifloxacin

70
Q

If M. genitalium is isolated or if the patient does not respond to treatment on standard PID regimens, the CDC recommends consideration of treatment with

A

Moxifloxacin 400 mg/day for 14 days

71
Q

Y/N: The CDC does not currently recommend routine screening for mycoplasma infection

A

Yes

72
Q

Chlamydia primarily affects the mucous membranes of the

A

Ophthalmic, genitourinary, and respiratory systems

73
Q

Most frequently reported STI

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

74
Q

Most common manifestation of C. trachomatis infections

A

Urogenital infections

75
Q

Most common site of C. trachomatis infection in men

A

Urethra

76
Q

Most common site of C. trachomatis infection in women

A

Urethra

Cervix

77
Q

The discharge in (chlamydia/gonococcal) urethritis is more purulent and profuse

A

Gonococcal

78
Q

Y/N: In urethritis, there is considerable clinical overlap, and neither the nature of the discharge nor the severity of accompanying dysuria can be reliably used to make a specific diagnosis

A

Yes

79
Q

Most common causes of epididymitis in male patients younger than 35 years of age

A

C. trachomatis

N. gonorrhea

80
Q

Y/N: The majority of women with urogenital C. trachomatis infections are symptomatic

A

No - asymptomatic

81
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis or ophthalmia neonatorum may result from

A

Gonorrhea or chlamydia infections

82
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum typically presents _____ after birth and is characterized by a purulent ocular discharge with erythema and swelling of the eyelids

A

1-2 weeks

83
Q

Neonatal chlamydial pneumonia typically presents within _____ of birth and is characterized by nasal symptoms, tachypnea, and cough

A

8 weeks

84
Q

The cough of neonatal chlamydial pneumonia is _____ in nature

A

Staccato

85
Q

Y/N: Wheezing is typically absent in neonatal chlamydial pneumonia

A

Yes

86
Q

In neonatal chlamydial pneumonia, peripheral _____ may be observed, and patients may be prone to developing _____ later in life

A

Eosinophilia

Asthma

87
Q

Individuals with the histocompatibility marker _____ are at increased risk of developing reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27

88
Q

Nonmotile, gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria that replicates within human cells

A

C. trachomatis

89
Q

Two-phase life cycle of C. trachomatis

A

Elementary body

Reticulate body

90
Q

Infectious form of C. trachomatis

A

Elementary body

91
Q

Enters the host epithelial cell via endocytosis, resulting in the formation of a chlamydial inclusion

A

Elementary body

92
Q

C. trachomatis serovar: chronic conjunctivitis and trachoma

A

A through C

93
Q

C. trachomatis serovar: urogenital infections

A

D through K

94
Q

C. trachomatis serovar: lymphogranuloma venereum

A

L1 through L3

95
Q

C. trachomatis symptoms occur _____ after exposure

A

1-3 weeks

96
Q

Preferred method of testing for C. trachomatis

Approved by the FDA for the diagnosis of urogenital infections caused by C. trachomatis

A

NAAT

97
Q

Most sensitive test available and as specific as culture for diagnosing C. trachomatis infection

A

NAAT

98
Q

Y/N: NAATs are not FDA approved for the diagnosis of infection at rectal and oropharyngeal sites for infections caused by C. trachomatis

A

Yes

99
Q

NAATs only detect the DNA or RNA of chlamydial species and may remain positive up to _____ after treatment

A

3 weeks

100
Q

First-line treatment of chlamydial infections

A

Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days

Azithromycin single 1-g dose

101
Q

Most common vaginal infection in women ages 15-44 years

A

Bacterial vaginosis

102
Q

Protective against development of BV

A

Hormonal contraception

103
Q

In BV, there is a decrease in the population of _____ species

A

Lactobacilli

104
Q

Large rod-shaped organisms that help maintain the acidic pH of healthy vaginas and inhibit other anaerobic microorganisms

A

Lactobacilli

105
Q

The number of asymptomatic BV infection is as high as _____%

A

84

106
Q

White or gray vaginal discharge and fishy odor, especially after contact with alkaline semen during intercourse
Milky, homogenous vaginal coating may be seen adherent to the vaginal wall

A

Bacterial vaginosis

107
Q

Criteria for diagnosing BV

A

Amsel criteria

108
Q

Components of the Amsel criteria

A
  1. Profuse milky vaginal discharge
  2. A positive whiff test result (presence of a fishy odor when secretions are exposed to 10% or 20% potassium hydroxide)
  3. A vaginal fluid pH greater than 4.5
  4. Presence of clue cells greater than 20% on microscopic examination
109
Q

According to the Amsel criteria for diagnosing BV, _____ of the four findings must be present

A

Three

110
Q

Squamous epithelial cells covered by coccobacilli that give the cytoplasm a ground-glass appearance and obscure the crisp margins of the cell, leaving ragged borders

A

Clue cells

111
Q

Most reliable indicator of BV

A

Presence of clue cells representing at least 20% of epithelial cells

112
Q

Method involving the use of gram staining to distinguish between the normal bacterial flora of gram-negative rods and lactobacillli from the gram-negative morphotypes seen in BV

A

Nugent method

113
Q

Because of the variety of bacterial species, _____ is not a reliable diagnostic test for BV

A

Nugent method

114
Q

Y/N: There are reports of cases of BV that may resolve on their own without therapy

A

Yes

115
Q

Treatment in asymptomatic BV is not necessary in

A

Women who are not pregnant

116
Q

Sometimes used for BV mainly to help with repopulation of normal lactobacilli to prevent recurrence

A

Probiotics

FD9 (108 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions