12 - Soluble Mediators of the Cutaneous Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Two major categories of soluble mediators that help regulate an effective immune response

A

Cytokines

Chemokines

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2
Q

Soluble polypeptide mediators that play pivotal roles in communication between cells of the hematopoietic system and other cells of the body

A

Cytokines

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3
Q

Large superfamily of small cytokines that are accepted as vital mediators of cellular trafficking
“Chemoattractant cytokine”

A

Chemokines

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4
Q

Most newly identified _____ were named according to biologic assay that was being used to isolate and characterize the active molecule

A

Cytokine

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5
Q

Many cytokines have a wide range of activities, causing multiple effects in responsive cells and a different set of effects in each type of cell capable of responding

A

Pleiotropism

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6
Q

In any single bioassay, multiple cytokines display activity. The absence of a single cytokine can often be largely or even completely compensated for by other cytokines with overlapping biologic effects

A

Redundancy

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7
Q

Assignment of T-cell derived cytokines based on the specific helper T-cell subsets that produce them

A

Th1

Th2

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8
Q

Distinguished by production of a high level of IL-17
Also secrete IL-21 and IL-22
Critical effectors in autoimmune disease

A

Th17

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9
Q

Involved in the maintenance of peripheral self-tolerance
Most distinctive features are their expression of FoxP3 transcription factor and production of transforming growth factor-beta

A

Regulatory T cells

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10
Q

Cytokine that appears to be required for Treg cells to limit the excess activity of proinflammatory T-cell subsets

A

Transforming growth factor-beta

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11
Q

Also a significant contributor to the suppressive activity of Treg cells, particularly at some mucosal interfaces

A

IL-10

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12
Q

Specialize in providing B cell help in germinal centers

A

Follicular helper T cells

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13
Q

Distinguished by high levels of IL-9 production

Function in antiparasite and antimelanoma immunity

A

Th9

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14
Q

Produce IL-22 but not other Th17-associated cytokines

Associated with skin inflammation

A

Th22

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15
Q

Key Th1-promoting factor

A

IL-12

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16
Q

Required for Th2 differentiation

A

IL-4

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17
Q

IL-6, IL-23, TGF-beta are involved in promoting _____ development

A

Th17

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18
Q

A few major signaling pathways account for most effects attributable to cytokines

A

Nuclear factor kappaB pathway

Janus kinase/signal transducer and activator of transcription pathway

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19
Q

A major mechanism contributing to the extensive overlap between the biologic activities of the primary cytokines IL-1 and TNF is the shared use of

A

Nuclear factor kappaB pathway

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20
Q

Cytokines besides IL-1 and TNF that activate NF-kappaB pathway as part of their signal transduction mechanisms include

A

IL-17

IL-18

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21
Q

Pathway shown to play a role in signaling by all cytokines that bind to members of the hematopoietin receptor family

A

JAK/STAT pathway

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22
Q

Four Janus kinases

A

JAK1
JAK2
JAK3
Tyrosine kinase 2

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23
Q

Small molecule inhibitor that targets JAK1, JAK3, and, to a lesser extent, JAK2
Has been found to be effective in the treatment of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Recent reports also indicated efficacy in the treatment of alopecia areata

A

Tofacitinib

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24
Q

JAK1 and JAK2 inhibitor

Beneficial in the treatment of dermatomyositis

A

Ruxolitinib

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25
Q

Clinical trials are currently being undertaken to evaluate the clinical efficacy of JAK
inhibition in the treatment of patients with _____ with onset in infancy, an autoinflammatory disorder that targets the skin, blood vessels, and lungs

A

Stimulator of interferon genes (STING)-associated vasculopathy

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26
Q

Multimeric protein complexes that assemble in the cytosol after sensing various stimuli

A

Inflammasomes

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27
Q

Dominant form of IL-1 produced by monocytes, macrophages, Langerhans cells, dendritic cells

A

IL-1beta

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28
Q

Dominant form of IL-1 in epithelial cells, including keratinocytes

A

IL-1alpha

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29
Q

Stimulates the egress of Langerhans cells from the epidermis during the initiation of contact hypersensitivity, a pivotal event that leads to accumulation of Langerhans cells in skin-draining lymph nodes

A

IL-1beta

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30
Q

Sole signal-transducing receptor for IL-1

A

Type 1 IL-1 receptor or

IL-1R1

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31
Q

A second cell surface protein, _____, must associated with IL-1R1 for signaling to occur

A

IL-1R accessory protein or

IL-1RAcP

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32
Q

Can bind to IL-1R1 but does not induce signaling through the receptor

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist or

IL-1ra

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33
Q

IL-1ra exists in three alternatively spliced forms:
an isoform produced in _____ is the only ligand that contains a signal peptide and is secreted from cells
two other isoforms contained within _____

A

Monocytes

Epithelial cells

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34
Q

Y/N: The association of IL-1R1 with IL-1RAcP increases the affinity for IL-1alpha/beta manyfold while not affecting the affinity for IL-1ra

A

Yes

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35
Q

Y/N: A vast molar excess of IL-1ra is required to fully antagonize the effects of IL-1

A

Yes

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36
Q

A second means of antagonizing IL-1 activity occurs via expression of a

A

Second receptor for IL-1

IL-1R2

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37
Q

Serves to bind IL-1alpha/beta efficiently but not IL-1Ra

A

IL-1R2

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38
Q

Whereas soluble IL-1R2 binds to _____, cell surface IL-1R2 sequesters _____

A

Free IL-1

IL-1RAcP

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39
Q

Expression of IL-1R2 can be upregulated by a number of stimuli, including

A

Corticosteroids

IL-4

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40
Q

IL-1R2 can also be induced by inflammatory cytokines, including

A

IFN-gamma

IL-1

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41
Q

First identified based on its capacity to induce IFN-gamma

A

IL-18

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42
Q

One name initially proposed for this cytokine was IL-1gamma because of its homology with IL-1alpha and IL-1beta

A

IL-18

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43
Q

IL-18 induces proliferation, cytotoxicity, and cytokine production by Th1 and natural killer cells, mostly synergistically with

A

IL-12

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44
Q

Y/N: There is an IL-18 homolog of IL-1ra

A

No - no homolog

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45
Q

Binds to soluble mature IL-18 and prevents it from binding to the IL-18R complex

A

IL-18 binding protein

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46
Q

_____ T cells positive for cutaneous lymphocyte antigen are abundant in inflamed skin, comprising the majority of T cells present

A

Memory

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47
Q

Any injury to the skin, no matter how trivial, releases IL-1 and attracts this population of memory T cells. This has been proposed as the basis of the clinical observation of inflammation in response to trauma, knows as

A

Koebner reaction

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48
Q

Recombinant IL-1Ra

A

Anakinra

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49
Q

Antibody to IL-1beta

A

Canakinumab

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50
Q

IgG Fc fusion protein that includes the ligand binding domains of type I IL-1R and IL-1RAcP

A

Rilonacept or

IL-1 Trap

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51
Q

Biologics that act by inhibiting IL-1 function are efficacious in countering the IL-1-induced inflammation associated with a group of rare autoinflammatory diseases called

A

Cryopyrin-associated periodic syndrome

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52
Q

Anakinra was initially US FDA approved as a therapy for

A

Adult rheumatoid arthritis

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53
Q

TNF-alpha has an ability to mediate two interesting biologic effects

A
  1. Hemorrhagic necrosis of malignant tumors

2. Inflammation-associated cachexia

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54
Q

Metalloproteinase responsible for most TNF-alpha release by T cells and myeloid cells

A

TNF-alpha-converting enzyme (TACE)

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55
Q

TNF-beta is also known as

A

Lymphotoxin alpha (LT-alpha)

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56
Q

Other related molecules in the TNF family include

A

Lymphotoxin beta (LT-beta)
Fas ligand (FasL)
TNF-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL)
Receptor activator of NF-B ligand (RANKL)
CD40 ligand (CD154)

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57
Q

Two receptor proteins capable of binding TNF-alpha with high afficinity

A

p55 receptor for TNF (TNFR1)

p75 TNF receptor (TNFR2)

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58
Q

Receptor responsible for most biologic activities of TNF

A

p55 receptor for TNF (TNFR1)

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59
Q

TNF-alpha evokes two types of responses in cells

A
  1. Proinflammatory effects

2. Induction of apoptotic cell death

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60
Q

Induction of apoptosis by signaling through TNFR1 depends on a region known as a _____ that is absent in TNFR2

A

Death domain

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61
Q

At least two TNFR family members (_____) also contribute to the normal anatomic development of the lymphoid system

A

TNFR1

LT-beta receptor

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62
Q

Important mediator of cutaneous inflammation, and its expression is induced in the course of almost all inflammatory responses in skin

A

TNF-alpha

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63
Q

One molecular mechanism that may contribute to TNF-alpha-induced migration of Langerhans cells toward lymph nodes is reduced expression of the _____ after exposure to TNF-alpha

A

E-cadherin adhesion molecule

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64
Q

Induction of _____ on both epidermal and dermal antigen-presenting cells correlates with movement into the draining lymphatics

A

CC chemokine receptor 7 (CCR7)

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65
Q

Predominant TNFR expressed by keratinocytes

A

TNFR1

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66
Q

Humanized anti-TNF-alpha antibody

A

Infliximab

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67
Q

Fully humanized anti-TNF-alpha antibody

A

Adalimumab

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68
Q

Soluble TNF receptor

A

Etanercept

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69
Q

TNF antagonists are not effective against all autoimmune diseases - _____ appears to worsen slightly after treatment with these agents

A

Multiple sclerosis

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70
Q

TNF antagonists can allow the escape of _____ from immune control

A

Latent mycobacterial infections

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71
Q

IL-17 family of cytokines includes

A

IL-17A through F

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72
Q

Have similar proinflammatory activities, bind to the same heterodimeric receptor composed of the IL-17RA and IL-17RC receptor chains, and act to promote recruitment of neutrophils and induce production of anti-microbial peptides

A

IL-17A and IL-17F

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73
Q

IL-17 species normally function in defense against pathogenic species of

A

Extracellular bacteria

Fungi

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74
Q

Mutations in _____ associated with hyper-IgE syndrome block development of Th17 cells, and lead to recurrent skin infections with Staphylococcus aureus and Candida albicans

A

STAT3

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75
Q

Product of Th2 cells and mast cells that signals through IL-17RB

A

IL-17E or

IL-25

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76
Q

Human monoclonal antibodies against IL-17A

Currently approved for use in moderate to severe chronic plaque psoriasis

A

Secukinumab

Ixekizumab

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77
Q

Also known as the class I cytokine receptor family

A

Hematopoietin receptor family

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78
Q

Largest of the cytokine receptor families

A

Hematopoietin receptor family

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79
Q

Five shared receptor subunits of the hematopoietin receptor family

A
  1. Common gamma chain
  2. Common beta chain shared between IL-2 and IL-15 receptors
  3. Distinct common beta chain shared between GM-CSF, IL-3, and IL-5 receptors
  4. IL-12Rbeta2 chain shared by the IL-12 and IL-23 receptors
  5. Glycoprotein 130 (gp130) molecule
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80
Q

Cytokines with receptors that include the common gamma chain

A
IL-2
IL-4
Il-7
IL-9
IL-13
IL-15
IL-21
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81
Q

Cytokines with receptors that include the common gamma chain that also use the IL-2Rbeta2 chain

A

IL-2

IL-15

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82
Q

Common gamma chain is physically associated with

A

JAK3

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83
Q

IL-2 is a product of activated _____ cells, and IL2R is largely restricted to _____

A

T

Lymphoid cells

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84
Q

IL-15 gene is expressed by _____, and its transcription is induced by _____ in keratinocytes and fibroblasts and _____ in monocytes and dendritic cells

A

Nonlymphoid tissues
UVB radiation
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

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85
Q

Y/N: The affinities of IL-2R and IL-15R for their respective ligands can be regulated, and to some extent, IL-2 and IL-15 compete with each other

A

Yes

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86
Q

Whereas (IL-2/IL-15) appears to have an important role in promoting effector functions of antigen-specific T cells, (IL-2/IL-15) is involved in reining in autoreactive T cells

A

IL-15

IL-2

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87
Q

IL-4 and IL-13 are products of activated _____ cells

A

Th2

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88
Q

A specific receptor for IL-4 which does not bind IL-13 is found on
Transmits signals via JAK1 and JAK3

A

T cells

NK cells

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89
Q

A receptor complex that can bind either IL-4 or IL-13 is found on
Transmits signals via JAK1 and JAK2

A

Keratinocytes
Endotheilal cells
Other nonhematopoietic cells

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90
Q

The genes encoding IL-4and IL-13 are located in a cluster with

A

IL-5

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91
Q

A prominent activity of IL-4 is the stimulation of

A

Class switching of the immunoglobulin genes of B cells

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92
Q

Populations of innate immune effector cells that provide an early source of IL-13 during helminth infection

A

Nuocytes

Natural helper cells

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93
Q

IL-9 is a product of activated _____ cells exposed to _____

A

Th2

TGF-beta

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94
Q

IL-9 is also produced by mast cells in response to

A

IL-10 or

Stem cell factor

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95
Q

Stimulates proliferation of T and B cells
Promotes expression of IgE by B cells
Exerts proinflammatory effects on mast cells and eosinophils
Function as effectors of allergic inflammatory processes

A

IL-9

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96
Q

IL-21 is a product made by the _____ lineages

A

Th2, Th17 and Tfh

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97
Q

Potent mitogen and survival factor for immature lymphocytes in the bone marrow and thymus
Modifier of effector cell functions in the reactive phase of certain immune response

A

IL-7

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98
Q

_____ release IL-7 in response to IFN-gamma, and _____ secrete IFN-gamma in response to IL-7

A

Keratinocytes

Dendritic epidermal T cells

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99
Q

An IL-17-related cytokine using one chain of the IL-7 receptor as part of its receptor is

A

Thymic stromal lymphophoietin (TSLP)

100
Q

Ability to prime dendritic cells to become stronger stimulators of Th2 cells

A

Thymic stromal lymphophoietin (TSLP)

101
Q

The receptors for IL-3, IL-5 and GM-CSF consist of unique cytokine-specific alpha chains paired with a common beta chain known as

A

IL-3Rbeta or

CD131

102
Q

Previously known as multilineage colony-stimulating factor
Principally a product of CD4+ T cells and causes proliferation, differentiation, and colony formation of various myeloid cells from bone marrow

A

IL-3

103
Q

IL-5 is a product of _____ cells that conveys signals to B cells and eosinophils

A

Th2 CD4+ cells

Activated mast cells

104
Q

In conjunction with an eosinophil-attracting chemokine known as _____, IL-5 plays a central role in the accumulation of eosinophils that accompanies parasitic infections and some cutaneous inflammatory processes

A

CC chemokine ligand 11

Eotaxin

105
Q

Growth factor for myeloid progenitors produced by activated T cells, phagocytes, keratinocytes, fibroblasts, and vascular endothelial cells
Role in early hematopoises
Has potent effects on macrophages and dendritic cells

A

GM-CSF

106
Q

Receptors for IL-6, IL-11, IL-27, leukemia inhibitory factor, oncostatin M, ciliary neurotrophic factor, and cardiotrophin-1, interact with a hematopoietin receptor family member, _____

A

gp130

107
Q

Most thoroughly characterized of the cytokines that use gp130 for signaling

A

IL-6

108
Q

Stimulates immunoglobulin secretion by B cells and has mitogenic effects on B lineage cells and plasmacytomas
Promotes maturation of megakaryocytes and differentiation of myeloid cells
Central mediator of the systemic acute phase response

A

IL-6

109
Q

Increases in _____ levels stimulate hepatocytes to synthesize and release acute-phase proteins

A

IL-6

110
Q

One of several inflammatory diseases in which elevated expression of IL-6 has been described

A

Psoriasis

111
Q

Produces a viral homolog of IL-6

A

Human herpesvirus 8

112
Q

Inhibits production of inflammatory cytokines
Some therapeutic activity in patients with psoriasis
Has been used to treat thrombocytopenia occurring after chemotherapy

A

Il-11

113
Q

Important mediator of cutaneous allergic diseases and atopic dermatitis, possibly through itch stimulation
Major sources are activated CD4+ T lymphocytes, in particular Th2 cells, mast cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

A

IL-31

114
Q

In contrast to all other IL-6 family members, _____ does not use gp130 as a receptor unit

A

IL-31

115
Q

Serum IL-31 levels have been directly correlated with disease severity in

A

Atopic dermatitis

116
Q

Acts directly to inhibit keratinocyte differentiation and filaggrin expression, thereby impairing skin barrier function it atopic dermatitis

A

IL-31

117
Q

The IL-12 cytokine family includes

A

IL-12
IL-23
IL-27
IL-35

118
Q

Different from most other cytokines in that its active from is a heterodimer of two proteins, p35 and p40
Principally a product of antigen-presenting cells, such as dendritic cells, monocytes, macrophages, and certain B cells in response to bacterial components, GM-CSF and IFN-gamma

A

IL-12

119
Q

_____ constitutively make the p35 subunit

Expression of the p40 subunit can be induced by _____

A

Human keratinocytes

Stimuli including contact allergens, phorbol esters, and UV radiation

120
Q

Critical immunoregulatory cytokine that is central to the initiation and maintenance of Th1 responses

A

IL-12

121
Q

_____ signaling induces the phosphorylation of STAT1, STAT3, and STAT4

A

IL-12

122
Q

STAT4 is essential for induction of a _____ response

A

Th1

123
Q

Heterodimeric cytokine in the IL-12 family that consists of the p40 chain of IL-12 in association with a distinct p19 chain

A

IL-23

124
Q

IL-23 promotes the differentiation of T cells producing

A

IL-17 (Th17 subset)

125
Q

Also a heterodimer and consists of a subunit called p28 that is homologous to IL-12 p35 and a second subunit known as EBI3 that is homologous to IL-12 p40
Plays a role in the early induction of the Th1 response

A

IL-27

126
Q

_____ receptor consists of a receptor called WSX-1 that associates with the shared signal-transducing molecule gp130

A

IL-27

127
Q

Newest member of the IL-12 family

Heterodimer composed of the p35 chain of IL-12 associated with the IL-27beta chain EBI3

A

IL-35

128
Q

IL-35 is selectively made by Treg cells, promotes the growth of Treg cells, and suppresses the activity of

A

Th17 cells

129
Q

Antihuman p40 monoclonal antibody targeting both IL-12 and IL-23

A

Ustekinumab

130
Q

Ustekinumab has received FDA approval for the treatment of

A

Psoriasis

131
Q

A second major class of cytokine receptors with common features includes

A

Two types of receptors for IFNs, IL-10R

Receptors for additional IL-10-related cytokines, including IL-9, IL-20, IL-22, IL-24, and IL-26

132
Q

IFNs were initially subdivided into three classes

A
  1. IFN-alpha (leukocyte IFNs)
  2. IFN-beta (fibroblast IFN)
  3. IFN-gamma (immune IFN)
133
Q

The alpha and beta IFNs are collectively called

A

Type I IFNs

134
Q

Type I IFNs signal through the same two-chain receptor

A

IFN-alphabeta receptro

135
Q

The second IFN receptor is a distinct two-chain receptor specific for

A

IFN-gamma

136
Q

Each of the chains comprising the two IFN receptors is associated with one of the JAK kinases (_____ for the IFN-alphabetaR, and _____ for the IFN-gammaR

A

Tyk2 and JAK1

JAK1 and JAK2

137
Q

New class of IFNs known as IFN-gamma

A

Type III IFNs

138
Q

Current members of type III IFNs

A

IL-28A
IL-28B
IL-29

139
Q

Y/N: Although the effects of the type III IFNs are similar to those of the type I IFNs, they are more potent

A

No - less potent

140
Q

Stimuli that elicit release of the type I IFNs

A

Viruses
Double-stranded RNA
Bacterial productes

141
Q

Have emerged as a particularly potent cellular source of type I IFNs

A

Plasmacytoid dendritic cells

142
Q

Additional effects mediated through IFN-alphabetaR are increased expression of MHC class _____ molecules and stimulation of _____ cell activity

A

I

NK

143
Q

Not only does it have well-known antiviral effects, but IFN-alpha also can modulate T-cell responses by favoring the development of a _____ type of T-cell response

A

Th1

144
Q

Forms of _____ enjoy considerable use clinically for indications ranging from hairy cell leukemia, various cutaneous malignancies, and papillomavirus infections

A

IFN-alpha

145
Q

Some of the same conditions that respond to therapy with _____ also respond to topical immunomodulatory agents such as imiquimod

A

Type I IFNs

146
Q

Imiquimod is a systemic imidazoquinoline drug that is an agonist for the _____ receptor, whose natural ligand is single-stranded RNA

A

TLR7

147
Q

Imiquimod can trigger clinically useful antiviral and tumor inhibitory effects against

A

Genital warts
Superficial BCC
Actinic keratoses

148
Q

Synthetic compound that activates both TLR7 and TLR8

A

Resiquimod

149
Q

Production of IFN-gamma is restricted to

A

NK cells
CD8 T cells
Th1 CD4 T cells

150
Q

The major physiologic role is its capacity to modulate immune responses
Required for activation of macrophages to their full antimicrobial potential, enabling them to eliminate microorganisms capable of intracellular growth
Inducer of selected cytokines (CXC chemokine ligands 9 to 11) and an inducer of endothelial cell adhesion molecules

A

IFN-gamma

151
Q

Comes the closest of the T-cell cytokines to behaving as a primary cytokine

A

IFN-gamma

152
Q

Exert regulatory rather than stimulatory effects on immune responses
Produced by Th2 T cells that inhibited cytokine production after activation of T cells by antigen and antigen-presenting cells

A

IL-10

153
Q

The ligand-binding chain of the IL-10 receptor is homologous to the receptors of

A

IFN-alpha/beta

IFN-gamma

154
Q

IL-10 binding to its receptor activates _____ and leads to the activation of _____

A

JAK1 and Tyk2 kinases

STAT 1 and STAT3

155
Q

A major source of IL-10 within skin is

A

Epidermal keratinocytes

156
Q

Immunosuppressive effects that occur after UV light exposure are the result of the liberation of keratinocyte-derived _____ into the systemic circulation

A

IL-10

157
Q

Novel IL-10-related cytokines

A
IL-19
IL-20
IL-22
IL-24
IL-26
158
Q

Increased expression of novel IL-10-related cytokines and their receptors is associated with

A

Psoriasis

159
Q

Has structural properties uniquely reminiscent of anti-microbial peptides

A

IL-26

160
Q

TGF-beta family of cytokines can be grouped into

A

Prototypic TGF-beta (TGF-beta 1 to 3)
Bone morphogenetic proteins
Growth and differentiation factors
Activins

161
Q

The _____ name for this family of molecules is somewhat a misnomer because _____ has antiproliferative rather than proliferative effects on most cell types

A

TGF

TGF-beta

162
Q

Y/N: TGF-beta family members are made as precursor proteins that are biologically inactive until a large prodomain is cleaved

A

Yes

163
Q

Enhances production of collagen and other ECM proteins
Inhibits the production of metalloproteinases by fibroblasts and stimulates the production of inhibitors of the same metalloproteinases
May contribute to the immunopathology of sleroderma through its profibrogenic effects

A

TGF-beta

164
Q

TNF-alpha blockade adverse events

A

Risk of serious infections (e.g., tuberculosis)

Potential for increased risk of malignancies or major adverse cardiovascular events

165
Q

Human IgG2 monoclonal antibody that binds to and blocks the IL-17 receptor

A

Brodalumab

166
Q

Inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 4 that has been recently approved for the treatment of moderate to severe plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis

A

Apremilast

167
Q

Causes degradation of the secondary messenger cyclic AMP, leading to increased production of proinflammatory soluble mediators

A

PD-4

168
Q

Monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha-subunit of the IL-4 receptor, and through this effect blocks IL-4 and IL-13, the drivers of Th2-mediated inflammation responsible for the hallmark symptoms of atopic dermatitis

A

Dupilumab

169
Q

Large superfamily of small cytokines with two major specialized functions:
Guide leukocytes via chemotactic gradients in tissue
Capacity to increase the binding of leukocytes via their integrins to ligands at the endothelial cell surface

A

Chemokines

170
Q

Chemokines are grouped into four subfamilies based on the spacing of amino acids between the first two cysteines

A

CXC (alpha-chemokines)
CC (beta-chemokines)
C
CXXXC (or CX3C)

171
Q

Represented by lymphotactin

A

C subfamily

172
Q

Fractalkine is the only member of the

A

CXXXC subfamily

173
Q

Common structural features of chemokines

A

Disordered amino terminus followed by three conserved antiparallel beta-pleated sheets

174
Q

Unique in that the chemokine domain sits atop a mucin-like stalk tethered to the plasma membrane via a transmembrane domain and short cytoplasmic tail

A

Fractalkine

175
Q

Because most chemokines have a net (positive/negative) charge, these proteins tend to bind to (positively/negatively) charged carbohydrates present on GAGs

A

Positive

Negatively

176
Q

Chemokine receptors are seven transmembrane spanning membrane proteins that couple to intracellular heterotrimeric G-proteins containing alpha, beta, and gamma subunits. They represent a part of a large family of

A

G protein-coupled receptors

177
Q

Normally G proteins are (active/inactive) when guanosine diphosphate is bound, but they are (activated/inactivated) when the GDP is exchanged for guanosine triphosphate

A

Inactive

Activated

178
Q

Commonly used inhibitor of GPCR that irreversibly ADP-ribosylates Galpha subunits of the alphai class and subsequently prevents most chemokine receptor-mediated signaling

A

Pertussis toxin

179
Q

After chemokine receptors are exposed to appropriate ligands, they are frequently internalized, leading to an inability of the chemokine receptor to mediate further signaling. This has been termed

A

Desensitization

180
Q

Occurs because of Ser/Thr residues in the C-terminal tail by proteins termed GPCR kinases
Important mechanism for regulating the function of chemokine receptors by inhibiting cell migration as leukocytes arrive at the primary site of inflammation

A

Desensitization

181
Q

Homologous adhesion molecules that mediates the transient attachment or “rolling” of leukocytes on endothelial cells

A

Selectins

182
Q

Set of adhesions molecules and their receptors (immunoglobulin superfamily members) that mediates stronger binding (ie, arrest) and transmigration of leukocytes

A

Integrins

183
Q

Members of a larger family of carbohydrate-binding proteins termed lectins

A

Selectins (E-, L-, and P-selectins)

184
Q

The skin-associated vascular selectin known as _____ is upregulated on endothelial cells by inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-alpha and binds to sialyl Lewis x-based carbohydrates

A

E-selectin

185
Q

Although E-selectin is likely to be an important component of skin-selective homing, there is also evidence to suggest that _____ is involved in T-cell migration to skin

A

L-selectin

186
Q

Must be “turned on” or activated from their resting state to bind their counter receptors such as ICAM-1 that are expressed by endothelial cells

A

Integrins

187
Q

High-affinity and -avidity binding of integrins to endothelial cell intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs) and vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1) in a step termed

A

Firm adhesion

188
Q

Multistep model of leukocytes recruitment

A
  1. Rolling
  2. Integrin activation
  3. Firm adhesion
189
Q

Antigen-inexperienced T cells are termed naive can be identified by expressing three cell surface protines

A
  1. CD45RA (an isoform of the pan-leukocyte marker)
  2. L-selectin
  3. Chemokine receptor CCR7
190
Q

After being activated by dendritic cells presenting antigen, T cells then express CD45RO, are termed

A

“Memory” T cells

191
Q

A specific subset of CCR7– L-selectin memory T cells has been proposed to represent _____ that is ready for rapid deployment at peripheral sites in therms of their cytotoxic activity and ability to mobilize cytokines

A

Effector memory T-cell subset

192
Q

When expressed on T cells, _____ is capable of mediating arrest of memory T cells on activated endothelial cells

A

CXCR3

193
Q

____ are associated with Th2 cells in vitro, and Th1 cells are associated with _____

A

CCR4 and CCR3

CCR5 and CXCR3

194
Q

Marker for a newly characterized T-helper subset, expressing the hallmark effector cytokines IL-17 and IL-22

A

CCR6

195
Q

Keratinoyctes derived from patients with _____ synthesized mRNA for RANTES at considerably earlier time points in response to IL-4 and IFN-alpha

A

Atopic dermatitis

196
Q

Keratinocytes derived from _____ synthesized higher levels of IP-10 with cytokine stimulation as well as higher constitutive levels of IL-8, a chemokine known to recruit neutrophils

A

Psoriatic patients

197
Q

IP-10 may serve to recruit activated T cells of the Th1 helper phenotype to the epidermis and has been postulated to have a role in the recruitment of malignant T cells to the skin in

A

Cutaneous T-cell lymphomas

198
Q

Skin-resident dendritic cells are initially derived from hematopoietic bone marrow progenitors and migrate to skin during the _____ periods of life

A

Late prenatal and newborn

199
Q

Under resting (steady-state) conditions, homeostatic production by keratinocytes of _____ may be involved in attracting CD14+ dendritic cell precursors to the basal layer of the epidermis. Similarly, Langerhans cells as well as CD1c+ Langerhans cell precursors are strongly chemoattracted to keratinocyte-derived _____

A

CXCL14

CCL20

200
Q

Under inflammatory conditions, when skin-resident dendritic cells and Langerhans cells leave the skin in large numbers, keratinocytes release a variety of chemokines, including _____ (via CCR2) and _____ (via CCR6), which may attract monocyte-like dendritic cell precursors to the epidermis to replenish the Langerhans cell population

A

CCL2 and CCL7

CCL20

201
Q

Activated dendritic cell specifically upregulate expression of _____, which binds to seconday lymphoid tissue chemokine (SLC/CCL21), a chemokine expressed constitutively by lymphatic endothelial cells

A

CCR7

202
Q

Naive T cells also strongly express _____ and this receptor to arrest on high endothelial venules

A

CCR7

203
Q

CCR7 and its ligands facilitate the recruitment of at least two different kinds of cells - _____ - to the lymph nodes through two different routes under both inflammatory and resting conditions

A

Naive T cells

Dedritic cells

204
Q

After dendritic cells reach the lymph nodes, they must interact with T cells to form a so-called “_____” that is critical for T-cell activation

A

Immunologic synapse

205
Q

Activated dendritic cells secrete a number of chemokines, including _____, which attracts T cells to the vicinity of dendritic cells and promotes adhesion between the two cell types

A

Macrophage-derived chemokine

206
Q

_____ (via CCL3/4) has been identified as mediating recruitment of naive CD8+ T cells to aggregates of antigen-specific CD4+ T cells and dendritic cells

A

CCR5

207
Q

The roles of CCR4 and CCR10 in _____ have been particularly well documented

A

Atopic dermatitis

208
Q

Serum levels of TARC/CCL17 and CTACK/CCL27 in _____ patients were significantly higher than concentrations found in healthy or psoriatic control participants and correlated with disease severity

A

Atopic dermatitis

209
Q

CCL18, whose receptor is currently unknown, has been reported to be expressed at higher levels in skin of patients with _____ compared with psoriasis

A

Atopic dermatitis

210
Q

CCL18, and another chemokine, _____ (produced by mast cells and endothelial cells), are elicited in volunteer skin after topical challenge with dust mite allergen and Staphylococcal superantigen

A

CCL1

211
Q

Binds primarily to CCR3, a receptor expressed by eosinophils, basophils, and Th2 cells

A

Eotaxin/CCL11

212
Q

Expression of eotaxin (and RANTES) by dermal endothelial cells has been correlated with the appearance of eosinophils in the dermis in patients with _____ that experience allergic reactions after treatment with ivermectin

A

Onchocerciasis

213
Q

Production of _____ may contribute to the recruitment of eosinophils and Th2 lymphocytes in addition to stimulating keratinocyte proliferation

A

Eotaxin

CCR3

214
Q

The inflammatory infiltrate of _____ skin is predominantly composed of Th1- and Th17-polarized memory T cells, as well as neutrophils, macrophages, and increased numbers of dendritic cells

A

Psoriatic

215
Q

In _____, chemokines, including CCL20 and CCL17, mediate the arrest of effector memory T cells on endothelial cells that synthesize these chemokines. Both CCL17 and CCL20 can be synthesized by keratinocytes, possibly by contributing to T-cell migration to the epidermis

A

Psoriasis

216
Q

Accumulating evidence strongly implicates pathogenetic _____ cells, which strongly express CCR6 in the pathogenesis of psoriasis. _____ cells, their signature effector cytokines IL-17 and IL-22, as well as high levels of IL-23, a major growth differentiation factor for _____ cells, are abundant in psoriatic lesions

A

Th17

217
Q

Neutrophils found in the epidermis of psoriatic skin are probably attracted there by high levels of _____, which would act via CXCR1 and CXCR2

A

IL-8

218
Q

In addition to attracting neutrophils, _____ is an ELR+ CXC chemokine that is known to be angiogenic, and may also attract endothelial cells

A

IL-8

219
Q

An IL-8/CXCL8-producing population of memory T cells that express _____ has been isolated from patients with AGEP, a condition most commonly induced by drugs (eg, aminopenicillins). Similar T cells have been isolated from patients with _____

A

CCR6

Behcet disease and pustular psoriasis

220
Q

CXC chemokines that express a three-amino-acid motif consisting of glu-leu-arg (ELR) immediately preceeding the CXC signature are (angiogenic/angiostatic), but most non-ELR CXC chemokines, except SDF-1, are (angiogenic/angiostatic)

A

Angiogenic

Angiostatic

221
Q

_____, a prototypical ELR+ chemokine, can be secreted by melanoma cells and has been detected in conjunction with metastatic dissemination of this cancer

A

IL-8

222
Q

Breast cancers are known to secrete _____, a chemokine that attracts macrophages through CCR2

A

MCP-1

223
Q

Y/N: Although chemokines secreted by tumor cells do lead to recruitment of immune cells, this does not necessarily to increased clearance of the tumor

A

Yes

224
Q

MCP-1 may increase expression of macrophage _____ through an autocrine feedback loop and possibly skew the immune response from Th1 to Th2

A

IL-4

225
Q

MCP-1-deficient mice show markedly reduced dermal fibrosis after dermal challenge with bleomycin, a finding of possible relevance to the pathogenesis of conditions such as

A

Scleroderma

226
Q

ELR- CXCR3 ligands such as IP-10 are potently (antiangiogenic/antiangiostatic) and may act as downstream effectors of IL-12 induced, NK cell-dependent (angiogenesis/angiostasis)

A

Antiangiogenic

Angiostasis

227
Q

Some cancer cells can synthesize _____, attracting immature dendritic cells that express CCR6.

A

LARC

228
Q

Chemokines produced by tumor cells may attract _____ that suppress host antitumor cytolytic T cells

A

CD4+CD25+ Tregs

229
Q

Human breast cancer and melanoma lines express the chemokine receptors _____, but normal breast epithelial and melanocytes do not appear to express these receptors

A

CXCR4 and CCR7

230
Q

_____ is expressed in more than 23 different solid and hematopoietic cancers. Broad expression of this receptor may be due to its regulation by hypoxia, a condition common to growing tumors, via the hypoxia inducible factor-1alpha transcription factor

A

CXCR4

231
Q

Stromal fibroblasts within human cancers express the CXCR4 ligand, _____, which stimulates tumor growth as well as angiogenesis

A

CXCL12

232
Q

_____ may play a role in melanoma metastasis to the small bowel, which shows high expression of _____ ligand, CCL25

A

CCR9

233
Q

CCR10 is highly expressed by _____ and is correlated with nodal metastasis

A

Melanoma primary tumors

234
Q

Engagement of _____ by CTACK results in activation (via phosphorylation) of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) and Akt signaling pathways, leading to antiapoptitic effecs in melanoma cells

A

CCR10

235
Q

Because _____ is constitutively produced by keratinocytes, it may act as a survival factor for both pimary as well as secondary (metastatic) melanoma tumors that express CCR10

A

CTACK

236
Q

_____-activated melanoma cells become resistant to killing by melanoma antigen-specific T cells

A

CCR10

237
Q

Have been implicated in the trafficking or survival of malignant T- (lymphoma) cells to skin

A

CCR4
CXCR4
CCR10

238
Q

A variety of microorganisms express chemokine receptors, including _____ by cytomegalovirus and _____ by Kaposi sarcoma

A

US28

Kaposi sarcoma herpes virus (or HHV-8) GPCR

239
Q

Primary fusion receptor for all strains of HIV-1

A

CD4

240
Q

CD4 binds to HIV-1 proteins

A

gp120 and gp41

241
Q

DIfferent strains of HIV-1 have emerged that preferentially use _____ (T-tropic) or _____ (M-tropic) or either chemokine receptor as a coreceptor for entry

A

CXCR4

CCR5

242
Q

A 32-base pair deletion (D32) in _____ in some individuals leads to low levels of _____ expression in T cells and dendritic cells and correlates with a dramatic resistance to HIV-1 infection

A

CCR5

243
Q

The frequency of D32 mutations in humans is surprisingly high, and the complete absence of CCR5 in homozygotes has been associated with a more clinically severe form of

A

Sarcoidosis

244
Q

Association of (more/less) severe autoimmune diseases in patients with D32 mutations

A

Less

245
Q

Small molecule inhibitor of CCR5

A

Maraviroc

246
Q

Autosomal dominant genetic syndrome composed of warts (HPV associated), hypogammaglobulinemia, infections, and myelokathexis (WHIM) is the result of an activating mutation in the cytoplasmic tail of the _____ receptor or in yet unidentified downstream regulators of _____ fuction

A

CXCR4

247
Q

_____ infections are common because myelokathexis is associated with neutrophenia and abnormal neutrophil morphology

A

Bacterial