-x-Type Rating 2 - Power Plant, Comms, Hyd-x-

Question 1

Which engines supplys power to the aircraft and how many FADECs installed per engine?

Answer 1

Both engines and the APU. 1 FADEC per engine, with 2 channels.

One channel is active and one is standby. If one fails, the other automatically takes control. They are channel A and channel B

Question 2

When the engine is running, what causes the igniters to operate automatically?

Answer 2

EIU failure
Flame out
Ignition delay during start

Question 3

What does FADEC do following an automatic start abort (hot, hung, stall, no light off)?

Answer 3

Gives an ECAM fault message, and runs an abort sequence if on the ground. This sequence is:
Close HP valve
Close start valve
Turn off ignition
Crank engine (clears fuel vapours)
Controls any additional start attempts

Question 4

During a normal (auto) start, what happens at 16%, 22% and 50% N2?

Answer 4

16% - Ignition starts
22% - HP fuel valve opens
50% - Ignition stops

Question 5

Which is the only malfunction which will cause an auto-abort of an engine MAN Start?

Answer 5

On ground if EGT limit exceeded before reaching 50% N2, in which case FADEC aborts the start

Question 6

Man start: When should the master be selected on?

Answer 6

When N2 reaches 22% or the maximum motoring speed (20% minumum)

Question 7

Man start: What happens when the master switch is selected on?

Answer 7

Opens HP shutoff valve and operates both ignitors

Question 8

Man start: what closes the start valve, and when?

Answer 8

FADEC closes the start valve and cuts off the ignition when N2 reaches 50%

Question 9

What causes the fault light to illuminate on the engine panel?

Answer 9

Position of HP fuel shutoff valve abnormal, or automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or malfunction of the thrust control, or start valve fault

Question 10

What do MAN START pushbuttons control?

Answer 10

Controls the start valve

Question 11

What is at one end of the transient N1 and what is at the other?

Answer 11

Commanded N1 and current N1 when A/THR active

Question 12

On the EGT, what does the amber index indicate?

Answer 12

Max EGT. 725c during engine start and 915c in other cases

Question 13

What does REV in amber/green indicate?

Answer 13

REV GREEN - on ground thrust reverser is fully deployed

REV AMBER - Thrust reverser system is unlocked

Question 14

How can you tell that the start sequence has finished?

Answer 14

Grey shade around N2 disappears and then ECAM ENG SD page disappears

Question 15

When does IDLE flash (between the N1 gauges)?

Answer 15

When both engines are at idle when in flight. Pulses for 10 seconds then remains steady

Question 16

When is fuel used set to zero?

Answer 16

When ENG MASTER switch set to ON on the ground

Question 17

What is the maximum taxi speed?

Answer 17

30kts

Question 18

What are the operating EGT, and operating time, at TOGA power?

Answer 18

950c. 5 minutes (10 minutes if OEI)

Question 19

What are the starter limitations?

Answer 19

`3 attempts per cycle, four cycles allowed, with 20 seconds between cycles. After this, wait for 15 minutes

Question 20

What is the minimum IAS for full reverse thrust?

Answer 20

70kts

Question 21

Why should engines be operated at idle for several minutes before take-off?

Answer 21

To prevent thermal shock. (It also allows centre tank pumps to sort themselves prior to take off)

Question 22

Which radios can be tuned from which RMP?

Answer 22

All from all, but no HF on A319

Question 23

What causes the SEL light on an RMP to illuminate?

Answer 23

Goes amber when one transceiver associated with one RMP is tuned by another

Question 24

How many transmission keys (ACP) can be illuminated (green) at any one time?

Answer 24

One at a time

Question 25

When do CALL/MECH/ATT lights (amber) illuminate?

Answer 25

CALL - SELCAL call incoming. MECH - call from the nose gear bay. ATT - call from a cabin crew member

Question 26

How many comm/nav radios can you listen to at the same time?

Answer 26

All of them

Question 27

ACP - what does the reset key do?

Answer 27

Extinguishes the CALL/MECH/ATT light

Question 28

How does the INT/RAD key work on the ACP? And on the sidestick?

Answer 28

RAD is push to talk, sidestick is push to talk, INT is hot mike

Question 29

What does the ON VOICE key do?

Answer 29

(The ON VOICE key is between reset and INT/RAD)

It allows crew to inhibit audio navigation signals (VOR/ADF)

Question 30

What should you do if an ACP fails?

Answer 30

Use the switching knob in the overhead panel to use ACP3

Question 31

What happens when a FWD/AFT button is pressed on the CALLS panel?

Answer 31

It calls the cabin crew, either in the forward or rear galley

Question 32

What happens when the cabin staff initiate an emergency call to the flight deck?

Answer 32

Cabin crew call tone 3 times
ATT lights flash on ACPs
On the EMER pb, amber CALL light flashes

Question 33

How does the PA TX key on ACP operate?

Answer 33

You can hold it down to make a PA using your headset

Question 34

When does the CVR run/stop automatically?

Answer 34

On ground during the first 5minutes after electrics switched on
On ground with at least one engine running
In flight
On ground until 5 minutes after last engine shut down

Question 35

How is the CVR erased?

Answer 35

By pressing the CVR erase pb for 2 seconds when aircraft on the ground with park brake on

Question 36

What happens if the radio transmitter is stuck on?

Answer 36

Single chime. Master caution. Audio SWTG - do not use. Inop system single PTT. Consult FCOM procedures

Question 37

What should you do if an RMP fails?

Answer 37

Switch off the affected RMP and use a different one

Question 38

What are the normal and RAT operating pressures of the hydraulic system?

Answer 38

3000 PSI normal

2500 PSI with RAT.

Question 39

What does the RAT do and when does it deploy?

Answer 39

Allows blue system to function if electrical power is lost or both engines fail. Deploys automatically if AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 are both lost

Question 40

When is the PTU inhibited/deinhibited?

Answer 40

Activates when differential pressure between green and yellow system is greater than 500PSI. It is inhibited until 2nd engine start, with park brake on and nosewheel pin in

Question 41

How is the RAT restowed?

Answer 41

Only by maintenance personnel when the aircraft is on the ground

Question 42

Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves? What operates these valves?

Answer 42

The yellow and green systems. Flight crew can close it by pressing the ENG 1(2) FIRE pb

Question 43

When does the BLUE pump start automatically?

Answer 43

If AC power is available, the pump operates in flight, or on the ground if at least one engine running. (or if crew has pressed the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on maintenance panel)

Question 44

When does the fault light (on the OHP) extinguish following a reservoir overheat)?

Answer 44

It is on as long as the overheat lasts (for other faults, crew can select OFF)

Question 45

What is meant by OVHT on the SD? (Yellow and Blue electric pumps)?

Answer 45

Electric pump overheat

Question 46

What causes fault lights to illuminate on the OHP?

Answer 46

Reservoir low level
Air pressure in reservoir low
Reservoir overheat
Pump pressure low
Pump overheat

Question 47

What causes the yellow electric pump to run/stop automatically? Is the yellow system fully operational when the pump is running?

Answer 47

Comes on automatically when crewman sets the lever of the cargo door manual selector valve to OPEN or CLOSE. This inhibits the operation of other yellow system functions (except alternate braking and engine 2 reverse)

Question 48

When is a manual engine start recommended?

Answer 48

After aborting a start because of engine stall, EGT overlimit or low start air pressure.

Or when expecting degraded bleed performance, or with reduced EGT margin, at hot and high airfields, marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group, or intermittant ECAM ENG 1(2) IGN A(B) FAULT during first start of the day.