-x-General Knowledge-x- Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of an A320 with sharklets?

A

35.8m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When crossing a jetstream from north to south, in the northern hemisphere, will the temperature likely increase or decrease? What will this do to the speed?

A

Temperature will increase, resulting in a reduction of speed (especially if there is an increase in the tailwind component)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What would cause a higher optimum altitude in the MCDU PROG page?

A

Gross weight decreases,
CI decreases,
OAT decreases,
Favourable winds exist at higher levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does DMC 1 send its information?

A

Captain’s PFD, ND and both ECAM DUs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the A320 maximum certified altitude?

A

39,800ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a high cost index imply?

A

That the cost of time is greater than the cost of fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After an RTO, how do you release the brakes prior to taxi?

A

Disarm spoilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the wingspan of an A320 with wingtip fences?

A

34.1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does BUSS activate?

A

Below FL250. Depending on MSN, it will either be with all ADRs off, or with the BKUP SPD/ALT pb (reversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does MAC stand for?

A

Mean Aerodynamic Chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you engage go around soft?

A

Select TOGA, then one click back to FLX/MCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the max landing weight of an A321 NEO?

A

77.3t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does SDAC stand for? How many are there? What do they do?

A

System Data Acquisition Concentrator. There are two, and they send information from sensors to the DMCs to generate system display pages, engine operating parameters etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the tailstrike limit on an A321?

A

9.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Criteria for anti-ice use

A

+10c or below
Visible moisture - ground visibility 1500m or rain
Based on OAT on ground, TAT in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What altitude does the FCTM recommend at maximum if in alternate or direct law? Why?

A

4000ft below the recommended maximum displayed on the PROG page. This increases the buffet margin and reduces the threat of a stall warning in the event of turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the max landing weight of an A319?

A

61.0t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the EFIS?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System - The PFD and ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where does DMC 2 send its information?

A

FOs PFD and ND. In the event of a DMC 1 failure, DMC 2 will send information to the ECAM DUs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When crossing a jetstream from south to north, in the northern hemisphere, will the temperature likely increase or decrease? What will this do to the speed?

A

Temperature will decrease, resulting in an increase of speed (especially if there is an increase in the headwind component)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is ECAM?

A

Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which limiting altitude is affected by OAT?

A

Thrust limited altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are BNTCs?

A

Briefing Notices to Crew. They are in the flight plan on page 2, and they detail the differences between the aircraft and the standard specification aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is computed in the ADRs

A

AAATOM - think Air Data Reference, so it’s mostly measured from the air

Airspeed
Altitude
AOA
Temperature
Overspeed
Mach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the correct actions during overspeed in the cruise?

A

Keep automation on,
Select speed, and reduce to something sensible (above green dot), and monitor,
If speed trend approaches/exceeds VMO/MMO then use speedbrake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How should you fly in turbulence at cruising level if AP is unavailable?

A

Avoid the temptation to fight the turbulence and not perform large sidestick inputs. Flight control laws are designed to cope with the turbulence

27
Q

What is the EIS?

A

Electronic Instrument System - essentially the 6 screens (DUs)

28
Q

Does a forward CofG mean higher or lower fuel consumption?

A

Higher

29
Q

What do you do during the oxygen test?

A

First flight of the day only.

Oxygen Crew Supply - check on
Loudspeakers - check on
INT knob on
Press test. Blinker yellow then black
Press test and emergency pressure selector. Blinker remains yellow. Listen for oxygen.
Check reset button returns to 100%
Press pressure selector again and check blinker does not turn yellow

30
Q

Why should you take care using anti-ice close to the maximum altitude?

A

The maximum altitude may decrease when anti-ice is used, which may lead to decaying speed

31
Q

What do you do if the ADR part of the ADIRU fails?

How about the IR part?

A

ADR - Rotate the AIR DATA selector as appropriate

IR - Rotate the ATT HDG selector as appropriate

32
Q

What is buffet threshold?

A

The point at which buffet, either high speed or low speed, is felt first

33
Q

What happens to thrust when autothrust engaged and the thrust levels are moved into the MCT detent?

A

When thrust levers move beyond the climb detent, thrust becomes manual and is controlled by thrust lever angle, so moving to MCT would give MCT thrust. A/THR would appear in blue, and would reactivate once thrust lever went at or below climb detent.

34
Q

Does wingtip clearance guarantee tail clearance in a turn?

A

Yes, except on the A321

35
Q

What handling characteristics come from a forward C of G?

A

Higher stability
Higher stick forces required
Larger stick movements required
Heavier and less responsive handling

36
Q

What is the tailstrike limit on an A320?

A

11.7

37
Q

If flying at, or close to, the maximum operating altitude, and in a thrust-limited conditon, what do you need to be careful of?

A

An increase in temperature will reduce the maximum operating altitude, so it may be impossible to maintain speed and would require a descent

38
Q

What should you do if speed decreases below green dot in the cruise?

A

Reduce bank angle,
Select MCT,
Request descent, and use V/S until speed recovers
Continue using automation

39
Q

What is the optimum single engine ROC speed?

A

Green dot

40
Q

What is the minimum angle of descent speed?

A

Green dot

41
Q

Can an A321 complete a 180 degree turn on a 30m runway?

A

No

42
Q

Where does DMC 3 send its information?

A

DMC 3 is standby and can send information to any DU

43
Q

Can go around soft mode be used OEI?

A

No

44
Q

How do you disconnect autothrust?

A

Match donuts, then press A/THR disconnect on the thrust lever twice.

45
Q

What is the max landing weight of an A320 NEO?

A

66.3t

46
Q

What happens if a DMC fails?

A

DUs controlled by that DMC will display invalid data message.

FWC will generate ECAM message to use the EIS DMC switcher.

FWC does not monitor DU status, so if a DU fails, there will be no ECAM message.

47
Q

Why does engine anti-ice reduce the available engine thrust?

A

Because they rely on engine bleed air to provide protection. It also increases fuel consumption

48
Q

What is computed in the IRs

A

GAAFHAT - think Inertial Reference via ring lazer gyros and accelerometers, so it’s mostly to do with aircraft movement relative to itself

Groundspeed
Attitude
Aircraft Position
Flight Path Vector
Heading
Acceleration
Track
49
Q

What is the max landing weight of an A320 CEO?

A

66.0t

50
Q

What would cause a lower optimum altitude in the MCDU PROG page?

A

Gross weight increases,
CI increases,
OAT increases,
Favourable winds exist at lower levels

51
Q

Are controls more, or less, sensitive at higher altitudes? Why?

A

More sensitive, because there is less aerodynamic damping.

As a guide, at 290kts CAS at 5000ft, a control input to gain a rate of climb of 500ft/min would generate a climb of 900ft/min if at 35000ft

52
Q

Where does ADR1 receive its information? And ADR2? And ADR3?

A

ADR 1 from Captain side AOA probe, TAT probe, Pitot probe, Static ports.

ADR 2 as above, but from the FO side.

ADR3 from standby AOA, standby pitot, standby static port and CAPTAINS TAT probe

53
Q

After an engine start, what parameters should you look for on ECAM?

A
N1 under 20%
EGT under 400
N2 under 60%
Fuel flow under 300kg/h
Grey background on N2 disappears

(2, 4, 6, 3)

54
Q

What are the signs of a stall?

A
Buffeting, 
Lack of pitch authority,
Lack of roll control,
Inability to arrest a rate of descent,
Continuous stall warning
55
Q

What climb rate does go around soft mode target?

A

2000ft/m

56
Q

What is the formula for finding out the height of a cloud using the weather radar?

A

Height=Distance (nm) x tilt x 100

Height is the difference between the radar top altitude and the aircraft altitude

Distance is distance between aircraft and storm cell

Tilt is the tilt setting when the storm cell disappears

An example is if there was a cell 40nm away, at a tilt of 1, then 40 x 1 x 100 = storm cell 4000ft below aircraft

57
Q

What is the tailstrike limit on an A319?

A

13.9

58
Q

How is ADIRU information sent to the displays, and which displays is it sent to?

A

Information sent to 3 DMCs (Display Management Computers), which is then sent to the EIS.

59
Q

How do you disengage go around soft?

A

Thrust levers to the climb gate

60
Q

When is the tailstrike pitch limit indicator active?

A

Below 400ft RA

61
Q

Does the stall speed increase in a turn?

A

Yes

62
Q

What possibe factors affect the maximum altitude?

A

It it the lowest of:
Maximum Certified Altitude (structural) - Determined during certification, and is a fixed value

Buffet or manoeuvre limited altitude - Altitude at which a specific manoeuvre margin exists prior to buffet onset (1.3g or 40 degrees AoB)

Thrust limited altitude - Altitude at which sufficient thrust is available to provide a specific minimum rate of climb (eg. 300ft/min)

63
Q

What is the required altimeter accuracy?

A

PFD - QNH within 25 ft of airfield elevation, and within 20ft of each other

ISIS within 100ft of airfield elevation
Within 60ft of PFDs

STBY ALT within 300ft of airfield elevation