Winter Operations (FW) - Regulations and Definitions

Question 1

The “clean aircraft concept” is best described as the requirement that:

Answer 1

An aircraft must not have frost, ice, or snow adhering to the wings, control surfaces, or propellers.

Question 2

Under current regulations, who is ultimately responsible for determining whether the airplane is free of contamination?

Answer 2

PIC.

Question 3

The wings of airplanes are said to be “cold-soaked” when they contain very cold fuel as a result of having just landed after a flight at high altitude or from having been refueled with very cold fuel. This is important to know because:

Answer 3

When precipitation falls on a cold soaked airplane on the ground, icing may occur.

Question 4

Wet snow occurs when:

Answer 4

The ambient temperature is near or above freezing.

Question 5

Ice that is glossy, clear, or translucent, formed by the relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets is:

Answer 5

Clear Ice.

Question 6

A rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets is:

Answer 6

Rime Ice.

Question 7

The process where ice turns directly into water vapour without passing through a liquid state is called:

Answer 7

Sublimation.

Question 8

Critical aircraft surfaces must be clear of contaminants before takeoff. Generally, which of the following is considered a critical surface:

Answer 8

All of the answers are correct.

Question 9

The surface used to determine whether or not frozen contaminants are accumulating or forming on the aircraft is the:

Answer 9

Representative Surface.

Question 10

Requirements for identifying representative surfaces include being able to see the area clearly, often from within the cockpit, and that:

Answer 10

The surface is unheated.

Question 11

Within what temperature range is ice accumulation often greatest?

Answer 11

Between 0 °C (32 °F) and -20 °C (-4 °F).

Question 12

Pilots should be vigilant for runback ice accretion at OAT between:

Answer 12

-5 °C (23 °F) and +2 °C (35 °F).

Question 13

Why does the tailplane collect more ice than the wings of an aircraft?

Answer 13

The tailplane presents a thinner surface to the airstream.

Question 14

The procedure used to remove frozen contaminates, such as ice, slush, or snow, from the aircraft is called:

Answer 14

Deicing.

Question 15

Deicing of aircraft may be accomplished by:

Answer 15

All of the answers are correct.

Question 16

True or False? One-step de-icing/anti-icing is just as effective as two-step de-icing/anti-icing.

Answer 16

False. This depends on the desired outcome; a two-step application procedure provides the maximum anti-icing protection.

Question 17

Which fluid type has a relatively low viscosity and must be heated to provide effective de-icing capability?

Answer 17

Type I.

Question 18

The ambient temperature is 33°F, snowfall rate is steady but low, and the anticipated time to takeoff is relatively short. Which of the following would be the most effective deicing/anti-icing procedure?

Answer 18

A one step application of heated diluted Type II or IV fluid.

Question 19

What is the approved procedure for applying a second coating of anti-icing fluid to an aircraft that has previously been anti-iced?

Answer 19

The airplane must first be de-iced before another coating of anti-icing fluid is applied.

Question 20

The estimated time the anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of ice, frost, and the accumulation of snow on the treated surfaces of an airplane is known as the:

Answer 20

Holdover time (HOT).

Question 21

Which of the following can affect holdover times or effectiveness of de-icing/anti-icing fluids?

Answer 21

All of the answers are correct.

Question 22

Which of the following checks should be performed during the deicing/anti-icing process?

Answer 22

All of the answers are correct.

Question 23

The holdover time starts when the:

Answer 23

Application of the deicing/anti-icing fluid is started.

Question 24

When complying with 14 CFR 121.629(c) (per 135.227) pre-takeoff checks within the holdover time (HOT) require a:

Answer 24

Check of the aircraft’s wings or representative aircraft surfaces for frozen contamination by the flightcrew only.

Question 25

When holdover time has been exceeded or is not in use, a pretakeoff contamination check must be performed by flightcrew and/or other qualified ground personnel within:

Answer 25

5 minutes before beginning takeoff.

Question 26

What information should flightcrew ensure they receive from ground crew performing deicing/anti-icing procedures?

Answer 26

Fluid type, concentration of fluid (except Type I), and the time the final fluid application began.

Question 27

Which areas should direct spraying of deicing/anti-icing fluids be avoided?

Answer 27

Brakes/wheels.

Question 28

OAT is 32°F (0°C), and weather conditions are light snow. Using the table provided, what would be the holdover time if using a 50/50 concentration of Type III fluid?

Answer 28

8-15 minutes.

Question 29

Conditions are: OAT 25°F (-4°C), with Light Freezing Rain. If the ground crew begins the application of Type III fluid, at a concentration of 75/25, at 07:53am, when would the holdover time expire using the maximum HOT?

Answer 29

08:02am

Question 30

Who is ultimately responsible for determining whether the aircraft to be flown is certified for flight in icing conditions?

Answer 30

Pilot.

Question 31

A common thread throughout incidents involving icing is:

Answer 31

Lack of awareness about the hazards of even a small amount of contaminant.

Question 32

Nearly all aircraft icing occurs in supercooled clouds. At what temperature are clouds made up entirely of ice particles?

Answer 32

Temperatures below -20 °C (-4 °F).

Question 33

The effect of icing on airfoils includes: Choose any combination of A) A reduction of the maximum coefficient of lift, B) The stall angle will be much lower, C) Increases stall speed, and/or D) Increase in drag.

Answer 33

A, B, C, and D.

Question 34

Ice on the wing can be detected by the pilot as:

Answer 34

A loss in airspeed.

Question 35

Pneumatic boot deicing systems remove ice by what method?

Answer 35

A timer-operated valve selectively inflates all or half of the tubes spanning the wing to crack the ice and allow the airflow to blow it off.

Question 36

Intercycle ice is:

Answer 36

Ice that can build between deicing boot cycles.

Question 37

Icing on the wings forward of the ailerons can affect:

Answer 37

Roll control.

Question 38

The pitot tube and drain hole become blocked by ice in flight, but the static system remains clear. What general effect will this have on airspeed indications?

Answer 38

Airspeed indicator would read a higher or lower airspeed than actual, corresponding to changes in altitude.

Question 39

If the static port becomes blocked due to ice, the altimeter would:

Answer 39

Remain at the altitude where the blockage occurred.

Question 40

You encounter icing which requires occasional cycling of manual deicing systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe during flight. The accretion rate is approximately 1/2 inch (1.25 cm) per hour on the outer wing. What description of the icing conditions would be utilized in your PIREP?

Answer 40

Light Icing.

Question 41

You encounter icing that requires maximum use of the ice protection systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. The accretion rate is greater than 3 inches (7.5 cm) per hour on the outer wing. What description of the icing conditions would be utilized in your PIREP?

Answer 41

Severe Icing.

Question 42

When the air is warmer than the standard temperature the aircraft will be:

Answer 42

Higher than the altimeter indicates.

Question 43

While flying at 10,000 feet, you fly into a cooler airmass resulting in a drop in outside air temperature from +5 °C to 0 °C. The temperature error, without any correction, will cause the aircraft to be:

Answer 43

Higher than indicated.

Question 44

According to the Aeronautical Information Manual a runway is considered contaminated whenever standing water, ice, snow, slush, frost in any form, heavy rubber, or other substances are present. Most international and other government agencies define a runway as contaminated when more than _________ of the runway surface area is covered by water or slush more than 3mm deep, loose snow more than 20mm deep, or compacted snow or ice, including wet ice.

Answer 44

25%.

Question 45

If the braking deceleration is noticeably degraded but the pilot has effective directional control, the braking action term used to describe and report runway conditions would be:

Answer 45

Medium.

Question 46

A runway has a water depth of more than 1/8 inch. Braking action would likely be reported as:

Answer 46

Medium to Poor.

Question 47

What is the Runway Condition Code (RwyCC)?

Answer 47

A number used to denote runway condition which can be directly correlated with pilot-reported braking action. 0 is extremely slippery (Nil) and 6 is dry.

Question 48

Snow that has been compressed into a solid mass, so much so that it resists further compression, is called:

Answer 48

Compacted snow.

Question 49

For normal operations the recommended safety margin when landing on a contaminated runway is a minimum of:

Answer 49

15%.

Question 50

Harry is preparing for an approach into an airport in a turbojet aircraft without reverse thrust. The PIREP reports from similar aircraft assess the runway condition as good to medium, and he has an unfactored dry runway landing distance of 2,800 feet. Using the provided chart, what is Harry’s final landing distance on the contaminated runway?

Answer 50

7,840 feet.

Question 51

If the AFM landing distances are presented as factored landing distances, what must be done before finding landing distance factors?

Answer 51

The data must be adjusted to remove the applicable preflight factors applied to that data.

Question 52

Changes in which of the following during flight can have an effect on the accuracy of altimeters and your altitude?

Answer 52

Both of the answers are correct.

Question 53

When considering temperature’s effect on the aircraft’s altitude, what value should be considered?

Answer 53

The difference between standard and ambient temperature.

Question 54

You are flying at 10,000 feet indicated altitude where standard temperature is -5 °C. The outside temperature cools from +5 °C to -3 °C. What graphic would depict the approximate change in true altitude if indicated altitude remains constant?

Answer 54

C.

Question 55

Which of the following icons indicate that a cold temperature altitude correction is required on an approach when the reported temperature is at or below the temperature specified for that airport?

Answer 55

C.

Question 56

You are planning to arrive into Spokane International Airport using the RNAV (GPS) Y approach to runway 25. You have an uncompensated Baro-VNAV system. The approach lists LNAV/VNAV, LPV, and LNAV minimums. The current METAR is: KGEG 060753Z 00000KT 03SM BKN007 OVC100 M19/M20 A3027. Would you be able to use the LNAV/VNAV minimums?

Answer 56

No, as the reported temperature is below the published restriction, LNAV and LPV criteria can be used instead.

Question 57

When in radar contact, who is responsible for making cold weather temperature corrections to approach altitudes?

Answer 57

The pilot; ATC must be notified of planned altitude corrections for intermediate and missed approach segments.

Question 58

While flying a non-temperature compensating aircraft making an approach that requires a cold temperature altitude correction where the affected segment height above airport is 5,120 feet, the pilot will:

Answer 58

Use the 5,000 feet “height above airport in feet” column in the ICAO Cold Temperature Error table for calculating corrections.

Question 59

You are flying an RNAV (GPS) approach on runway 30 into Glacier Park International airport (KGPI). Using the following METAR, what altitude correction, if any, would be required on the intermediate segment? KGPI 280755Z 02008KT 10SM CLR M20/M25 A3074.

Answer 59

350 feet.

Question 60

You are making an approach into Spokane International Airport using the RNAV (GPS) Y approach to runway 25. Using the provided METAR, Temperature Error Table, and chart what approximate altitude correction would be required on the last intermediate segment? KGEG 3000753Z 03011KT 10SM CLR M25/M27 A3065

Answer 60

495 feet.

Question 61

You are flying an RNAV (GPS) Z approach onto RWY 19 into Jackson Hole, WY. What would the altitude MSL be for the stepdown fix ZOSUV using the provided METAR, chart and Temperature Error Table? KJAC 091035Z 00000KT 10SM CLR M20/M32 A3007

Answer 61

9800 feet: no correction is required.