Single-Pilot Resource Management Flashcards
Single-Pilot Resource Management, SRM, is defined as the art and science
of managing all the resources available to a single pilot to ensure that the outcome of the flight is successful. This includes resources on board the aircraft and from outside sources, as well as those available:
Prior to and during the flight.
What is the first step to managing risk?
Identify the threat or opportunity.
What type of fatigue is brought on by stress and prolonged performance of cognitive work?
Mental fatigue.
In what ways can verbal communication be used in single pilot operations?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following behaviors does NOT support effective communication?
Use abbreviations and jargon for faster communications.
Language-related problems can cause errors in communication that result in improper maneuvers due to unclear clearances. In one example, during a taxi maneuver, the tower issued instructions in a heavy accent. The pilot understood, “Cleared into position and wait”. In an attempt to clarify the clearance, the pilot replied, “Did you clear us into position and hold?”, to which the tower responded in the affirmative. When the pilot proceeded beyond the ILS hold line, the tower shouted “Stop!” and the pilot spotted an airliner breaking out of the clouds. Which of the following would be the most effective method of clarifying the instructions, were a similar situation to occur again?
Rephrase the instructions using different words, such as “Do you want us to proceed onto the runway?”
How would one correctly apply assertiveness in the following scenario? Prior to takeoff, a flight attendant notices snow on the wings of the aircraft. The pilot is beginning to taxi. The flight attendant should:
Notify the pilot of snow on the wings and suggest deicing.
While in terminal airspace, you hear a clearance provided to another aircraft that seems to contradict your own clearance. What should you do?
Notify the controller to obtain clarification and/or resolution.
Good crew coordination is found more frequently in crews who regularly ask and answer questions of each other. How can this be applied to single-pilot operations?
By requesting clarification of ATC instructions and provided read-back of clearances.
Which of the following captures the concept of assertiveness?
Being persistent in having your thoughts or opinion heard.
A pilot is flying to an unfamiliar, uncontrolled airport to transport maintenance technicians to another company aircraft in need of repairs. During landing, no other aircraft were heard on the radio frequency, so the pilot proceeded. A technician in the cabin, unsure if the other aircraft he sees poses a threat, calls out and asks the pilot “Do you see that plane?” The pilot had not seen it. Post-flight, the pilot thanked the technician for his assertion. What improvement to communication should the pilot discuss with the technician?
The technician should have provided the relative location of the aircraft, for example by saying “Do you see the plane at 9 o’clock?”
The ADM process addresses all aspects of decision making in the cockpit and identifies the steps involved in good decision making. The first step for good decision making is:
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
SRM is defined as the art and science of managing all the resources available to a single pilot to ensure that the outcome of the flight is successful. This includes resources on board the aircraft and from outside sources, as well as those available:
Prior to and during the flight.
The two defining elements of ADM are hazard and risk. Identify the risk in this scenario: An experienced pilot is doing his pre-flight check of the aircraft and notices a small, blunt-type nick in the leading edge at the middle of the aircraft’s prop. Since the aircraft was parked on the tarmac, the pilot guesses that the nick was caused by another aircraft’s prop wash blowing debris into the propeller. Based on his experience, he does not expect the nick to cause the propeller blade to fracture and continues the flight. The risk in this scenario is:
The risk of blade fracture due to the nick in the propeller blade.
Being fit to fly depends on more than just a pilot’s physical condition and recent experience. His or her attitude is also an important factor. Studies have identified five hazardous attitudes that can interfere with the ability to make sound decisions and exercise authority properly. Consider the following scenario: A pilot discovers the airplane he usually flies is out for maintenance work. The weather forecasts a clear day between the takeoff airport and the destination so he decides to complete the flight under VFR since he’s not as familiar with the new aircraft’s instrument panel. During the flight he unexpectedly encounters IMC. Rather than turn back or divert to an alternate airport, the pilot files an IFR flight plan in the air and receives the appropriate clearance. He thinks “That’s not going to happen to me, I’m more careful than that.” What hazardous attitude is this pilot exhibiting?
Invulnerability.
What is considered as the most important item of single-pilot CRM?
Workload Management.
There are several models for problem-solving and decision making. Of those models, which one can be used to consider potential hazards of each element of the PAVE checklist (Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External Pressures)?
The CARE checklist (Consequences, Alternatives, Reality, External Factors).
When making a decision in a limited-time situation where standard operating procedures do not provide a clear response process, the most important thing that a pilot can do in order to decide upon a response is to:
Assess the situation and use the first workable solution.
Consider the following scenario then select the response that illustrates an attitude of “resignation”. During your preflight check you notice, as usual, that items in the cockpit were not stowed properly at the end of the previous flight and some empty drink and food containers were not thrown out.
This always happens. Might as well just clean it up and get on with the flight.
One practical application of SRM is the Five Ps. The Five Ps are based on the idea that pilots have essentially five variables that impact his or her environment and forces him/her to make decisions which can affect the outcome of the flight. These variables are:
The Plan, the Plane, the Pilot, the Passengers, and the Programming.
Identifying risks is paramount in risk management. Risks can be divided into four basic categories. These categories are typically considered to be:
Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External Pressures.
A risk matrix assesses what two items?
The likelihood of an event occurring and the consequence (severity) of that event.
During a risk assessment, you determine that the probability of an event occurring is unlikely but possible. On the standard Risk Assessment Matrix this would typically be considered as:
Remote.
When assessing the severity of a possible event, if it would result in injuries that were minor, and minor damage, it would be considered:
Marginal
Consider the following scenario and then choose the best preflight risk management from the options provided. As a minimum qualified pilot (with 50 actual instrument flight hours and 25 on simulator) you are preparing a 350 mile trip for a client. The destination forecast is for IFR ceilings and visibilities with conditions tending to worsen at your ETA. This is your first flight on this route and to this particular destination, and you are flying with new IFR GPS and will be required to make a GPS stand-alone approach, which you have only flown once before. The client is pushing to ensure the flight is not cancelled and arrives on time because he has an important meeting. You’ve chosen a suitable alternate 100 miles distant, where the weather is forecast to be better than the destination. You have some stress related to work pressures to ensure that the flight goes as planned but are otherwise in good mental and physical condition.
You schedule to have a rental car for the client ready at the alternate, should the need arise to divert and notify the client that due to weather you may need to divert to an alternate airport.
Kim is a helicopter pilot who is careful to avoid hypoxia since he flies an unpressurized aircraft. Consider Kim’s hypoxia prevention strategies and what type of hypoxia each addresses. What type of hypoxia is not addressed by Kim’s prevention strategies? Kim ensures that he has a quick-don oxygen mask in the cockpit and plenty of oxygen for any flight time at higher altitudes, he doesn’t drink before flying, and always ensures a buffer between donating blood and flight.
Stagnant.
What can be the first symptom of hypoxia?
Euphoria and a carefree feeling.
Joseph has been experiencing seasonal allergies for the past few days which have included severe congestion of the sinuses. Why would it be a good idea for Joseph to postpone flying?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following provides the most complete definition of situational awareness?
Perception of and comprehension of the elements of one’s environment and the ability to project the implication of that environment into the future.
“Attention sampling” can be used to ensure that one or more sources of information do not get neglected. Which of the following is a good example of “attention sampling”?
Developing a scanning technique that involves all instruments in order not to miss an important source of information.
When it comes to environmental factors such as weather during a flight, which of the following actions would be most helpful for maintaining situational awareness?
Anticipate weather changes that might require diversions by having a contingency plan prepared.
What is more damaging to Situational Awareness, a workload that is too high or a workload that is too low?
Both can be equally damaging.
You are currently on a VFR flight. Due to weather conditions you may have to switch to IFR later during the en route portion, but are hoping that the weather will allow you to complete the flight in VFR. You’ve just entered cruise flight and finished all checklists that are required. What can you do to help improve situational awareness?
Prepare for the possible change to IFR flight in order to lower workload should the change be required.
Consider the following scenario and determine where situational awareness could be improved. During an air medical flight, the pilot obtains information from the ground that the landing site has hazards to the west, a tree line and some power lines. He asks the medical crew to help him watch for the trees and power lines to ensure the helicopter doesn’t get too close, and to keep their eyes out for any additional hazards. As he’s moving in to complete a visual check of the landing area, the pilot notices that there are additional power lines to the north and decides to land in a different area with fewer hazards. The medical crewmembers are discussing the patient and their plan to keep him stabilized during the flight.
Distraction avoidance.
The process of constructing an accurate mental model of a flight can be subject to degrading influences such as boredom, distraction, and stress. Which of the following can be used as a defense against degrading situational awareness?
Adherence to standard operating procedures.
Workload management is possibly the most important element of single-pilot CRM. Which of the following workload management skills should be used to ensure a thorough understanding of all aspects of the flight?
A comprehensive self-briefing and pre-flight planning.
What is the optimum workload?
A workload that is high enough to keep a person mentally stimulated but not so high that performance is affected.
During what phase of flight do most accidents occur?
Landing
Why is it that the majority of accidents occur during takeoff, approach, and landing?
This is when workload is highest.
What is the best use of a low workload period of flight?
To prepare for upcoming high workload periods.
You are conducting an approach when several non-critical annunciators go off and ATC provides your clearance, which is to a different runway than usual. The weather is worse than usual and you are feeling overloaded. You should:
Pause and prioritize. Neither of the annunciators are to a critical system, and it is more important to focus on flying the aircraft at this time.
Which of the following persons would be most susceptible to acute fatigue based on their sleep/wake patterns over the last 24 hours?
Sarah has just started her night shift which starts at midnight, she got about 6 hours of sleep prior to reporting to duty and is a few hours into her shift.
Is it easier to notice your own fatigue or the fatigue of others?
It is typically most difficult to notice your own fatigue.
Individuals with a regular 24-hour routine with sleep at night have two periods of maximum sleepiness, known as WOCL. These typically occur at which of the following times?
From 0200 to 0600 and 1500 to 1700.
What is a cause of fatigue?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following individuals may be experiencing a symptom of fatigue?
All of the answers are correct.
The grogginess, disorientation, and impaired short term memory and decision making experienced after being woken from a slow-wave sleep is known as sleep inertia. To avoid pronounced sleep inertia when using naps to improve alertness, you should limit the time available for the nap to:
40 minutes.
Sleep loss may be caused by shift work, jet lag, or working extended shift periods. Lost sleep cannot simply be made up hour-for-hour, although recovery sleep may be slightly longer. Instead, the sleep cycle may include more slow-wave or REM sleep to make up the deficit. Typically, to recover to a normal non-REM/REM cycle after sleep loss, how many nights of unrestricted sleep are required?
Two consecutive nights.
Chronic sleep restriction - getting less than the optimum number of hours of sleep a night for three or more nights in a row - can affect alertness and performance for how long?
Impaired performance can last for days or weeks.
Night duty forces crewmembers to sleep later than normal in their circadian body clock cycle. In order to mitigate some of the effects of delaying sleep, crewmembers who work the night shift should attempt to sleep:
As soon as possible after coming off duty and napping prior to the duty period.
Jim has been on duty for 6 hours. He’s already starting to feel tired and has been fighting the urge to nod off for several minutes. He’s working the night shift and has only one more flight left before the end of his shift. He’s considering taking a nap and has a full hour before he needs to begin preflight duties for his last flight. Given what you know about naps, how should Jim manage his fatigue?
Take a 40-45 minute nap, providing 10-15 minutes to overcome sleep inertia before the preflight.
There are two basic categories of stress: acute stress and background, or chronic, stress. Which of the following would be considered a chronic stressor?
Having a recurring fight with your significant other.
Acute stress can result in several negative consequences. Consider the following scenario, what negative consequence of acute stress is the pilot experiencing? During an approach, the pilot notices that the landing gear light is not working despite having lowered the landing gear earlier in the approach. He cycles the landing gear and gets no response from the indicator, then attempts to reset the circuit breaker. He can’t figure out what’s wrong with the landing gear, and due to other noise in the cockpit, is unsure of whether the landing gear has extended fully or not.
Tunnel vision.
Stress has a gradual and cumulative effect that develops slowly, so it is important to recognize the signs of excessive stress in both yourself and others. Consider the following descriptions. Who is demonstrating signs of excessive stress?
All of the answers are correct.
What of the following would be a good stress management technique for handling cockpit stressors?
Manage workload to prevent overload.
Which of the following stress management techniques would be least effective for chronic, or background, stressors?
Reducing your workload to reduce work related stressors.
Which of the following is something an organization can do to help manage work-related stress?
Develop Standard Operating Procedures to provide standard responses to situations.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a stressor?
Behavioral stressors such as restlessness, poor concentration, etc.
Stress can enhance performance in some individuals; however, more often it results in:
Reduced situational awareness and working memory.
Consider the differences between chronic and acute stress. Which of the following pilots is most resistant to chronic stress because of the habits they’ve established?
Josh maintains a regular lifestyle. He works out daily, carefully plans his meals to ensure he obtains the necessary nutrients, and gets a minimum of 7.5 hours of sleep each night.
Consider the differences between chronic and acute stressors. Which of the following would be considered an acute stressor?
An upset passenger.
Why should pilots of automated aircraft occasionally disengage the automation and manually fly the aircraft?
To maintain stick-and-rudder proficiency so they are prepared for manual flight in emergencies.
Aircraft automation is intended to reduce pilot workload and allow for greater situational awareness. In order for automation to truly reduce pilot workload, the pilot must:
Be familiar with and understand the equipment.
Rather than attempting to memorize knob and dial procedures for advanced avionics systems, pilots should:
Learn more about how the system works and is organized.
Advanced avionics are intended to increase situational awareness. How can a pilot best use the displays to aid in situational awareness:
Tailor displays to suit the needs of a specific flight and prioritize information.
Which of the following would be a good information management strategy for maintaining situational awareness?
Always double-check the system, use verbal callouts, and ensure the presentation makes sense.
What are the three most important systems that a pilot should know how to manage in order to avoid dangerous distractions when flying with advanced avionics?
Course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot.
At the most basic level, managing the autopilot means knowing what?
Which modes are engaged, which are armed, and how they should perform.
True or false? Double-checking the waypoints entered into the FMS before beginning the flight relieves the pilot of having to monitor the flight path en route?
False. Even with double-checking, the flight path should be monitored for accuracy while en route.
Which of the following would be considered CFIT?
An aircraft is unintentionally flown into terrain due to human error during IMC conditions.
Over two-thirds of CFIT accidents are caused by:
Altitude error or lack of vertical situational awareness
What is the problem with the following scenario that could result in a CFIT accident? On a flight outside the US, a pilot who normally flies only within the US is preparing his approach and is hurriedly advised by ATC to “Descend and maintain 8,000 feet using an altimeter setting of 992.” The flight crew begins the letdown and sets the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury.
The pilot should have confirmed the unit of measurement for the altimeter setting.
True or False? Temperature and pressure changes can affect altimeters and result in reduced altitude margins of safety.
True, extreme temperature or pressure can affect altimeters.
The potential for CFIT is greatest in which of the following?
Descent, approach, and landing phases of flight.
While flying his regular route into Albuquerque, NM, a pilot receives a GPWS warning. At first the pilot hesitates, but finally complies with the warning and pulls up. He narrowly misses a CFIT incident due to:
Complacency brought about by familiarity.
The CFIT Task Force recommends that pilots execute a missed approach if they have not stabilized their approach by __________ or a higher altitude specified by the operator.
500 feet AGL.
While in IMC conditions, a GPWS warning occurs. If no standard operating procedures exist for this occurrence, the pilot should:
React immediately.
