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Part 135 Training > "The amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution." is: > Flashcards

"The amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution." is: Flashcards

1
Q

“The amount of gas dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution.” is:

A

Henry’s Law.

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2
Q

Henry’s Law is demonstrated in the occurrence of:

A

Decompression sickness.

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3
Q

Under conditions of slow decompression (normal ascent):

A

Excess nitrogen is vented off harmlessly by the lungs.

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4
Q

What is the most common manifestation of decompression sickness?

A

Bends.

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5
Q

The symptom of bends, dull, aching pain in the bones or joints:

A

Tends to be progressive and becomes worse if ascent is continued.

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6
Q

What is a symptom for paresthesia (creeps)?

A

Tingling and itching.

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7
Q

Chokes, as a manifestation of decompression sickness, are:

A

Rare, but very dangerous.

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8
Q

Type II decompression sickness results from nitrogen bubble formation affecting the:

A

Central nervous system.

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9
Q

What is the threshold altitude for the onset of decompression sickness?

A

18,000 ft.

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10
Q

Studies have shown that there is an approximately threefold increase in the likelihood to experience symptoms of DCS between the ages of:

A

19 to 25 and 40 to 45.

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11
Q

Increased nitrogen content from scuba diving can result in DCS at altitudes as low as:

A

8,000 feet.

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12
Q

If a person is motionless, what is the very first thing you should do?

A

Check for responsiveness.

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13
Q

When should you call 9-1-1 if an adult victim is unresponsive?

A

Immediately upon discovering they are not breathing.

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14
Q

Perform chest compressions:

A

On a firm, flat surface.

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15
Q

What is an appropriate rate of chest compressions for an unresponsive adult?

A

100-120 compressions per minute.

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16
Q

After performing 30 chest compressions, what should you do before attempting rescue breaths?

A

Open the person’s airway.

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17
Q

Proper technique for performing rescue breaths consists of:

A

Forming a seal over the person’s mouth with your mouth.

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18
Q

An easy way to remember the order and procedure for CPR is to recall:

A

C-A-B: Compressions, Airway, Breaths.

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19
Q

The universal sign to indicate you are choking is:

A

Clutching your neck.

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20
Q

Before performing the Heimlich maneuver on a person who appears to be choking, you should first:

A

Ask them if they are choking.

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21
Q

To perform the Heimlich maneuver, stand behind the victim, reach around their waist with both arms, and place your fist:

A

Against their abdomen, just above their navel.

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22
Q

Electrical impulses control what aspect of the heart’s operation?

A

The rate at which it beats.

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23
Q

The most common abnormal heart rhythm causing cardiac arrest in adults is:

A

Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib).

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24
Q

Time is a crucial factor in saving a life when the heart stops. For every minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of survival decreases by:

A

7-10%.

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25
Q

What functions does an AED perform?

A

All of the answers are correct.

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26
Q

Which of the following features is the same on most AED?

A

Cable and pads.

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27
Q

Under what circumstances should you use an AED?

A

Victim is unresponsive and not breathing.

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28
Q

Once the AED is powered on and providing prompts, you should expose the victim’s chest. What measure can you take to ensure the pads will stick properly?

A

Dry off the victim’s skin.

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29
Q

Where should the electrode pads be placed on an adult victim?

A

One to the right of the breastbone, just below the collarbone, above the right nipple; the other on the left side of the chest, left of the nipple and above the lower rib.

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30
Q

If the AED determines that the victim requires a shock:

A

You may administer it after being prompted via a button, or the AED may do it automatically.

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31
Q

Once an AED has delivered a shock to a victim:

A

Immediately begin CPR and follow the prompts on the AED.

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32
Q

Regardless of the size or type of injury, what is the appropriate response to care for bleeding?

A

Place a sterile pad or cloth over the wound and apply steady, firm pressure for at least five minutes.

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33
Q

Bruises are not life-threatening, but can be treated by:

A

Applying an ice pack over the bruise for 20 minutes.

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34
Q

To clean a shallow wound, you should:

A

Wash inside the wound with soap and water, then flush with water, ideally from a faucet.

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35
Q

If a wound is very dirty, very large, or has a high risk of infection (such as with an animal bite), you should:

A

Stop the bleeding, then wait for medical professionals to clean and dress it.

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36
Q

When dealing with larger wounds, NEVER:

A

All of the answers are correct.

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37
Q

Which of the following is a sign a wound has become infected?

A

A warm sensation around the wounded area.

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38
Q

Blisters are usually no cause for alarm, but they can be painful and can become infected if cared for improperly. Which of the following is a suitable treatment for closed blister that has grown very painful?

A

Poke holes with a sterilized needle, then drain by pressing the blister. Apply a callus, corn pad, or moleskin over the blister and secure with tape.

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39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a classification of burn injury?

A

Friction burn.

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40
Q

First-degree (superficial) and small second-degree (partial thickness) thermal burns can be cared for by:

A

Running cold tap water over the area until pain-free when removed.

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41
Q

An important step to remember when treating all chemical burns is to:

A

Remove any clothing that the chemical has soaked into.

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42
Q

If you believe a person has ingested an unknown poison, which of the following things should you do?

A

Position the person on their left side and call Poison Control.

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43
Q

What can be applied to the skin to relieve irritation from a poisonous plant?

A

Large quantities of isopropyl alcohol.

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44
Q

True or false? In general, you can treat animal bites by washing them with soap and water and then leaving it open and uncovered to bleed out bacteria.

A

False. Wash the wound, control the bleeding, then cover (do not close).

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45
Q

What should you do if you are bitten by a snake and are unable to seek treatment right away?

A

Lay or sit down with the bite below the level of the heart, stay calm, and apply a clean, dry dressing.

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46
Q

Which type of insect has a stinger that must be removed from the skin after a sting?

A

Honeybee.

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47
Q

The majority of venomous spider bites can be treated in the same way. Always catch the spider if possible so that professionals can identify it later, even if it is crushed. Seek medical care immediately. In the meantime:

A

Clean the area and place an ice pack over it.

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48
Q

Regardless of the type of eye injury, you should always:

A

Cover the uninjured eye to lessen movement of the injured one.

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49
Q

Nosebleeds generally stop on their own after a while and require minimal care. Seek professional medical attention if:

A

The blood goes down the back of the throat instead of out the front of the nose.

50
Q

If a person’s arm appears deformed, has an open wound, or is extremely tender or swollen, this may be indicative of a:

A

Fracture.

51
Q

Sprains may symptomatically appear similar to fractures, but without the deformity present in a fracture. Treat sprains with:

A

Alternating cycles of icing and compression.

52
Q

In general, all extremity injuries such as contusions, sprains, strains, tendinitis, dislocations, and fractures can be treated or eased with what method?

A

RICE: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.

53
Q

If someone around you suffers from a heart attack, you should immediately call 9-1-1, help them into a comfortable sitting position, and give them one adult aspirin, crushed. Many heart attacks, however:

A

Start slowly, with subtle or innocuous symptoms.

54
Q

As a non-medical professional, you cannot reverse shock. You can help prevent it from worsening by:

A

Keeping the victim warm.

55
Q

Heat exhaustion is not as severe as heat stroke, but still requires care. Get the victim to a cool place and:

A

Offer cool liquids, particularly with electrolytes (sports drinks, lightly salted water).

56
Q

Treatment for frostbite is the same, regardless of the degree. You should:

A

Rewarm extremities in warm water, between 100° F and 104° F.

57
Q

One of the first signs of hypothermia when in cold temperatures is:

A

Altered mental status.

58
Q

Treatment for mild hypothermia includes:

A

Giving the victim warm, sugary drinks to provide energy for shivering.

59
Q

Hyperventilation is a condition that leads to:

A

An abnormal loss of carbon dioxide.

60
Q

Which could cause hyperventilation?

A

All of the answers are correct.

61
Q

The excessive loss of carbon dioxide produces:

A

An alkalotic state.

62
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of hyperventilation?

A

Muscle spasms.

63
Q

Which of these can be a treatment for hyperventilation?

A

A controlled rate of breathing.

64
Q

How can hyperventilation be prevented?

A

By constant use of the pause breathing method.

65
Q

Which type of hypoxia is caused by a drop of oxygen pressure in the lungs?

A

Hypoxic hypoxia.

66
Q

What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in air?

A

21%.

67
Q

Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures states that the total pressure of a given mixture of gases is:

A

Equal to the sum of its partial pressures.

68
Q

At 10,000 feet the partial pressure of:

A

Each gas drops proportionally with the total pressure.

69
Q

Respiration has four distinct subprocesses. The movement of the chest and lungs to move air in and out of the lungs is referred to as:

A

Breathing.

70
Q

Where is external respiration accomplished?

A

The alveoli.

71
Q

Oxygen combines with hemoglobin in red blood cells in the blood to form oxyhemoglobin. This process is called:

A

Saturation.

72
Q

Which condition would result in a reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?

A

Sickle cell anemia.

73
Q

What is the condition when a blood’s oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate, but circulation is inadequate:

A

Stagnant Hypoxia.

74
Q

Alcohol poisoning can result in histotoxic hypoxia by:

A

Preventing the tissues from reacting with molecular oxygen.

75
Q

When could blood pooling, a cause of stagnant hypoxia, occur?

A

All of the answers are correct.

76
Q

Which is a subjective symptom of hypoxia?

A

Tunnel vision.

77
Q

Which is an objective symptom of hypoxia?

A

Poor muscular coordination.

78
Q

Cyanosis causes the skin to become:

A

Bluish.

79
Q

During the indifferent stage of hypoxia, between zero and 10,000 feet, the only demonstrable adverse effect is:

A

On dark adaptation.

80
Q

Between 10,000 and 15,000 feet a decreasing oxygen supply produces a gradual increase in the heart rate. This occurs during the:

A

Compensatory stage.

81
Q

In addition to the increased cardiac output during the disturbance stage, the:

A

Hearing will be one of the last senses to be lost.

82
Q

Most aviation personnel can begin to detect possible signs of hypoxia at about:

A

10,000 feet.

83
Q

At 18,000 feet the period of useful consciousness is:

A

20 to 30 minutes.

84
Q

The critical stage of hypoxia is the stage in which:

A

Unconsciousness occurs.

85
Q

What is the most important individual difference in tolerance to hypoxia?

A

Acclimatization over a long period of time to living at high altitudes.

86
Q

All other things being equal:

A

Oxygen requirements increase as the environmental temperature increases.

87
Q

In a pressurized aircraft that loses pressurization at 35,000 ft. the time of useful consciousness is 30-60 seconds. During rapid decompression this time is cut:

A

By about 30 to 50 percent

88
Q

The “general rule” under Part 91 for oxygen usage is that all occupants must be provided with supplemental oxygen on flights in which the cabin altitude exceeds:

A

15,000 feet.

89
Q

If the cabin pressure altitude is 13,000 feet, should crews use supplemental oxygen when flying under Part 91?

A

Yes, if they are flying at that altitude for more than 30 minutes.

90
Q

Spatial disorientation occurs when:

A

A pilot inappropriately applies well-learned and developed terrestrial perception skills in flight.

91
Q

What countermeasures can you take to avoid Spatial Disorientation?

A

Maintain proficiency in instrument flight and aircraft control using only flight instruments.

92
Q

Spatial Disorientation can be categorized into three types. They are:

A

Unrecognized, recognized, and incapacitating.

93
Q

The most reliable sensory system for a pilot in-flight is the:

A

Visual.

94
Q

The visual system:

A

Is important in maintaining the ability to orient and move in three-dimensional space.

95
Q

Where is the vestibular system located?

A

In the inner ear.

96
Q

Which organ in the inner ear responds to shifts in gravity and linear acceleration?

A

The otoliths.

97
Q

When flying at night, a pilot may perceive isolated ground lights as:

A

Celestial lights.

98
Q

False Horizon illusions occur when:

A

A pilot confuses cloud formations with the ground.

99
Q

Whiteout, fog, brownout, or haze can produce which illusion?

A

Height-depth perception illusion.

100
Q

What natural event can cause structural illusions?

A

Rain, snow, or heat waves.

101
Q

If a crewmember makes an approach to a much larger, wider runway than they are used to, they may perceive:

A

The aircraft as too low.

102
Q

You can avoid task saturation during flight by:

A

Alternating task duties and scanning outside the aircraft in regular intervals.

103
Q

During Autokinesis, an individual may perceive movement of up to ___ degrees although no actual displacement has occurred.

A

20

104
Q

The most common form of spatial disorientation is:

A

The leans.

105
Q

What countermeasures can you take to avoid Spatial Disorientation?

A

Maintain proficiency in instrument flight and aircraft control using only flight instruments.

106
Q

Spatial Disorientation can be categorized into three types. They are:

A

Unrecognized, recognized, and incapacitating.

107
Q

Graveyard spiral occurs due to an equilibrium being reached in the:

A

Semicircular canals.

108
Q

The misperception of movement of a fixed object, such as an instrument panel, relative to the pilot during the change of direction of gravitoinertial force , is called:

A

Oculoagravic illusion.

109
Q

Elevator illusions cause the pilot to believe that:

A

The aircraft’s nose is rising.

110
Q

The deleterious effect of alcohol may last for:

A

48 hours.

111
Q

According to Boyle’s Law:

A

Gases trapped in body cavities will expand as altitude increases.

112
Q

An inflight ear block can occur:

A

If the lower orifice of the eustachian tube fails to function adequately.

113
Q

An ear block is much more likely to occur:

A

On descent.

114
Q

Which is an accepted technique for ventilating the ear on ascent?

A

All of the answers are correct.

115
Q

To prevent an inflight ear block on descent, use the:

A

Valsalva maneuver.

116
Q

A sinus block is similar to an inflight ear block but:

A

Is affected by ascent and descent almost equally.

117
Q

The recommended first step in treating a sinus block is to:

A

A forceful Valsalva maneuver.

118
Q

What is a treatment for alleviating ascent related inflight tooth pain?

A

Descend.

119
Q

Which gas represents the highest percentage of gases present in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Nitrogen.

120
Q

Which should be avoided prior to flight to reduce the problem of gas expansion in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

All of the answers are correct.

121
Q

Coriolis illusions:

A

Occur when making a head motion away from the aircraft’s rotation during prolonged turns of high angular velocity.

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