Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT) Flashcards
What is the definition of CFIT?
When an airworthy aircraft is flown into terrain or an obstacle by a qualified pilot.
Which of the following actions can be taken to reduce CFIT accidents?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following would increase a crew’s workload during final approach?
Shallow approach gradients and multiple step-downs.
What can help preclude mistakes during heavy workloads?
Use the autopilot following standardized company procedures.
What can be the result of flying repeatedly with the same crew over the same route with the same aircraft?
Complacency.
According to the FAA, what phase of flight is the most susceptible to CFIT accidents?
Final approach and landing.
Would it be possible for a pilot to lose control of the aircraft due to spatial disorientation in VMC weather conditions?
Yes. VMC weather does not always mean that there is a clear horizon - especially on a hazy night over water.
What action(s) may be taken if the autopilot does not follow the expected flight path or if the pilot(s) are unsure as to what the autopilot is doing?
Both answers are correct.
Which of the following items would NOT be included in an approach briefing?
Passenger or crewmember ground transportation arrangements.
What is the difference between setting an altimeter using QNH vs QFE?
QNH causes the altimeter to read height above sea level, while QFE will read height above a datum plane (usually the airport elevation).
What might cause a pilot to select a wrong altitude even though he has read back the correct altitude?
Confusing the numbers with another part of the clearance (heading, airspeed, flight number, etc).
True or False? The term Approach and Landing Accidents (ALA) applies to accidents occurring when circling or when beginning a missed approach procedure.
True, in addition to applying to accidents occurring during visual or instrument approaches inside the IAF.
A primary preventive measure against approach and landing accidents is the Stabilized Approach procedure. It is recommended that an approach should be stabilized by:
1,000 feet above airport elevation in IMC or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC.
When conducting a stabilized approach, aircraft speed should not be greater than __________ by 1,000 ft above airport elevation in IMC (or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC).
VREF +20 KIAS and not less than VREF.
If while operating in IMC, your approach becomes unstabilized below 1,000 feet and you are prior to or at the MAP you should:
Initiate an immediate go-around.
Communication issues have been identified as causal factors in approach and landing accidents. In order to ensure clarity and understanding when communicating a message that includes a number, you should:
Always indicate what the number refers to (altitude, flight level, speed, etc).
There are many types of communication errors that may result in approach and landing accidents. However, approach and landing accidents caused by communication errors may be reduced by:
Seeking confirmation, requesting clarification, and/or questioning instructions when necessary.
To help reduce approach and landing accidents caused by unstabilized approaches, the recommended procedures include conducting descent preparation and approach briefings during what phase of the flight?
10 minutes before the top-of-descent point (or when within VHF communication range).
During an approach, descent initiation is delayed by ATC. The recommended procedure is to:
Reduce airspeed to minimize the effect of the delay on the descent profile.
Confusion over the altimeter measurement can cause altitude errors. For example, a setting of 30.99 in. Hg (1049.44 hPa) might be reverted to 29.99 in. Hg. (1015.58 hPa) inadvertently due to the latter being more common. A discrepancy of 1.00 in Hg results in what error in indicated altitude?
1,000 feet.
Other than altitude errors caused by miscommunication or misinterpretation, altitude errors can also be caused by extreme deviations from standard temperature. For example, if you maintain 10,000 feet indicated altitude (without a temperature compensating system), where the standard temperature is -5 °C, and fly into an area of colder temperature (-18 °C), the aircraft will be:
Lower than the altimeter indicates.
If your aircraft is on a 3 nautical mile final approach to the runway, approximately how high should you be in order to be on a 3 degree glideslope?
900 ft AGL.
Which of the following is a benefit of flying a Constant-Angle Non-precision Approach (CANPA)?
All of the answers are correct.
A high-energy approach can be a causal factor in runway overrun events. When computing final approach speeds, corrections based on operational factors and landing configuration should be considered. If corrections are warranted, which of the following, (if any) airspeed adjustments are cumulative (added to other corrections)?
Unless otherwise stated in the operating manual, airspeed corrections are not cumulative, only the highest airspeed correction should be added to VREF.
Delayed braking action has been determined to have been a causal factor in at least some runway excursions and overruns. As a general rule, pilots should not stop braking until:
Assured the aircraft will stop within the remaining runway length.
Which of the following would be the best method of increasing safety during a crosswind landing?
Any of the answers may be correct depending on pilot experience, aircraft type, and prevailing conditions.
What are the four phases of flight used by TAWS equipment search volumes and alert thresholds?
Enroute, Terminal, Approach, and Departure.
What are the three classes of TAWS equipment?
Class A, Class B, and Class C.
Extreme cold induces errors that cause the barometric altimeter to reduce terrain clearance. This error is reduced by using what other inputs?
All of the answers are correct.
What are the types of alerts that TAWS is required to deliver to pilots?
Visual and aural caution and warning alerts.
What color text (if any) is associated with each type of alert level?
Caution alerts with amber text, and warning alerts with red text.
TAWS equipment is required to have a certain level of terrain resolution within 30 NM of runways of what length?
3500’.
It is important to understand the limitations of the TAWS equipment and what failures could cause the TAWS to become unreliable. Where can this information regarding the TAWS equipment and its limitations be found?
In the aircraft AFM or AFM supplement.
What happens in a Class A TAWS system and some Class B TAWS when conflicting alerts are received? For example: TCAS alert during a terrain alert or a glideslope alert along with a terrain alert.
There is a built in alerting priority schedule that is spelled out in TSO-151.
What is the correct response to a terrain WARNING alert? Example: Red text with an aural alert that may say something like “Terrain, Terrain” or “Pull up,” etc.
Immediately initiate and continue a climb at max aircraft performance. Do not turn unless terrain clearance can be maintained visually.
When is it permissible to inhibit the TAWS?
When landing at an airport that is not included in the airport database.
To prevent nuisance warnings, when may the GPWS Mode 4 function be deactivated?
When following approved procedures that specify flaps not in formal landing position or landing gear up.
