Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT)

Question 1

What is the definition of CFIT?

Answer 1

When an airworthy aircraft is flown into terrain or an obstacle by a qualified pilot.

Question 2

Which of the following actions can be taken to reduce CFIT accidents?

Answer 2

All of the answers are correct.

Question 3

Which of the following would increase a crew’s workload during final approach?

Answer 3

Shallow approach gradients and multiple step-downs.

Question 4

What can help preclude mistakes during heavy workloads?

Answer 4

Use the autopilot following standardized company procedures.

Question 5

What can be the result of flying repeatedly with the same crew over the same route with the same aircraft?

Answer 5

Complacency.

Question 6

According to the FAA, what phase of flight is the most susceptible to CFIT accidents?

Answer 6

Final approach and landing.

Question 7

Would it be possible for a pilot to lose control of the aircraft due to spatial disorientation in VMC weather conditions?

Answer 7

Yes. VMC weather does not always mean that there is a clear horizon - especially on a hazy night over water.

Question 8

What action(s) may be taken if the autopilot does not follow the expected flight path or if the pilot(s) are unsure as to what the autopilot is doing?

Answer 8

Both answers are correct.

Question 9

Which of the following items would NOT be included in an approach briefing?

Answer 9

Passenger or crewmember ground transportation arrangements.

Question 10

What is the difference between setting an altimeter using QNH vs QFE?

Answer 10

QNH causes the altimeter to read height above sea level, while QFE will read height above a datum plane (usually the airport elevation).

Question 11

What might cause a pilot to select a wrong altitude even though he has read back the correct altitude?

Answer 11

Confusing the numbers with another part of the clearance (heading, airspeed, flight number, etc).

Question 12

True or False? The term Approach and Landing Accidents (ALA) applies to accidents occurring when circling or when beginning a missed approach procedure.

Answer 12

True, in addition to applying to accidents occurring during visual or instrument approaches inside the IAF.

Question 13

A primary preventive measure against approach and landing accidents is the Stabilized Approach procedure. It is recommended that an approach should be stabilized by:

Answer 13

1,000 feet above airport elevation in IMC or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC.

Question 14

When conducting a stabilized approach, aircraft speed should not be greater than __________ by 1,000 ft above airport elevation in IMC (or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC).

Answer 14

VREF +20 KIAS and not less than VREF.

Question 15

If while operating in IMC, your approach becomes unstabilized below 1,000 feet and you are prior to or at the MAP you should:

Answer 15

Initiate an immediate go-around.

Question 16

Communication issues have been identified as causal factors in approach and landing accidents. In order to ensure clarity and understanding when communicating a message that includes a number, you should:

Answer 16

Always indicate what the number refers to (altitude, flight level, speed, etc).

Question 17

There are many types of communication errors that may result in approach and landing accidents. However, approach and landing accidents caused by communication errors may be reduced by:

Answer 17

Seeking confirmation, requesting clarification, and/or questioning instructions when necessary.

Question 18

To help reduce approach and landing accidents caused by unstabilized approaches, the recommended procedures include conducting descent preparation and approach briefings during what phase of the flight?

Answer 18

10 minutes before the top-of-descent point (or when within VHF communication range).

Question 19

During an approach, descent initiation is delayed by ATC. The recommended procedure is to:

Answer 19

Reduce airspeed to minimize the effect of the delay on the descent profile.

Question 20

Confusion over the altimeter measurement can cause altitude errors. For example, a setting of 30.99 in. Hg (1049.44 hPa) might be reverted to 29.99 in. Hg. (1015.58 hPa) inadvertently due to the latter being more common. A discrepancy of 1.00 in Hg results in what error in indicated altitude?

Answer 20

1,000 feet.

Question 21

Other than altitude errors caused by miscommunication or misinterpretation, altitude errors can also be caused by extreme deviations from standard temperature. For example, if you maintain 10,000 feet indicated altitude (without a temperature compensating system), where the standard temperature is -5 °C, and fly into an area of colder temperature (-18 °C), the aircraft will be:

Answer 21

Lower than the altimeter indicates.

Question 22

If your aircraft is on a 3 nautical mile final approach to the runway, approximately how high should you be in order to be on a 3 degree glideslope?

Answer 22

900 ft AGL.

Question 23

Which of the following is a benefit of flying a Constant-Angle Non-precision Approach (CANPA)?

Answer 23

All of the answers are correct.

Question 24

A high-energy approach can be a causal factor in runway overrun events. When computing final approach speeds, corrections based on operational factors and landing configuration should be considered. If corrections are warranted, which of the following, (if any) airspeed adjustments are cumulative (added to other corrections)?

Answer 24

Unless otherwise stated in the operating manual, airspeed corrections are not cumulative, only the highest airspeed correction should be added to VREF.

Question 25

Delayed braking action has been determined to have been a causal factor in at least some runway excursions and overruns. As a general rule, pilots should not stop braking until:

Answer 25

Assured the aircraft will stop within the remaining runway length.

Question 26

Which of the following would be the best method of increasing safety during a crosswind landing?

Answer 26

Any of the answers may be correct depending on pilot experience, aircraft type, and prevailing conditions.

Question 27

What are the four phases of flight used by TAWS equipment search volumes and alert thresholds?

Answer 27

Enroute, Terminal, Approach, and Departure.

Question 28

What are the three classes of TAWS equipment?

Answer 28

Class A, Class B, and Class C.

Question 29

Extreme cold induces errors that cause the barometric altimeter to reduce terrain clearance. This error is reduced by using what other inputs?

Answer 29

All of the answers are correct.

Question 30

What are the types of alerts that TAWS is required to deliver to pilots?

Answer 30

Visual and aural caution and warning alerts.

Question 31

What color text (if any) is associated with each type of alert level?

Answer 31

Caution alerts with amber text, and warning alerts with red text.

Question 32

TAWS equipment is required to have a certain level of terrain resolution within 30 NM of runways of what length?

Answer 32

3500’.

Question 33

It is important to understand the limitations of the TAWS equipment and what failures could cause the TAWS to become unreliable. Where can this information regarding the TAWS equipment and its limitations be found?

Answer 33

In the aircraft AFM or AFM supplement.

Question 34

What happens in a Class A TAWS system and some Class B TAWS when conflicting alerts are received? For example: TCAS alert during a terrain alert or a glideslope alert along with a terrain alert.

Answer 34

There is a built in alerting priority schedule that is spelled out in TSO-151.

Question 35

What is the correct response to a terrain WARNING alert? Example: Red text with an aural alert that may say something like “Terrain, Terrain” or “Pull up,” etc.

Answer 35

Immediately initiate and continue a climb at max aircraft performance. Do not turn unless terrain clearance can be maintained visually.

Question 36

When is it permissible to inhibit the TAWS?

Answer 36

When landing at an airport that is not included in the airport database.

Question 37

To prevent nuisance warnings, when may the GPWS Mode 4 function be deactivated?

Answer 37

When following approved procedures that specify flaps not in formal landing position or landing gear up.