AeroNav Charts Overview - Area Charts Flashcards
Departing Minneapolis Flying Cloud airport (KFCM), you fly northwest on the 330 radial of the FLYING CLOUD (FCM) VOR. ATC requests that you report reaching WOXEB intersection. Without GPS, how many ways you can identify WOXEB?
Three
As you approach the PATUXENT (PXT) VOR to begin the MAZIE TWO RNAV ARRIVAL into Teterboro (KTEB), ATC issues the clearance “descend via MAZIE 2 Arrival, except maintain 11,000.” You are expected to…
Comply with all published altitude and speed constraints until WACKI and then maintain 11,000 until ATC gives you a new altitude.
Look at the Teterboro (TEB) MAZIE TWO RNAV ARRIVAL and select the true statement about completing the arrival at SOLBERG (SBJ).
If you are cleared for the MAZIE TWO arrival, ATC expects you to fly heading 040 after SOLBERG.
You are cleared to depart Aspen (KASE) RWY 33 on the ASPEN SEVEN DEPARTURE. The current weather conditions include a 400 foot ceiling and 1 NM visibility. You typically climb at 200 KIAS and anticipate a 20 knot headwind up to 16,000. Your minimum foot per minute climb (FPM) required to depart ASE is:
1,950 FPM until reaching 13,000, then 2,520 FPM until reaching 16,000.
Your clearance is to Dekalb-Peachtree (KPDK) and includes the DIFFI 3 ARRIVAL. If nearing arrival at the DIFFI waypoint and you have not received any radar vectors, you are expected to:
Query ATC, or if you have lost communications, follow the lost communications procedures.
You are departing IFR from runway 21L from DEKALB-PEACHTREE (KPDK) at night, when the KPDK tower is closed. The weather is a reported as a 1,100 foot ceiling and 10 miles visibility. Which statement best describes your initial departure and climb?
Climbing left turn to heading 150° to 3,000 before turning right.
Departure procedures are divided into two groups: Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP). What is the difference between SIDs and ODPs?
SIDs are primarily for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload, while ODPs’ exist to provide obstacle clearance protection.
You are inbound to the Peachtree Dekalb airport (KPDK) and have been assigned the DIFFI THREE ARRIVAL STAR. After passing the TEMPO waypoint, ATC assigns you a heading of 090 and descends you to 4,000 feet. Does this mean your clearance for the DIFFI THREE ARRIVAL has been cancelled?
Yes, when ATC gives you instructions which deviate laterally from the STAR, it’s implied the STAR is cancelled.
If you are departing an unfamiliar airport, where should you look for any departure procedures?
Using the appropriate Terminal Procedures Publication (book of approach plates) look in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures, Section L.
You are flying Part 135 in mountainous terrain. The weather is IMC, and you are concerned about avoiding any obstructions on takeoff. Where would you find the Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) for that airport?
You can find the ODP in the “TAKEOFF MINIMUMS, (OBSTACLE) DEPARTURE PROCEDURES, AND DIVERSE VECTOR AREA” charts.
You have been assigned the ASPEN SEVEN DEPARTURE SID for your takeoff from the Aspen-Pitkin County/Sardy Field (KASE). You depart on runway 33, but just after entering IMC, your communications radios fail. What procedure should you follow?
Turn left heading 273 degrees to intercept and proceed via the I-PKN NW course (outbound) to LINDZ INT / DBL R-244 at 13 DME, then via your assigned fix or route.
If a departure airport has an instrument approach but no published ODP, what minimum flight profile must you achieve to be assured of obstruction clearance during departure?
Cross the departure end of runway (DER) no lower than 35 feet AGL and climb to at least 400 feet above the DER before any turns, maintaining a minimum rate of climb of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM) until reaching the minimum IFR altitude.
Departing Missoula International Airport (KMSO) you are assigned the MZULA FOUR departure with the Kalispell (FCA) Transition. You calculate a ground speed of about 120 knots while climbing and depart runway 11. Field elevation is 3,206 feet. What minimum ROC must you maintain to cross the IPPUG intersection at its minimum required altitude of 7,800 feet MSL?
Approximately 765 FPM
Hot spots are shown in textual form in AeroNav (government) approach plate books and are also shown on airport diagrams. Why are ‘hot spots’ an issue?
They are locations with a high potential for loss of ATC-required aircraft separation and/or confusing taxiways.
At larger airports, there is often a marking on taxiways leading to the approach end of a runway with an ILS approach, indicating the hold-short position for an ILS critical area. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents this marking?
A
