CRM-ADM - Fixed Wing Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following people can exercise the final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the flight?
A
Pilot-in-Command.
2
Q
The PIC may deviate from a regulation in an emergency situation:
A
Only to the extent required to meet that emergency.
3
Q
Part of the PIC’s responsibilities to the crew would be:
A
Communicate intentions and bottom lines to crew.
4
Q
Regarding CRM, which of the following describes one element of the authority of the PIC?
A
Prioritizing duties and distributing workload.
5
Q
One necessary element of CRM is situational awareness. The PIC has a responsibility to promote a situationally aware crew and can do so most effectively through:
A
Enforcing standardization, policies, and procedures.
6
Q
After a flight where problems were encountered, how should the PIC handle those problems during debriefing?
A
Review all expectations and actions of the crew during the event, good and bad.
7
Q
Ideally, the PIC will exercise appropriate authority by:
A
Balancing assertiveness and crewmember participation.
8
Q
The difference between leadership and authority is that:
A
Leadership involves teamwork and is acquired; authority involves power and is assigned.
9
Q
Whose responsibility is it to set the tone of the flight from the outset?
A
The Pilot-in-Command.
10
Q
Which of the following pilots is giving an effective briefing?
A
Joe briefs on each item separately, asking for questions or comments after each item.
11
Q
Which of the following items should be addressed in a crew briefing?
A
Expectations for handling deviations from SOPs.
12
Q
Which crewmember is demonstrating good communication for flight operations?
A
Beth questions the actions of the PIC when she believes they do not follow SOP.
13
Q
Kara noticed Ben making a minor mistake when performing an SOP during a critical phase of flight. The mistake did not affect the safety of the flight. When should she bring it up to him?
A
During a period of low workload.
14
Q
“Bottom lines” are important:
A
For safety and correct following of SOPs.
15
Q
Cabin crew not being ready for an imminent takeoff or landing can be a serious problem, causing injuries or accidents. What is the best remedy against this?
A
Have a cabin crewmember inform the captain when the cabin is secured.
16
Q
If before takeoff turbulence is anticipated during the flight, a member of the flight crew should inform any cabin crew or flight attendants:
A
Prior to the flight.
17
Q
Which of the following is a part of assertive behavior?
A
Inquiry.
18
Q
If you have given instructions to a crewmember, which of the following would constitute feedback on the part of the crewmember?
A
All of the answers are correct.
19
Q
True or false: Social verbal communication is useful in the context of an aircraft flight crew.
A
True – it serves to build teamwork and community.
20
Q
Making assumptions to fill in information gaps can be a dangerous practice. How can such problems be prevented?
A
The recipient of the message should provide proper feedback.
21
Q
True or false: You can communicate messages without being aware of it.
A
True. Body language, among other things, can send messages without the user realizing it.
22
Q
For most companies flight crews are rarely the same individuals every time. To build teams, then, it is recommended that:
A
Company-wide CRM training show what behaviors are expected.
23
Q
A young, inexperienced pilot thinks that something the PIC is doing may be against SOPs, but isn’t certain. What should he do?
A
Speak up anyway. Communication should always be encouraged to facilitate understanding.
24
Q
Increased teamwork results in:
A
Increased safety and efficiency.
25
True or false? Only the PIC exhibits leadership.
False. Anyone on the flightcrew can display leadership, but the PIC has authority.
26
Objectives and roles of team members should be determined:
And agreed upon by everyone.
27
Successful teamwork is achieved if:
The output of the team is greater than the sum of each crewmember's work in isolation.
28
The emotional climate of a particular flight is positive and comfortable until Susanne shows up. Susanne has had some family problems recently and is experiencing emotional stress. She does her job competently, but her verbal responses are minimal and her mood and tone are negative. What is the best course of action to take here?
Take a little extra time to talk to Susanne. Though you cannot solve her problems, you can try to make her feel comfortable with the group and encourage her positive participation.
29
An experienced PIC is working with a crew largely composed of new, inexperienced members. How can the PIC improve the emotional climate of the flight?
All of the answers are correct.
30
A good, synergistic team will be one where members interact effectively and feel empowered and encouraged to contribute. Such interactions are more likely to occur when crewmembers know:
Their role and the roles of others within the larger group function.
31
Which of the following teams has a positive group climate?
Tim maintains an "open" cockpit atmosphere, where people can ask questions and make suggestions freely.
32
When critiquing crewmember performance during a flight debriefing, what is the best approach to take?
Ensure you deal with both positive and negative aspects of performance. Make it about learning by focusing on the future.
33
Crewmembers are encouraged to question the actions and decisions of others. How can they do so without damaging the 'team concept' or 'emotional climate'?
Focus on 'questioning' actions or decisions rather than criticizing them.
34
As workload during flight increases:
The pilot may struggle to attend to all necessary tasks.
35
When workload overload occurs, the best thing you can do as a pilot is to:
Stop, think, slow down, and prioritize.
36
Instances of overload during flight:
Can be mitigated with good task management.
37
The ideal level of "readiness" or stimulation for performing tasks:
Should be moderate, but too much stimulation can lead to stress.
38
Avoiding underload can be accomplished with good planning, but if it occurs, you should:
Use low workload periods to discuss options and plan ahead.
39
During pre-flight planning, which stage or stages of flight should get extra attention, since heavy workloads are usually involved?
Takeoff and landing.
40
The sterile cockpit rule (also known as the "sterile flight deck") exists to:
Control distractions to the pilot during critical phases of flight.
41
Stress and high workload can degrade memory. What resources provide crews with backup for memory failure in relation to the completion of tasks?
Checklists.
42
One of the primary goals of workload distribution is to reduce complacency and distraction. In order to prevent such degradation of situational awareness, tasks should be distributed so that:
More than one crewmember is involved.
43
Automation of aircraft is intended to reduce pilot workload and allow for greater situational awareness. In order for automation to truly reduce pilot workload, the pilot must:
Be familiar with and understand the equipment.
44
Mentally demanding tasks can be as tiring as physically demanding tasks, so a major part of workload management is information management. The first critical information management skill for flying with advanced avionics is to understand the system at a conceptual level. This means pilots should:
Remember how the system is organized.
45
Which of the following accurately lists the recommended basics of developing an information management strategy to handle the mental burden of information?
Always double-check the system, use verbal callouts, and ensure the presentation makes sense.
46
Which of the following is a behavioral marker of a crewmember who knows how to effectively handle a heavy workload? When overwhelmed by the workload, the crewmember:
Speaks up and lets other crewmembers know so that workloads can be redistributed.
47
A good indicator that your crew has good workload management is:
The crew seems relaxed and thinks ahead.
48
Situational awareness addresses the five fundamental risk elements, which are:
Flight, pilot, aircraft, environment and type of operation.
49
Which of the following pilots is effectively maintaining situational awareness?
David understands the overview of the total flight operation and all its factors equally.
50
True or false? A small problem, such as an error on a gauge, can dangerously reduce situational awareness.
True. If the pilot is fatigued or stressed, they may focus in on the problem and lose situational awareness.
51
Humans achieve situational awareness through which of the five senses?
Touch, hearing, smell, sight, and taste.
52
When is situational awareness the most critical?
During takeoff and landing.
53
How can good communications lead to good situational awareness?
By sharing information and ideas to obtain an accurate mental picture of the aircraft's position.
54
Pilots should exercise "attention sampling" to ensure appropriate gathering of information in order to maintain situational awareness. Which of the following illustrates "attention sampling"?
Developing a scanning pattern for instruments in order not to miss an important source of information.
55
In order to effectively contextualize and comprehend information gathered through the monitoring of your aircraft systems, it is important to:
Maintain a good technical knowledge of the systems in order to project implications.
56
How can pilots manage the limitations of working memory capacity in order to maintain situational awareness?
Develop skills that will promote automatic responses for normal procedures.
57
A temperature gauge is not reading correctly, and a pilot is traveling approximately 200 knots has 5 minutes left before he will begin an approach. The pilot's first priority should be to:
Fly the aircraft.
58
As part of a strategy to avoid CFIT, during preflight planning crews should familiarize themselves with the approach and runway aids available at the destination airport. Pilots should use this familiarity to increase situational awareness by:
Using all available aids to assist them in knowing their position.
59
Advanced avionics are intended to increase situational awareness. How can a pilot best use the displays to aid in situational awareness?
Tailor displays to suit the needs of a specific flight and prioritize information.
60
What are the three most important systems that a pilot should know how to manage in order to avoid dangerous distractions when flying with advanced avionics?
Course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot.
61
True or false? Double-checking the waypoints entered into the FMS before beginning the flight relieves the pilot of having to monitor the flight path en route?
False. Even with double-checking, the flight path should be monitored for accuracy while en route.
62
There are five stages to sleep. Stage 1 sleep is characterized as:
Merely a transitional phase between waking and sleeping.
63
Which stage of sleep aids the strengthening and organization of memories?
REM sleep.
64
The first REM sleep will occur how long after sleep begins?
90 minutes.
65
Circadian rhythms refer to:
Sleep, hunger, and body temperature cycles.
66
If your sleep cycle changes drastically, your body temperature cycle is likely to:
Remain the same.
67
True or false? Fatigue can only be caused by actual sleep deprivation.
False. Recent physical activity, alcohol consumption, current health, and other factors effect fatigue as well.
68
Which of the following is a symptom of fatigue?
Erratic mood swings.
69
While individuals may need more or less to feel fully refreshed, the recommended amount of sleep in a 24 hour period is approximately:
Eight hours.
70
True or false? People generally underestimate their fatigue and its effect on their performance.
True; a person's fatigue is often higher than they may perceive.
71
Sleep inertia is the feeling of grogginess, disorientation, with impaired short term memory and decision-making. Sleep inertia is associated with being awoken while in a slow-wave sleep. In order to reduce the risk of sleep inertia, a nap taken between flights should be kept under:
40 minutes.
72
Loss of sleep may occur due to jet lag or working different shifts than usual. Generally, to recover from the effects of sleep loss a person will need:
Two full nights of unrestricted sleep.
73
If you find that you are best served by 8 hours of sleep, but you have a busy couple of weeks where you trim one hour off your sleep schedule, sleeping only 7 hours a night for that period, you are likely to experience:
A progressive slowing of reaction time and possibly a loss of alertness for days later.
74
Chronic short sleep may have negative effects on your health in the long term such as:
Cardiovascular disease and obesity.
75
Jim has been on duty for 6 hours. He's already starting to feel tired and has been fighting the urge to nod off. It's been a very busy day so far. He is considering taking a nap, but in about 20 minutes he should begin preflight duties for a long flight that leaves in 1 hour. Given what you know about naps, how should he manage his fatigue?
Take a 15 minute nap.
76
What is the best way to completely prevent stress?
You can never completely prevent stress.
77
Acute stress is stress which is:
Typically intense, but for a short duration.
78
Which of the following is a potential stressor?
All of the answers are correct.
79
True or false? Diarrhea, ulcers, and sleep problems can be symptoms of stress.
True. Stress manifests in many ways, health problems being one.
80
Thomas has been very stressed lately due to a new baby at home. Though he is happy to be a father, concerns about care for the child and getting up during the night to care for her have resulted in his showing signs of stress. What is a good coping strategy Thomas can use?
Talk to other pilots who have had children about his concerns.
81
Stress can enhance performance in some individuals; however, it is usually responsible for reducing:
Information intake and working memory capacity.
82
The following are all stressors. Which one is a chronic stressor?
Always getting only the minimum rest period.
83
How is a lack of standard operating procedures (SOPs) for handling an encountered situation likely to impact stress? A lack of SOPs will:
Increase stress because it forces the pilot to develop a response in the moment.
84
All of the following are emotional symptoms of stress. Which are likely indicators of stress for those who are reflexive and don't like vocalizing their frustrations?
Preoccupation and withdrawal.
85
A generally healthy lifestyle can help to defend against most stress. Which of the following is something you can do specifically to handle cockpit stressors?
Maintain proficiency in your aircraft.
86
The primary goal of aeronautical decision making is to arrive:
Safely.
87
What is the key to successful and safe decision making?
Situational awareness.
88
If a pilot encounters an abnormality or an emergency situation, it is especially important to:
Utilize standard operating procedures.
89
When making a decision in a limited-time situation where standard operating procedures do not provide a clear response process, the most important thing that a pilot can do first is:
Assess the situation and use the first workable solution.
90
There are appropriate situations for each type of decision making. A creative decision would be used when:
A solution must be generated because procedures do not exist.
91
For flight-related decisions, how does crew decision making differ from individual decision making?
Input is gathered from the crew, but the decision is still made by the PIC.
92
The DECIDE model of decision-making begins with Detecting a change. Once the change is detected, what is the next step?
Estimate.
93
Before a pilot implements a course of action to counter a scenario, he should first:
Perceive the current circumstances and hazards.
94
The 3P process is:
A continuous model for decision-making.
95
When making decisions, it is vital to use the internal and external resources available to you. Which of the following is a resource you can use?
All of the answers are correct.
96
What is the difference between hazard and risk?
A hazard is a circumstance a pilot encounters; a risk is the value of that hazard's possible impact.
97
When encountering a hazard, that hazard may have a low risk factor, a high risk factor, or somewhere in between. How is this determined?
The pilot makes a judgment call based on experience and circumstances.
98
What is the best antidote for hazardous attitudes?
Specific, memorized antidotes to counter the attitude.
99
Terrance has been a pilot for 20 years, but is fairly new to the company. He is flying SIC with Floyd, who has less experience, but has been with the company longer. Terrance gets frustrated because Floyd is careful to outline everything he needs the crew to do, and explain procedures before going through them. He feels that he already knows how to fly the plane and doesn't need instruction. What type of hazardous attitude is Terrance exhibiting?
Anti-authority.
100
Jessica feels that she is very unlucky. It seems that every time she flies, no matter the forecast, bad weather turns up in her path of flight. She always takes proper measures to avoid hazardous weather, but has become frustrated. Today, when her co-pilot Steve offered to discuss today's weather forecast, she dismissed him, saying, "What's the point? It'll be bad no matter what." Jessica is exhibiting which hazardous attitude?
Resignation.
101
Kyle is a highly-impulsive pilot. If the aircraft does not perform as well as he expects, he is known to perform quick, over-corrective actions to counter the loss of performance, without thinking it through. What should Kyle do as an antidote to this hazardous attitude?
Think first.
102
Tara loves to brag about her piloting skills and to show off. She exhibits a macho attitude toward piloting. What antidote would be the best counter to this hazardous attitude?
Think: Taking chances is foolish.
103
The most basic way to assess and evaluate risk in aircraft operations is the Risk Assessment Matrix, which evaluates risk based on two factors: likelihood and:
Severity of consequence.
104
When measuring the likelihood of an event according to the Risk Matrix, if an event is unlikely to occur, but is possible, you should assign that risk a likelihood of:
Remote.
105
An event's severity measured by the assignment "Critical" is one in which there is/are:
Severe injury or major damage.
106
The IMSAFE checklist is a good way to mitigate risk by checking personal readiness for flying. The S in IMSAFE stands for:
Stress
107
The PAVE checklist divides the risks of flight into four categories. They are:
Pilot-in-command, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures.
108
Before a flight, Brandon uses the PAVE checklist to ensure he is ready to make the flight. He ensures his aircraft is appropriate for the flight, well-maintained and well-equipped, with plenty of fuel, and that he is ready to accept delays if passengers or other factors cause them. What can Brandon do to complete the remaining section of the PAVE checklist?
Assess the weather and terrain over the route of flight.
109
When may risks be acceptable for a flight?
When benefits outweigh costs.
110
Which of the following pilots is succumbing to peer pressure?
Jane continues a visual flight through IMC after Howard, her co-pilot, convinces her that she can do so easily, since they are almost to the destination anyway.
111
If Damien is tempted to descend below minimums during an approach under the assumption that there is a built-in margin of error, he is exhibiting:
Duck-under syndrome.
112
Scud running is:
Trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain at low altitudes while avoiding physical contact during IMC.
113
Gary allows events and situations to control how he flies the aircraft, and does not remain in charge of what happens next. What operational pitfall is he exhibiting?
Getting behind the aircraft.
114
Anna typically exhibits "flying outside the envelope." This means she:
Flies her aircraft outside of her capabilities because she believes its high performance can make up for it.
115
Hazardous attitudes and operational pitfalls:
Occur to every pilot to some degree.
116
Alcohol can lead to a decline in an individual's performance and hinder judgment:
Even in small amounts.
117
Check with your doctor and Chief Pilot before flying if you are taking medication:
