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Part 135 Training > GPS (FW) > Flashcards

GPS (FW) Flashcards

1
Q

Who developed the GPS system?

A

Department of Defense.

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2
Q

The GPS satellite system is designed to ensure at least how many satellites are always visible to a user worldwide?

A

5

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3
Q

Where can you find information on GPS satellite outages?

A

All the answers are correct.

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4
Q

RAIM allows the GPS receiver to:

A

Perform integrity monitoring.

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5
Q

How many satellites are necessary for Fault Detection and Exclusion with baro-aiding?

A

5

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6
Q

After RAIM has determined a satellite is providing corrupt information, why should the GPS derived altitude NOT be used in lieu of baro-aiding?

A

GPS vertical errors will make integrity monitoring functions invalid.

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7
Q

How can the pilot receive satellite NOTAMs?

A

By requesting GPS aeronautical information during a briefing.

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8
Q

What does RNP mean?

A

Required Navigation Performance.

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9
Q

The 0.3 sensitivity on the GPS is for which mode of flight?

A

Approach.

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10
Q

How do you know if a GPS is approved for IFR operations?

A

The correct TSO will be listed in the STC for the device.

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11
Q

Can a pilot use a STAR procedure with the GPS?

A

Yes, if it is loaded in the database.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the Terminal Arrival Area (TAA)?

A

Provide a seamless transition for aircraft equipped with Area Navigation (RNAV) systems.

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13
Q

For a TAA approach, when may a pilot descend inside the TAA sector from their enroute altitude?

A

Once cleared for the approach.

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14
Q

Using the figure, what altitudes must a pilot maintain within the left or right base area of the TAA?

A

6,000 ft MSL until within 17 NM of the IAF and then descend to lower charted altitudes.

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15
Q

What types of GPS waypoints appear on an approach chart?

A

Fly-over and fly-by.

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16
Q

What are the different types of minima that may be provided on a GPS approach chart?

A

LPV, LP, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV and circling.

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17
Q

When an approach has been loaded into a flight plan, at what distance from the airport reference point will the GPS “ARM”?

A

30 NM.

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18
Q

When conducting a GPS approach, the CDI sensitivity will:

A

Scale based upon on where on the approach the aircraft is located.

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19
Q

What is the best way for a pilot to fly the lateral portion of a missed approach procedure?

A

If it is safe to do so, the pilot should wait to initiate the missed approach at the MAWP.

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20
Q

Which GPS approach has localizer performance with vertical guidance

A

LPV.

21
Q

Why may the course displayed by the aircraft’s avionics system and the course charted on the approach plate appear different?

A

Due to applied magnetic variations, as long as differences are not significant the pilot may continue with the GPS approach as displayed.

22
Q

Under what conditions may an alternate airport be filed based on a GPS-based IAP?

A

All of the answers are correct.

23
Q

May a pilot create their own route and approach on the GPS?

A

They may make their own route, but not an approach.

24
Q

Can a GPS receiver be used to fly a departure?

A

Yes, but the GPS must be properly configured.

25
Q

In order to fly a published IFR charted departure or DP, the GPS receiver must be set to what CDI sensitivity?

A

Terminal.

26
Q

When flying Departure Procedures or published IFR charted procedures will the GPS receiver automatically set the terminal CDI sensitivity?

A

No, the GPS receiver must be set and certain segments of a DP may require some manual intervention by the pilot.

27
Q

When an approach is loaded in the navigation system, can you continue on an approach if the GPS does not arm to approach mode?

A

Yes, if the GPS does not automatically arm the approach mode pilots should do so manually.

28
Q

What does WAAS stand for?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System.

29
Q

True or False? Unlike traditional ground-based navigation aids, WAAS is all satellite based.

A

False, WAAS uses both satellite and ground-based navigation data to provide more accuracy.

30
Q

When filing for an alternate, the pilot of a WAAS equipped aircraft may?

A

File for any approved alternate airport that has an authorized approach.

31
Q

True or False? Once a WAAS equipped aircraft receiver is set for a particular approach and it is activated, the receiver will notify the pilot of the most accurate level of service available for that particular approach.

A

True the receiver uses a combination of the WAAS signal, receiver, and the selected approach.

32
Q

Some WAAS equipped receivers provide vertical guidance associated with a GPS stand-alone approach. Does that make it a precision approach?

A

No, but you can use the vertical guidance as a guide for your descent.

33
Q

Can a WAAS receiver fly a conventional GPS approach?

A

Yes, other approaches were established before WAAS became available.

34
Q

Can a pilot use a STAR procedure with the GPS?

A

Yes, if it is loaded in the database.

35
Q
A
36
Q

What is the first thing you should do in the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials?

A

Resist rushing in and avoid vapor, fumes, smoke, and spills.

37
Q

When responding to an emergency involving hazardous materials, under what conditions should you enter the area?

A

Only when wearing appropriate protective gear.

38
Q

Lithium batteries and lithium-ion batteries are commonly used to power consumer personal electronic devices brought on aircraft. These types of batteries are capable of ignition and subsequent explosion due to overheating, which causes thermal runaway. If a fire occurs that is suspected to be caused by a lithium battery in thermal runaway you should:

A

Extinguish the fire with a Halon, Halon replacement, or water extinguisher, and then douse the device in water to cool it.

39
Q

A telephone report to the NRC is required for which of the following events involving hazardous materials?

A

A flight is diverted from its intended destination to an alternate.

40
Q

A Hazardous Materials Incident Report is required within __________ of the discovery of an incident listed in 171.15, unintentional release of hazardous materials, undeclared hazardous materials, or a fire, explosion, or dangerous evolution of heat caused by a battery or battery powered device.

A

30 Days

41
Q

What must be included in security awareness training for hazardous materials?

A

How to recognize and respond to security threats.

42
Q

Hazmat employees must receive Hazardous Materials Security Awareness training within how many days after beginning job duties as a hazmat employee?

A

90 days.

43
Q

True or False? In-depth security training is operator specific and based on the company’s security plan.

A

True. In-depth security training will differ for each company according to their operation and structure.

44
Q

A security plan should have measures for which of the following?

A

All of the answers are correct.

45
Q

What is one method of internal personnel security?

A

Background checks prior to hiring new employees.

46
Q

Which of the following are methods of protecting a facility from unauthorized access?

A

Barriers such as fencing.

47
Q

Which of the following should raise suspicion when dealing with hazardous materials?

A

Last minute shipments requiring rush processing.

48
Q

When responding to a security threat regarding hazardous materials, employees should first and foremost be sure to:

A

Do so in a way that does not endanger themselves or others.

Part 135 Training (50 decks)

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