Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 VERY narrow spectrum PCNs? Are these beta lactamase sensitive or resistant? What bacteria do these treat?

A

Methicillin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin

Resistant

Gram Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the narrow spectrum PCNs?

A

PCN G

PCN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the broad spectrum PCNs?

A

Amoxicillin

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the extended spectrum PCNs?

A

Piperacillin
Ticarcillin
Azlocillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 1st generation cephalosporins? What bacteria are they used to treat? Do they penetrate into the CNS?

A

Cefazolin
Cefalexin

Gram Positive cocci
No CNS penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two drugs causes the disulfiram effect?

A

Metronidazole

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins used to treat, specifically?

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does aztreonam work against?

A

gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Carbapenems work on which bacteria?

A

gram positive and negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the adverse effects of carbapenems?

A

GI problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which carbapenem needs to be given with another drug? Why?

A

Imipenem needs to be administered with cilastatin to reduce nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the prokinetic abx?

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which abx causes rhabdomyolysis?

A

Daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MOA of: Indomethacin

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of: ketorolac

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of: Naproxen

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of: Oxaprozin

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MOA of: Piroxicam

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the MOA of: Sulindac

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the MOA of: Colchicine? What is this used for?

A

Inhibits PMN microtubule formation to prevent inflammation of gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the MOA of Rasburicase? What is this used for?

A

Changes uric acid in gout to allantoin, which is water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfinpyrazone? What is this used for?

A

Blocks tubular absorption of uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MOA of Probenecid? What is this used for?

A

Blocks tubular reabsorption of uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MOA of Febuxostat? What is this used for?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the MOA of Allopurinol? What is this used for?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the MOA of aminoglycosides?

A

Bind to 30s and inhibits step 1

27
Q

What is the MOA of macrolides?

A

Binds to 50s and inhibits step 4

28
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

Binds to the 30s and inhibits step 2

29
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

Binds to 50s and inhibits step 1 and 4

30
Q

What is the MOA of chloramphenicol?

A

Binds to the 50s and inhibits step 2

31
Q

What is the MOA of linezolid?

A

Binds to 50s and inhibits step 1

32
Q

What is the only narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitor abx? What is it used to treat?

A

Clindamycin

Gram positive cocci

33
Q

What general type of bacteria is linezolid used to treat?

A

Gram positives

34
Q

Which antiretrovirals are affected by p450?

A
  • PIs are inducers
  • Elvitegravir needs to be administered with inhibitor
  • Efavirenz induces them
  • Maraviroc is metabolized
35
Q

What is the special tests that are needed for HIV retrovirus?

A

Abacavir–allergic reaction

Maraviroc–need to ensure correct tropism

36
Q

Emtricitabine is a fluorinated version of what?

A

Lamivudine

37
Q

What are the two HIV drugs that are reserved for treatment experienced pts?

A

Maraviroc

Enfuvirtide

38
Q

Which of the NSAIDs are COX-2 specific?

A

Celecoxib
Etoricoxib
Meloxicam

39
Q

What is the MOA of Leflunomide? What is this used for?

A

Inhibits ribonucleotide synthesis and causes cell cycle arrest

First line agent for RA

40
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine? What is this used for? Side effects?

A

Metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, messes up lymph proliferation in lymphocytes, who cannot salvage

Transplants

Myelosuppression
Hepatotoxic

41
Q

What is the MOA of mycophenolate mofetil?What is this used for? Side effects?

A

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase in lymphocytes, who cannot salvage

Prophylactic transplant

Hematologic abnormalities

42
Q

What is the MOA of sirolimus? What is this used for? Side effects (2)?

A

Inhibits mTOR, preventing cyclin synthesis, and inhibit the cell cycle in lymphocytes

Organ transplant

Myelosuppression
Hypokalemia

43
Q

What is the MOA of antithymocyte globulin? What is this used for? Side effects (2)?

A

Antibody to CD3 and a whole bunch of other CD proteins

Fast immunosuppression

Cytokine storm
Serum sickness

44
Q

What is the MOA of Muromonab-CD3? What is this used for? Side effects (2)?

A

Mouse Antibody to CD3

Fast immunosuppression

Cytokine storm
Serum sickness

45
Q

What type ab of infliximab

A

Human constant, mouse variable

46
Q

What type of ab is etanercept?

A

Human TNF-a receptor, to human Fc portion

47
Q

What type of ab is adalimumab?

A

Recombinant IgG1 monoclonal 1

48
Q

What are the herbs that can cause bleeding?

A

Garlic
Ginseng
Glucosamine

49
Q

What are the herbs that can cause szs?

A

Gingko

50
Q

What are the herbs that can cause CNS stimulation?

A

Ginseng

St. John’s Wort

51
Q

Which herb can induce p450?

A

St. John’s Wort

52
Q

What are the two immune modulating herbs?

A

Echinacea

Ginseng

53
Q

What is the treatment for an uncomplicated skin infection? Complicated?

A

PCN or a 1st generation ceph.

PCN + lactamase inhibitor

54
Q

What is the treatment for MRSA? (3)

A

Vanco
Linezolid
Daptomycin

55
Q

What is the empiric treatment for osteomyelitis? Following surgery? Septic arthritis?

A

Empiric = vanco + ceph
Surgery = PCN + lactamase inhibitor
Septic arthritis = Ceftriaxone

56
Q

What is the treatment for acute sinusitis? Pharyngitis?

A 
Sinusitis = Augmentin
Pharyngitis = PCN or amox
57
Q

What is the treatment for Ambulatory, community acquired pneumonia? Hospitalization for community acquired?

A

Ambulatory = macrolide

Hospitalization +macrolide +beta lactam

58
Q

What is the treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Ceftriaxone

59
Q

What is the treatment for intra-abdominal infection that are not c.diff? What about c.diff?

A

Non = Ticarcillin + clavulanic acid

C.Diff = Metronidazole +Vanco

60
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis greater than 2 months of age? Less than 2 months?

A

Greater than 2 = Ceftriaxone + vanco

Less than = Ampicillin + cephalosporin + gentamycin

61
Q

What is the empiric treatment for sepsis?

A

Cefepime

62
Q

What is the empiric treatment for endocarditis?

A

Ceftriaxone

63
Q

What is the empiric treatment for fever and neutropenia?

A

Cipro + Augmenting

Pharm (73 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions