Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > Master Drug List > Flashcards

Master Drug List Flashcards

1
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Direct acting muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methacholine

A

Direct acting muscarinic agonist

Used to test for asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Carbachol

A

Direct acting muscarinic agonist

Used in treatment of glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bethanachol

A

Direct acting muscarinic agonist

Used to treat urinary retention (M3 receptor specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muscarine

A

Direct acting nicotinic agonist

Found in mushrooms–atropine is the antidote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Direct acting nicotinic agonist

Used to treat glaucoma by contacting ciliary muscle (M3 specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nicotine

A

Direct acting nicotinic agonist

Activates both Nm and Nn receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Edrophonium

A

Reversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neostigamine

A 
Reversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist
Treat ileus (stimulates M3), myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pyridostigamine

A 
Reversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist
Treat ileus (stimulates M3), myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Donepezil

A

Reversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Alzheimer’s balance of dopamine/ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tacrine

A

Reversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Alzheimer’s balance of dopamine/ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Malathion

A

Irreversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Treat with atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Parathion

A

Irreversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Treat with atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sarin

A

Irreversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Treat with atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Echotiophate

A

Irreversible, indirect acting cholinoceptor agonist

Treat with atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atropine

A

Blocks all muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ipratropium

A

M3 receptor antagonist

Used to reduce bronchial secretions in COPD/asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Benztropine

A

Cholinoceptor antagonist

CNS effects– used to balance ACh and dopa in parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hexamethonium

A

Nicotinic receptor antagonist

Causes vasodilation, and anhidrosis, but o/w symp dominant effect (tachycardia etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mecamylamine

A

Nicotinic receptor antagonist

Causes vasodilation, and anhidrosis, but o/w symp dominant effect (tachycardia etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

D-tubocurarine

A

Non-depolarizing Nicotinic receptor antagonist

Inhibits Nm receptors by blocking channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Depolarizing nicotonic receptor antagonist
Causes depolarization of Nm receptors, leading to paralysis
Used for intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Phenylepherine

A

Direct acting, Alpha 1 receptor agonist

Used to treat low BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clonidine

A

Direct acting, alpha 2 receptor agonist

Decrese BP and intraocular pressure via alpha 2 receptor in ciliary epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

alpha-methadopa

A

Direct acting, alpha 2 receptor agonist

Decrese BP and intraocular pressure via alpha 2 receptor in ciliary epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Apraclonidine

A

Direct acting, alpha 2 receptor agonist

Decrese BP and intraocular pressure via alpha 2 receptor in ciliary epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

brimonidine

A

Direct acting, alpha 2 receptor agonist

Decrese BP and intraocular pressure via alpha 2 receptor in ciliary epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Metaproterenol

A

Direct acting Beta 2 receptor agonist

Used to treat COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Terbutaline

A

Direct acting, beta 2 receptor agonist

Treat COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Albuterol

A

Direct acting, beta 2 receptor agonist

Treat COPD, asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ritodine

A

Direct acting, beta 2 receptor agonist

Causes uterine relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fenlodopam

A

Direct acting D1 receptor agonist

Increases GFR, used to treat hypertensive crises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Beta 1, beta 2 receptor agonist

Treat bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dobutamine

A

beta 1, alpha 1, beta 2 receptor agonist
beta 2 and alpha 1 receptors cancel out
Used to increase ventricular output without increasing HR in MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Epinephrine

A

alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2 receptor agonist

Used in anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Noepinephrine

A

alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1 receptor agonist

Used to treat Low BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dopamine

A

D1, D2 alpha 1, beta 1, receptor agonist

Diuretic at low doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Amphetamine

A

Causes release of dopaminergic vesicles

Blocked if reserpine is administered before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tyramine

A

Increases norepinephrine synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prazosin

A

Alpha 1 receptor antagonist

Lowers BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Terasosin

A

Alpha 1 receptor antagonist

Lowers BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Doxasosin

A

Alpha 1 receptor antagonist

Lowers BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Phenoxybezamine

A

Alpha 1 > alpha 2 antagonist

Used to treat phechromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Phentolamine

A

alpha 1 = alpha 2 antagonist

Given to MAOI pts who eat tyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Yohimbe

A

Alpha 2 > alpha 1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Alpha 1a receptor antagonist

Reduce BPH symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Labetolol

A

Beta blocker

Lowers BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sodium bicarbonate

A

Simple antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mg(OH)2

A

Simple antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Al(OH)2

A

Simple antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cimetidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ranitidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nizatidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Famotidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Omeprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lansoprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rabeprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Esomeprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pantoprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sucralfate

A

replaces stomach lining to heal peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Misoprostol

A

Stimulates PGE secretion to heal peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate

A

Coats stomach lining and increases prostaglandin synthesis to heal peptic ulcers

64
Q

Metocloperamide

A

D2 receptor antagonist (antiemetic)

65
Q

bethanechol

A

M3 receptor agonist

Used to increase Gi motility and bladder function

66
Q

Neostigamine

A

AchE inhibitor

Used to treat abdominal distension

67
Q

Erythromycin

A

Motilin receptor agonist

Induces gastroparesis

68
Q

Methylcellulose

A

Bulk forming laxative

69
Q

Glycerin

A

Surfactant Laxative

70
Q

Lactulose

A

Osmotic laxative

71
Q

Senna

A

Simulant laxative

72
Q

Tegaserod

A

5Ht-4 receptor agonist

Stimulates gastroparesis

73
Q

Lubiprostone

A

Prostaglandin derivative

Activates ClC2 channels to induce gastric motility

74
Q

Methylnaltrexone

A

Mu-opiod receptor antagonist

Anticonstipation

75
Q

Alvimopan

A

Mu-opiod receptor antagonist

Anticonstipation

76
Q

Loperamide

A

Opiod receptor agonist

Induces gasteroparesis

77
Q

Diphenoxylate

A

Opioid receptor agonist

Induces gasteroparesis

78
Q

Cholestyramine

A

binds bile salt

Antidiarrheal

79
Q

Octreotide

A

Somatostatin receptor agonist

Inhibits gasteroparesis

80
Q

Ondansetron

A

5HT-3 receptor antagonist

Antiemetic

81
Q

Scopolamine

A

M1 receptor antagonist

Antiemetic

82
Q

Metocloperamide

A

D2 receptor antagonist

Antiemetic

83
Q

Dimenhydrinate

A

H1 receptor antagonist

Antiemetic

84
Q

Apreitant

A

NK1 receptor antagonist

Antiemetic

85
Q

Prochlorperazine

A

M1 D2 H1 receptor antagonist

86
Q

Lorazepam

A

GABA agonist

Anxiolytic/antiemetic

87
Q

Nabilone

A

Cannabinoid agonist

Antiemetic

88
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Glucocorticoid agonist

Antiemetic

89
Q

Alosetron

A

5HT-3 receptor antagonist

Inihibits pain from IBD

90
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

5ASA

IBD treatment

91
Q

Mesalamine

A

5-ASA

IBD treatment

92
Q

Azathioprine

A

Antimetabolite

treatment for IBD

93
Q

Methotrexate

A

Antimetabolite

treatment for IBD

94
Q

Infliximan

A

Antibody to TNFalpha
Prevents immune response in
IBD

95
Q

methotrexate

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces precursors for RNA and DNA synthesis

96
Q

5FU

A

Incorporated into DNA and RNA

Inhibits thymidylate synthetase, which reduces DNA precursors

97
Q

Cytaranbine (ara-c)

A

incorporated into DNA and RNA, which inhibits synthesis and function

inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA polymerase

98
Q

Gemcitabine

A

Incorporated into DNA

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

99
Q

6MP

A

Incorporated into DNA

Reduced precursors for RNA/DNA

100
Q

6TG

A

Incorporated into DNA

Reduced precursors for RNA/DNA

101
Q

Fludarabine

A

Incorporated into DNA/RNA

Inhibits DNA pol and ribonucleotide reductase

102
Q

Cladribine

A

Incorporated into DNA
Causes strand breaks
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

103
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent

Causes hemorrhagic cystitis via acrolein product

104
Q

Mesna

A

Stops acrolein from damaging bladder during cyclophosphamide treatment

105
Q

Carmustine (BCNU)

A

Alkylating agent

Brain tumors/hodgkin’s

106
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinum alkylating agent
Increased risk of leukemia
Nephrotoxic
Peripheral neuropathy

107
Q

Carboplatin

A

Platinum alkylating agent
Increased risk of leukemia
Less toxic than cisplatin

108
Q

Oxaliplatin

A

Platinum alkylating agent

109
Q

Procarbazine

A

Alkylating agent for Hodgkins

110
Q

Bacarbazine

A

Alkylating agent for Hodgkin’s

111
Q

Temozolomide

A

Alkylating agent for glioblastomas

112
Q

Vinblastine

A

Inhibit microtubule assembly

113
Q

Vincristine

A

Inhibits microtubule assembly

Neurological defects

114
Q

Paclitaxel

A

Antimicrotubule agent

Peripheral neuropathy

115
Q

Filgrastim (GCSF)

A

used with paclitaxel to reduce myelosuppression

116
Q

Irinotecan

A

Topoisomerase inhibitor

117
Q

Topotecan

A

Topoisomerase inhibitor

118
Q

Etoposide

A

Topoisomerase inhibitor

119
Q

Doxorubicin

A

Intercalates with DNA
Inhibits topoisomerase II
Causes irreversible cardiomyopathy

120
Q

Dexrazoxane

A

Fe chelator that reduces cardiotoxicity from doxorubicin

121
Q

Bleomycin

A

Chemo abx that causes DNA breaks

Minimally myelosuppressive
Pulmonary toxicity

122
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator in treatment of breast CA

123
Q

Anastrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor

chemo for breast CA

124
Q

Flutamide

A

Androgen receptor dihydrotestosterone

Used to treat prostate CA

125
Q

Leuprolide

A 
GnRH agonist (reduces testosterone)
Treatment of prostate CA
126
Q

Goserelin

A 
GnRH agonist (reduces testosterone)
Treatment of prostate CA
127
Q

Degarelix

A 
GnRH antagonist (reduces testosterone)
Treatment of prostate CA
128
Q

Trastuzumab (herceptin)

A

Ab against HER2

Cardiotoxic

129
Q

Cetuximab

A

Ab against EGFR

Colorectal tumors

130
Q

Bevacizumab

A

Ab against VEGF
Colorectal/breast CA
HTN

131
Q

Lapatinib

A

inhibits EGFR and HER2 kinase activity

Breast CA

132
Q

Erlotinib

A

EGFR inhibitor/ATP competitive inhibitor

Small lung cell CA

133
Q

Imatinib

A

Ab against BCR/ABL in CML

134
Q

Asparaginase

A

N to aspartate
CA cells cannot get enough N
Hypersensitivity rxn

135
Q

Bortezomib

A

Inhibits proteasome that degrade p53

causes peripheral neuropathy

136
Q

Temsirolimus

A 
Inhibits mTORC1 (inhibits cell cycle)
Renal cell CA
137
Q

Quinidine (MOA, high dose effect, adverse effects)

A

Class Ia antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na and K channels (prolonged OT)

M2 antagonist

Ca blocking at high doses

Cinchonism
Hypotension
Torsades de pointes

Convert out of Afib

138
Q

Procainamide (MOA, high dose effect, adverse effects, clinical use)

A

Class Ia antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na and K channels (prolonged OT)

Aggrevate arrhythmias
SLE like symptoms

Treat arrhythmias (reentry SVT, afib, aflutter)

139
Q

Disopyramide (MOA, high dose effect, adverse effects, clinical use)

A

Class Ia antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na and K channels (prolonged OT)

Ca blocking at high doses

140
Q

Lidocaine (MOA, adverse effects, clinical use)

A

Class Ib antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na channels (lowers Vmax)

tinnitus, Szs

Digitalis induced arrhythmias. second line for ventricular arrhythmias

141
Q

Propafenone (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class Ic antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na channels
Beta blocker

Treats atrial arrhythmias

Lower LV

142
Q

Flecainide (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class Ic antiarrhythmic
Blocks Na channels

Slows intraventricular conduction

Can cause fatal arrhythmias

143
Q

Amiodarone (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class III antiarrhythmic
Blocks Ca, Na, K, and beta receptors

Prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increase QT). Acute termination of VT of VF

Lethal pneumonitis
Hypotension

144
Q

Dronedarone (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class III antiarrhythmic
Blocks Ca, Na, K, and beta receptors

Prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increase QT). Acute termination of VT of VF

Lethal pneumonitis
Hypotension

145
Q

Sotalol (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class III antiarrhythmic
Blocks Ca, Na, K, and beta receptors

Prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increase QT). Acute termination of VT of VF

Lethal pneumonitis
Hypotension

146
Q

Ibutilide (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class III antiarrhythmic
Blocks Ca, Na, K, and beta receptors

Prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increase QT). Acute termination of VT of VF

Lethal pneumonitis
Hypotension

147
Q

Dofetilide (MOA, clinical use, adverse effects)

A

Class III antiarrhythmic
Blocks Ca, Na, K, and beta receptors

Prolongs phase 3 repolarization (increase QT). Acute termination of VT of VF

Lethal pneumonitis
Hypotension

148
Q

Verapamil

A

Class IV antiarrhythmic Ca channel blocker (NDHP)
Depresses SA node automaticity

Used to control supraventricular tachycarida

149
Q

Diltiazem

A

Class IV antiarrhythmic Ca channel blocker
(NDHP) that works equally in the heart and the vasculature

Depresses SA node automaticity

150
Q

Nifedipine

A

Class IV
Ca channel blocker
(DHP) that works mainly in the vasculature

151
Q

Adenosine

A

Antiarrhythmic
Activates A1 receptors on heart to hyperpolarize SA cells with K

A2 receptors in vasculature increase NO production

Used for treating SVT d/t re entry pathways

152
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

Inhibit CA in the renal cells, causing increased HCO3 and water excretion.

Can cause metabolic acidosis and renal stones

153
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretic

Treats cerebral edema

Can cause hypokalemia d/t increased [solute] at end ot DCT

154
Q

Glycerin

A

Osmotic diuretic

Treats cerebral edema

Can cause hypokalemia d/t increased [solute] at end ot DCT

155
Q

Isosorbide

A

Osmotic diuretic

Treats cerebral edema

Can cause hypokalemia d/t increased [solute] at end ot DCT

156
Q

Urea

A

Osmotic diuretic

Treats cerebral edema

Can cause hypokalemia d/t increased [solute] at end ot DCT

Should not be given to cirrhotic pts

157
Q

Furosemide

A 
Loop diuretic (inhibits Na/K/Cl cotransporter)
Causes vasodilation

Causes Ca, Mg, K loss

Pharm (73 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions