Random Recall Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Vascular calcification’s greatest risk factor

A

Low bone turnover/Adynamic Bone disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is feared using 0 K Bath/Low K Bath

A

Arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most dreaded complication of Acquired Polycystic Kidney Disease

A

Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Other Treatment option for APKD proven by studies that can dec. cyst size/vol

A

Tolvaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

uremic toxin is attributed to platelet dysfunction

A

Guanidosuccinic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common stimulus for PTH release

A

decrease in Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

imaging to rule out ADPKD having infection

A

FDG PET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hallmark of renal disease progression

A

Proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypokalemia, Low rennin, Low aldo, HTN, Met Alkalosis

A

LIDDLE’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

only urinary findings with Acetazolamide

A

Bicarbonaturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of NDI, antihyperglycemic agent

A

Chlorpropramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mechanism of hyperkalemia sec. to Trimethroprim

A

Blocks ENAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MC cause of hypermagnesemia

A

Renal Insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PTH Localization pre op

A

Sestamibi scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most Common form of Calcium in the blood

A

Free Ionized Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

GN Associated with NSAID use

A

MCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treatment to MN

A

Ponticelli Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of AntiGBM Disease

A

Plasmapheresis+Steroids+Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

minimal mesangial stain for C3 IgM and effacement of foot process on EM

A

MCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cause of RPGN in adult

A

Pauci Immune Crescentic GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

supepithelial hump deposits

A

PSGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

subepithelial deposits

A

MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cause of hematuria in Sickle cell nephropathy

A

Microinfarcts in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Agent Causing collapsing FSGS

A

Pamidronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

steroid resistant FSGS treatment

A

Cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type of FSGS behaves like MCD with sudden/abrupt proteinuria

A

Tip lesion FSGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for C3GN

A

MMF+ Rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Synpharyngitic hematuria

A

IgAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GN patient is morbidly obese

A

FSGS (Perihilar Type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

feature of IgAN with better prognosis

A

macroscopic hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fluid of choice to test if prerenal responsive vs. HRS

A

Human Albumin 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

is combined with large volume paracentesis

A

Human Albumin 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

agent that causes AKI by TMA

A

Bevacizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drug causing AKI that causes precipitation of Crystals

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Novel AKI biomarker that assist in repair of renal tubules and decreases apoptosis

A

NGAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RRT of choice IN Tumor lysis Syndrome

A

Intermittent HD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment of AKI with volume overload

A

Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

protein requirement of a given patient,AKI on RRT

A

1-1.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

protein requirement of a given patient,AKI on CRRT

A

1.7 g/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Inflammatory cell seen earliest in Ichemic Injury/AKI

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Endothelial phenomenon that result to reduction of blood vessel density following ischemic injury

A

Vascular drop out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mechanism of AKI induced by NSAIDs

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

mechanism of AKI in CIN

A

direct tubular toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

mechanism of NAC

A

depleting glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

post cardiac procedure, with livedo reticularis, elevated crea, oligoanuria)

A

atheroemboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Antihypertensive medication for post delivery breastfeeding mom

A

Labetalol,M-Methyldopa,P-Propranolol,E-Enalapril C-Captopril

47
Q

HD of pregnant patient

A

20hours/week

48
Q

safe immunosuppressive KT drugs in pregnancy:

A

CAST (C-CYA,A-AZA,S-Steroid, T-Tacrolimus)

49
Q

Beta blocker medications known to be contraindicated in pregnant

A

atenolol

50
Q

MHC I

A

CD8

51
Q

MHC II

A

CD4

52
Q

Drug that block the IL-2 transduction

A

CNI

53
Q

Immunosuppressive drug use for high risk group but also has highest risk of infection

A

rATG

54
Q

Most common cause of Delayed Graft Function

A

Ischemic ATN

55
Q

post KT, oligoanuria, intraop( massive bleeding, difficulty in anastomosis due to multiple art

A

Renal artery thrombosis

56
Q

Treatment of choice of pregnant KTR with Acute rejection

A

High dose steroids

57
Q

Erosion of the renal calyx that progresses to papillary necrosis, renal parenchymal cavitation & dilated calyces

A

active renal TB

58
Q

encrusted cystitis cause

A

Corynebacterium

59
Q

treatment of choice in a given case of renal mass less than 4cm, normal renal function

A

surveillance

60
Q

MC site of mets of RCC

A

Lung

61
Q

Most common cause of Hypercalciuria causing stone

A

Increase Intestinal Absorption

62
Q

Struvite stone treatment of choice

A

Surgical removal

63
Q

Kidney stone treatment of choice

A

K citrate

64
Q

next Treatment of stone post ESWL failure

A

ureteral stent

65
Q

Limit of Na correction rate

A

0.5 mmol/hr

66
Q

site of maximal bicarbonate reabsorption

A

proximal tubule

adaptation in chronic metabolic acidosis increase NHE at proximal tubule

67
Q

action of angiotensin II

A

constrict efferent arterioles

68
Q

k in kt/v

A

dialyzer clearance of urea

69
Q

1st line medication in hypertension in pregnancy

A

methyldopa

70
Q

antihypertensive in breastfeeding postpartum

A

acei, methldopa, labetalol, propranolol

71
Q

pathophysiology of AFLP in pregnancy

A

prerenal vasoconstriction of renal artery

72
Q

PTH finding in hypercalciuria

A

increased PTH

73
Q

imaging test for renal abscess

A

CT scan

74
Q

most common site of injury in cisplatin toxicity

A

s3

75
Q

mechanism in ATN

A

apoptosis, low K and ATP

76
Q

mechanism of injury in cin

A

toxic and hypoxic injuries at the outer medulla

77
Q

differentiate between obstruction due to stasis or dilatation

A

diuretic renography

78
Q

ttkg 2-3

A

increased tubular delivery

79
Q

most common site of RCC metastasis

A

lungs

80
Q

most common symptom in RCCA

A

hematuria

81
Q

type of RCCA which is least aggressive despite presentation of a large mass

A

oncocytoma

82
Q

cyst classification with indefinite parenchymal enhancement

A

Type III

83
Q

block synthesis of cytokines including IL2 not B cells

A

corticosteroids

84
Q

inhibit calcineurin synthesis, IL2 and other T cell activation molecules

A

cyclosporine

85
Q

inhibits pure synthesis lymphocyte replication inhibited

A

azathioprine

86
Q

reversible inhibition of de novo pathway of purine synthesis relatively lymphocyte selective

A

MMF

87
Q

advantage of end to side in cannulation

A

avoid venous hypertension

88
Q

hallmark of AIN

A

inflammatory infiltrates with interstitial edema

89
Q

targets renal fibrosis in FSGS

A

pirfenidone

90
Q

most effective medication in decreasing pth and ica

A

cinnacalcet

91
Q

determines solute transport and dialyzer clearance

A

thickness of membrane

92
Q

most potent non-osmotic stimuli of AVP

A

nausea

93
Q

stimulates NHE at proximal tubule

A

low dose angiotensin, insulin

94
Q

treatment of acute prostatitis

A

b lactam or aminoglycoside x 6 weeks
FQ oral

95
Q

chronic prostatits tx

A

quinolones, macrolides
cipro/levox
doxycycline/macrolide

96
Q

mechanism of action of CNI in AKI

A

microvascular constriction

97
Q

(+) C4D, DSA, ABO, allograft dysfunction

A

Acute antibody mediated rejection

98
Q

management in HRS

A

colloid plus albumin

99
Q

ivf for post obstructive diuresis

A

0.45 Nacl IV

100
Q

duration from pharyngitis to nephritic syndrome

A

more than 7 days

101
Q

most important determinant of uric acid stones

A

low urine pH

102
Q

most likely seen stone in hyperuricosuria

A

ca oxalate

103
Q

duration of treatment post removal of struvite stone

A

until 4 weeks post eswl

104
Q

GFR in pregnancy

A

increased 50-65

105
Q

most effective in directly blocking RAAS

A

aliskerin

106
Q

most significant regulator of FGF23

A

Vitamin D

107
Q

responsible for water reabsorption in response to vasopresing at CD

A

aqp2

108
Q

1st line in acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis

A

quinolones

109
Q

risk factors for UTI in post kt

A

female, DM, immunosuppresion, allograft trauma

110
Q

most reliable test for genitoruinary TB

A

IVP

111
Q

treatment of GUTB

A

2HRZE/4HR

112
Q

most Na and Water reabsorption at proximal tubule

A

NHE

113
Q

diuretic causing impotence, DM

A

thiazide