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POD Exam 2 > Quinolones and Tetracyclines > Flashcards

Quinolones and Tetracyclines Flashcards

1
Q

What are two adverse effects of aminoglycosides

A

high peaks: ototoxicity

high troughs: nephrotoxicity

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2
Q

what bacteria coverage does aminoglycosides have

A 
excellent gram (-)
little synergy for gram (+)
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3
Q

Aminoglycosides: gent, tobra, amikacin which one do we go to North Carolina for levels

A

amikacin

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4
Q

Aminoglycosides: what is neomycin used for

A

gut decontamination

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5
Q

Vancomycin covers what oragnisms

A

gram (+)

drink Vanc: treat C.diff

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6
Q

Linelozid what is it used for

A

VRE MRSA

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7
Q

Quinipristin, Dalfopristin what is it used for

A

MRSA VRE

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8
Q

Mupirocin what is it used for

A

topically MRSA

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9
Q

Colistin what is it used for

A

tough gram (-)

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10
Q

Fosfomycin what is it used for

A

MDR UTI

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11
Q

Tigecycline what is it used for? not used for? when do we use this drug

A 
does not treat bacterimia
treats tissue well 
tier 2 or 3 
MRSA
VRE
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12
Q

Daptomycin what is it used for? what makes this drug worse?

A

everything but lungs(inactivated with lung surfactant)
good tissue penetration
-worse if on Statin

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13
Q

Telavancin should be used when?

A

not use for if have Vancomcin allergy

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14
Q

Sulfonamides, what happens when patient has sulfur reaction

A

steven johnson syndrome

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15
Q

how do you reduce nephrotoxicity risk for sulfonimides

A

-plenty hydration for patient

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16
Q

what do you use Nitrofurantian for

A

UTI

MRSA VRE

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17
Q

methanamine

A

UTI prophylaxis

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18
Q

which macrolide is best tolerated

A

Azithromycin

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19
Q

which microlide is worst for drug drug interactions

A

E-mycin

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20
Q

which microlide causes a metallic taste

A

clarithromycin

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21
Q

which microlide can we use for a gastronephresis for diabetic patient

A

E-mycin

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22
Q

what E-mycin do we not use in pregnancy

A

estelate

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23
Q

what does clindomycin cover? who is it good for? what is it’s MERSA sensitivity

A

positive (staph, strep)
anaerobes
good for diabetic food patient or someone who is allergic to penicillin
30% MRSA sensitivity

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24
Q

2 adverse reactions for chloramphenicol

A

aplastic anemia

grey baby syndrome (levels above 50)

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25
Q

highest incidence of risk for cchlindomyosin

A

C. diff

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26
Q

what is the mechanism of action for Quinolones

A

target DNA gyrase

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27
Q

what type of drug is quiolones

A

cidal

28
Q

what is the bioavailabilty for Quinolones

A

good

29
Q

what are adverse effects of quinolones

A

photosensitivity
QT prolongation
mental status change
tendon rupture

30
Q

at what age should you not give quinolones

A

caution under 18 years

31
Q

what are the 3 main drug interaction for quinolones

A

theophylline ( breathing medication)
antacids/iron/mutlivitamins
Warfin

32
Q

what does quinolones do with theophylline

A

can double theophylline levels

33
Q

which quinolone is not impacted that much with drug-drug interaction

A

levofloxacin

34
Q

what gram positives does Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin and gemifloxacin cover

A

staph and strep

35
Q

what gram positives doe cipro and ofloxacin cover

A

not good gram + coverage

36
Q

Cipro and levofloxacin cover what gram negative

A

SPACE

37
Q

moxifloxcin covers what gram negative

A

SACE

38
Q

which quinolone covers anaerobes

A

Moxifloxacin

39
Q

which quinolones covers atypicals

A

levofloxacin
moxifloxacin
cipro

40
Q

what does ciprofloxacin cover

A 
poor gram (+)
Good SPACE
41
Q

what is the bioavailabilty for ciprofloxacin

A

excellent

use oral if possible

42
Q

what does levofloxacin/gemifloxacin/moxifloxacin cover

A 
gram + (staph/strep)
PCN resistant strep pneumo
Levo: SPACE
Gem/Mox: SACE
atypicals
43
Q

Moxifloxacin is not used for what disease

A

UTI

44
Q

what is a unique characteristic for moxifloxacin

A

anaerobes

45
Q

what are major things quinolones treat

A

UTI
skin
bone and joint infection
intra-abdominal infections

46
Q

what is the mechanism of action for tetracyclines

A

reversibly binds to 30S ribosomal unit

47
Q

what type of drug is tetracycline

A

bacteriostatic

48
Q

what decreases absorption for tetracyclines

A

food

49
Q

what is the primary elimination for tetracyclines

A

renal

50
Q

what is an adverse effect for tetracyclines

A

photosensitivity

discoloration of teeth

51
Q

what is an adverse effect for demecylcoine? what can it treat

A

Reversible diabetes insipidius

-treats SIADH

52
Q

what is a side effect of minocycline

A

dizziness

53
Q

what syndrome related with tetracyclines

A

fanconi-like sydnrome

54
Q

what is Fanconi-like syndrome

A

outdated critic acid formulation

55
Q

there is a decrease absorption of TCN agents when co-administer via chelation

A

di- and trivalent cations
antacids
dairy products

56
Q

Tetracycline interacts with what drug

A

Warfin

57
Q

what is the spectrum of activity for tetracyclines

A

Graph (+) staph, strep
gram (-) H. flu, Neisseria
atypicals

58
Q

what disease does Tetracyclines use for

A 
Rickettsia infections
Rocky Mountain spotted fever 
mycoplasma pneumonia 
chlamydia infections
acne 
H. pylori
59
Q

where does one get Brucellosis

A

unpasteurized cheeses, milk

60
Q

how does one treat brucellosis

A

tetracyclines with gentamicin

61
Q

how does one catch vibrio cholera

A

diarrheal disease from water

62
Q

what can treat vibrio cholera

A

tetracyclines

63
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

lyme disease

flu-like symptoms

64
Q

what can treat Borrelia burgdorferi

A

tetracyclines

65
Q

when do you not use tetracyclines

A

pregnant women

children under 8

POD Exam 2 (28 decks)

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