Pretransfusion Testing Flashcards

1
Q

what AABB standard address pretransfusion?

A

5: Process Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

serological confirmation required on whole blood, red cells, and granulocyte units

A

ABO group

Rh of each unit labeled Rh neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is weak D testing required on labeling of Rh neg units

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

requirements of transfusion request

A
complete, accurate, legible
2 independent patient identifiers
type and amount of component requested
special processing requirements
ordering physician
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pre-transfusion testing regulated by who?

A

US Federal govt, accrediting agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sample requirement of pre-transfusion sample

A

2 independent patient identifiers
date and time of collection
identification of collector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when must pre-transfusion sample be drawn in relation to transfusion?

A

within 3 days (if transfused in last 3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how long is pre-transfusion sample kept after transfusion

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how long is segment of donor blood kept after transfusion

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

day of collection is day ___ in pre-transfusion testing

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sample age requirement for patients who have not been pregnant or transfused in the last 90 days

A

no specific requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pre-transfusion specimen requirement for patients less than 4 months old

A

initial sample for ABO/Rh typing and to detect unexpected maternal red cell antibodies, no additional testing required until 4 months of age if screen is negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

crossmatch requirements for <4 months of age after pre-transfusion testing is complete

A

crossmatch not necessary if using O red cells if no antibodies present

if antibodies are present, crossmatch not necessary if antigen-negative red cells are used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

emergency blood given to women of childbearing age

A

O negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

emergency blood given to women older than childbearing age and men

A

O positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

definition: massive transfusion

A

when a patient receives 10 units of blood in less than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is serologic XM no longer required in massive transfusion?

A

after 8-10 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

requirement from requesting physician for emergency released uncrossmatched blood

A

signed statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

requirements of blood product transfusion order from physician

A

specific component
amount
special requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

purpose of compatibility testing

A

prevent hemolytic transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

compatibility testing includes:

A

ABO/Rh of patient
antibody screen of patient
XM between patient plasma and donor red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

AABB Standards requirement of ABO group for recipient

A

2 determinations of ABO group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AABB Standards requirement options for second ABO confirmation of recipient

A
  • comparison with previous records
  • testing a second sample from a second collection time with NEW VERIFICATION OF PATIENT IDENTIFICATION
  • retesting original sample if patient identification was verified using validated electronic identification system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

can reagent red cells for antibody detection testing be pooled

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
blood group used in antibody screen reagent cells
group O
26
definition: sensitization
antibody attachment to antigen
27
agglutination
electrostatic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, van der Walls forces lead to binding of antibody to antigen
28
definition: prozone
false negative
29
zeta potential
ionic charges on the surface of red cells that keep them separated
30
strategies to enhance agglutination
``` decrease zeta potential enhancements increasing positive ions AHG reagents enzymes centrifugation ```
31
how does AHG encourage agglutination
overcomes electrical repulsion/zeta potential between red cells so agglutination can be observed
32
2 production methods of AHG
- purified gammaglobulins from human serum injected into animals to produce anti-human gammaglobulin - monoclonal technology to make monoclonal antiglobulin reagent
33
monospecific
one antibody specificity
34
polyspecific
broad spectrum antibody specificity (IgG and C3d)
35
do AHG reagents contain antibodies to IgM
no
36
where does information about IgM coating of red cells come from in pretransfusion testing
anti-C3 (IgM activates complement)
37
what does IAT detect
in-vitro sensitization (binding of Ab to Ag)
38
what does DAT detect
in-vivo sensitization (already attached in circulation)
39
why is 37C incubation not included in DAT
already occurred in the body
40
why is 37C incubation included in IAT
temperature IgG antibodies are most active
41
what procedure involves washing away unbound antibody and addition of AHG
direct antiglobulin test
42
what procedure involves combining antibody and antigen, incubation, washing of unbound antibody, and addition of antiglobulin reagent
indirect antiglobulin test
43
why should a plasma sample be used for a DAT instead of a serum sample
complement is bound during the clotting process and may cause false positive DAT due to in-vitro binding of complement
44
QC for negative AHG test results
Coombs Control/check cells
45
AHG check cells reagent composition
IgG sensitized RBCs
46
false negatives detected by Coombs control cells
- inadequate washing - failure to add AHG - neutralization of AHG from residual saline or plasma proteins
47
antibody excess
prozone
48
antigen excess
postzone
49
false positives in AHG testing
- spontaneous agglutination - over centrifugation - in-vitro attachment of complement
50
definition: complement
series of proteins that when activated by antibody on red cells can result in lysis of those cells
51
sample required for complement activation
fresh serum sample less than 72 hours old
52
Full/Coombs serological crossmatch purpose
prevent ABO incompatibility | prevent IgG allo-antibody incompatibility
53
immediate spin/modified serological crossmatch purpose
prevent ABO incompatibility
54
requirements for IS/modified XM
negative antibody screen on current sample AND no history of clinically significant antibodies
55
causes of IS incompatibility
- ABO grouping error - cold alloantibody - cold autoantibody - rouleaux
56
causes of incompatibility after 37C incubation
- alloantibody - antibody to enhancement media - rouleaux
57
causes of incompatibility at AHG
- alloantibody - warm autoantibody - positive DAT of donor
58
when can computer crossmatch be performed
- computer system has been validated for XM use - patient meets IS criteria - current sample ABO/RH in LIS - 2 ABO/RH on patient both in LIS - donor cells retyped and results in LIS
59
are antigen negative units required for patients with clinically insignificant antibodies
no
60
are antigen negative units required for patients with clinically significant antibodies
yes
61
ABO requirement of whole blood selection
ABO identical to recipient or low-titer group O
62
ABO requirement of RBC selection
ABO compatible with recipient plasma
63
ABO requirement of granulocyte selection
ABO compatible with recipient plasma
64
ABO requirement of plasma selection
ABO compatible with recipient RBC
65
ABO requirement of platelet selection
all ABO groups acceptable but ABO identical or compatible with recipient RBCs preferred
66
ABO requirement of cryoprecipitate selection
all ABO groups acceptable
67
requirements of unit tag
attached securely to bag 2 patient identifiers donor unit number compatibility testing result
68
required physician orders for blood administration
- request of product preparation from blood bank | - request of product transfusion
69
blood administration IV access for adults
18-20 gauge needle
70
blood administration IV access for kids
22-24 gauge needle
71
IV solutions compatible with blood products
- 0.9% normal saline - Normosol-R, pH 7.4 - Plasma-Lyte-A, pH 7.4
72
standard blood administration filter
170-260 microns
73
blood product transfusion must be complete in what timeframe
4 hours
74
definition: polyclonal antibodies
antibodies that bind to slightly different regions on the same antigens (different epitopes)
75
definition: monoclonal antibodies
antibodies formed from a single type of plasma cell and always bind to a single epitope