Administration of Blood Components Flashcards

1
Q

who regulates collection of blood and blood components used for transfusion or for manufacture of pharmaceuticals derived from blood and blood components?

A

Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FDA focus in regard to administration of blood components

A

blood collection centers and blood safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what solution can be added to blood component transfusion according to FDA regulations?

A

normal saline 0.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

requirements for administration of blood components mandated by?

A

AABB Standards and CAP requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most likely reason for acute intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

clerical error leading to ABO error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CAP standard: Is there a documented system in operation to detect and correct significant clerical and analytical errors, and unusual laboratory results, in a timely manner?

A

TRM.30400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CAP standard: Does the facility have a documented program to ensure that the risk of pretransfusion sample misidentification and other causes of mis-transfusion are monitored and subjected to continual process improvement?

A

TRM.30550

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what 2 orders are required before blood products are transfused?

A

one to lab to request preparation of product

one to transfusionist to administer product and how product should be administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IV catheter size for transfusing cellular components

A

22-14 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

prophylactic meds may be given how soon before transfusion?

A

oral 30-60 minutes

IV 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

can blood products be administered through the same line as any medication?

A

no - different line or flushed with normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is given prophylactically to reduce febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions in patients with past reactions and for patients with elevated temps before transfusion?

A

antipyretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is given prophylactically to reduce mild allergic or urticarial reactions?

A

antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is given prophylactically to reduce rigors in patients with past reactions?

A

corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the only solution compatible with blood products?

A

normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what should be the last solution to go through the line before a blood component?

A

normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indications for blood warning

A

hypothermia concerns from infusing cold blood components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

controlled temperature of FDA approved warming device

A

below 42C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AABB Standard that applies to blood warmers

A

3.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

temperature at which red cell component cannot be reissued

A

10C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

can a spiked unit be returned to the blood bank?

A

NO - infused within 4 hours or discarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CAP TRM.30000

A

is there documentation of ongoing evaluation by laboratory director or designee of all of the following?
-control results of routine procedures, reactivity of reagents, instrument function checks, temperature records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CAP TRM.45009

A

are all storage units monitored 24 hours/day and equipped with an alarm (either remote or in the laboratory) that is tested periodically for its ability to alert responsible staff at all times?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CAP TRM.30800

A

is there a means to document the disposition of all blood components, derivatives, and tissues obtained, including the method of destruction or transfer of units unsuitable for transfusion or transplant?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
when should inspection of blood components occur?
``` before shipping from donor center to transfusion service upon receipt in the transfusion service at time of allocating to patient at time of sign-out at bedside before transfusion ```
26
component inspection for red blood cells
hemolysis in bag and segments | particulate matter and clots
27
component inspection for platelets
swirling | clots
28
component inspection for plasma and cryo
fibrin strands
29
standard blood filter
170 to 260 microns
30
microaggregate filter
20-40 microns
31
contraindication for microaggregate filter
platelets and granulocytes
32
contraindication for leukocyte reduction filter
granulocyte components
33
purpose of standard blood filter
remove small blood clots and particles potentially harmful to recipient
34
function of microaggregate filter
removes smaller clots and particles including platelets and granulocytes; originally designed to remove leukocytes
35
current typical use for microaggregate filter
shed autologous blood collected during surgery or during massive transfusion
36
function of leukocyte reduction filter
reduces number of leukocytes in red cells and platelets to less than 5x10^6 cells per unit
37
is pre-storage or bedside filtration preferred in leukocyte reduction?
pre-storage
38
review during final issue of blood to prevent transfusion mishap
``` 2 recipient identifiers recipient Abo/Rh donor unique unit number compatibility testing results donor Abo/Rh special transfusion requirements expiration date and time ```
39
documentation at issue of blood components
visual inspection time and date of issue technologist who issued component name of person picking up component
40
RBC infusion rate
150-300 ml/hr
41
plasma infusion rate
200-300 ml/hr
42
platelet transfusion rate
200-300 ml/hr
43
cryo transfusion rate
as rapidly as tolerated by patient
44
granulocyte transfusion rate
75-100 ml/hr
45
assessment of recipient includes:
baseline physical assessment (vitals, temp, pulse, BP) | assessment for signs and symptoms before transfusion
46
infusion rate of any blood product for first 15 minutes
2 ml/min
47
when are vital signs taken during transfusion?
before and after
48
OR and trauma infusion rate
as fast as 600-1500 ml/min
49
what may be noted with rapid transfusions?
hypothermia, hypocalcemia
50
patient unit tag/label must indicate:
2 recipient identifiers donor unique unit number compatibility testing result attached securely to unit
51
final records check of blood components must include:
``` 2 recipient identifiers recipient ABO/Rh donor unique number compatibility testing results donor ABO/RH date and time of issue special transfusion requirements expiration date and time ```
52
what must be in 100% agreement prior to issue of blood components?
identifying information initial request recipient's records all blood components
53
actions performed by transfusion service technologist when issuing blood components in urgent situations
issue uncrossmatched blood, indicating on tag that crossmatch incomplete start compatibility testing as soon as sample is received contact medical director if uncrossmatched units are found to be incompatible
54
emergency release blood if recipient's blood type is unknown
group O Rh negative to females of childbearing age males and females over age 50 may receive Rh positive
55
definition of massive transfusion
8-10 RBCs to adult patient within 24 hours
56
acute massive transfusion definition
4-5 RBC units to adult patient within 1 hour
57
massive transfusion to infant definition
exchange transfusion
58
stop serological crossmatching blood after adult patient has received ___ during massive transfusion
>10 units of RBC within 24 hours
59
switching from group O AS-1, AS-3, AS-5 RBC units to ABO identical units can be safely done because?
minimal residual plasma in group O AS units
60
minimal residual plasma is group O AS units lowers risk of...
passive anti-A and anti-B transmission
61
what can be given if Rh-negative woman of childbearing age receives Rh-positive blood components to prevent anti-D from forming?
Rh IG prophylaxis
62
requirements for return/reissue of blood components
primary container not tampered/entered appropriate temp maintained at all times one or more retention segments intact written documentation states blood component passed inspection and is ready to be returned to inventory
63
what happens to red cells if transfused with Ringer's Lactate?
red cells clump due to ionized calcium chelating citrate
64
medications containing calcium or gluconate solution do what if transfused with red cells?
neutralize CPD and cause blood to clot
65
hypertonic solutions cause what to happen if transfused with red cells?
red cells lyse and break
66
dextrose solutions cause what if transfused with red cells?
hemolyze, swell and clot