Antibody Identification Flashcards

1
Q

agency that controls blood bank reagents

A

Bureau of Biologics of FDA

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2
Q

types of blood bank reagents

A

high protein, monoclonal, chemically modified, human-derived

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3
Q

ABO reagents

A

commercially prepared anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, anti-A1, A1 and B cells

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4
Q

RH reagents

A
  • monoclonal IgM antibody reactive at room temp

- monoclonal polyclonal blend includes IgG antibody for weak D detection

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5
Q

uses of indirect antiglobulin test

A
antibody screen/panel
crossmatch
weak D testing
leukocyte and platelet antibody test
detection of autoantibodies
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6
Q

uses of direct antiglobulin test

A

detection of autoantibodies
HDFN
transfusion reactions
RBC sensitization by drugs

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7
Q

examples of enhancement media

A
LISS
PEG
22% bovine serum albumin
gel column agglutination
solid-phase technology
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8
Q

what should be suspected if autocontrol is positive but DAT is negative?

A

antibodies to LISS and PEG enhancement media ingredients

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9
Q

mechanism: LISS

A

low ionic strength saline; reduced ionic strength in comparison to normal saline

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10
Q

which enhancement media(s) is used to enhance reactivity and decrease incubation time for antibody identification?

A

LISS, PeG

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11
Q

which enhancement media may enhance autoantibodies?

A

LISS

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12
Q

mechanism: PeG

A

polyethylene glycol; linear polymer that is water-soluble; steric exclusion of water molecules in the diluent

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13
Q

what enhancement may enhance warm autoantibodies?

A

PEG

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14
Q

what enhancement enhances detection of clinically significant antibodies along with decreasing detection of clinically insignificant antibodies?

A

PEG

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15
Q

mechanism: 22% bovine serum albumin

A

helps reduce repulsive charges between red cells during antibody detection, promoting agglutination

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16
Q

what enhancement may enhance cold autoantibodies?

A

22% bovine serum albumin

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17
Q

principle use of enhancement media

A

reduce incubation time and increase reaction strength

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18
Q

what media enhances linked lattice formation by reducing net negative charge of red cells, allowing the cells to come closer together?

A

albumin

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19
Q

what media enhances antibody uptake by reducing zeta potential and allowing increased attraction between positively charged antibodies and negatively charged red cells?

A

LISS

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20
Q

what media enhances antibody-antigen binding by excluding water from around the red cells, effectively concentrating the antibody and favoring binding to its target antigen?

A

PEG

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21
Q

what media enhances linked lattice formation by decreasing the net negative charge of the red cells by removing sialic acid residues to allow the red cells to come closer together?

A

enzyme treatment

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22
Q

what media enhances formation of the linked lattice by neutralizing the negative charges of the sialic acid residues on the red cells, allowing red cells to get closer together?

A

polybrene

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23
Q

media that can enhance reactivity of weak Kidd and Duffy antibodies

A

PEG

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24
Q

enhancement that may not pick up IgM antibodies such as ABO or Lewis

A

PEG

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25
enhancement that can result in spontaneous agglutination
polybrene
26
avidity
speed at which standardized endpoint is attained (strength)
27
titer
reciprocal of greatest dilution that gives 1+ agglutination (amount)
28
requirements at reagent arrival
dated and stored at optimal temp | expiration date and appearance noted and recorded
29
QC of antigen typing sera
heterozygous positive control | negative control
30
naturally occurring antibody common class
IgM
31
immune stimulated antibody common class
IgG
32
antibodies to substances in the environment that are antigenically similar to red cell antigens are ___ (naturally occuring or immune stimulated)
naturally occurring
33
definition: clinically significant antibody
causes HDFN or HTR or noticeable decrease in transfused red cell survival
34
preanalytical patient medical history considerations in antibody identification
transfusion, pregnancy, disease, drugs, rare phenotype
35
analytical considerations in antibody identification
specimen requirements, reagents, serological procedures, factors affecting antibody identification
36
p value requirement of antibody identification
<0.05
37
causes of positive autocontrol
autoantibodies (Warm and cold) recent transfusion/DHTR drug-induced issues passively acquired antibodies
38
source of ficin
figs
39
source of papain
papaya
40
source of trypsin
pig stomach
41
source of bromelin
pineapple
42
antigens destroyed by enzyme treatment
M, N, Fya, Fyb, Xga, JMH, Ch, Rg
43
antigens enhanced by enzyme treatment
Rh, Lewis, Kidd, P, I
44
mechanism of enzyme treatment
cleave membrane glycoproteins and sialic acid residues that link amino acid chains together
45
antigens unaffected by enzyme treatment
Kell Diego Colton
46
mechanism of thiol reagents
disrupt disulfide bonds that connect J chain of IgM molecule; denatures IgM molecules so they can't agglutinate or bind complement
47
thiol reagents
DTT 2-ME AET
48
reagent used to distinguish IgM from IgG
thiol
49
what enzyme denatures CD38 antigen
thiol
50
antibody seen in Dara patients
anti-CD38
51
thiol reagent effect on Kell antigens
destroys
52
mechanism of ZZAP
denatures DTT sensitive antigens along with antigens that are sensitive to enzymes
53
mechanism of chloroquine diphosphate
dissociate IgG from red cell membrane; weakens class I HLA antigen expression along with other antigens including Rh
54
reagent used to remove bound antibody so cells can be antigen typed using antisera that require IAT testing
glycine acid/EDTA, chloroquine diphosphate
55
what antibodies can be enhanced by lowering pH to 6.5
anti-M, some anti-U
56
how to lower pH to 6.5
1 volume 0.1N HCl to 9 volumes serum
57
lowering pH to <6.0 can decrease or diminish reactivity of what blood groups
Rh, Duffy, Kidd
58
Lewis inhibition substance
saliva of individual with Lewis gene
59
P1 inhibition substance
hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon eggs
60
Sda inhibition substance
urine from Sda positive individual
61
Chido and Rodgers inhibition substance
plasma from Ch+Rh+ individual
62
what is required to interpret results from inhibition techniques?
overall test result is nonreactive and dilution control is negative
63
mechanism: adsorption
antibodies removed from patient serum by adsorbing onto red cells which express the corresponding antigen
64
normal serum:cell ratio for adsorption
1:1
65
mechanism: elution
bound antibody is released by changing of thermodynamics to recover bound antibody into usable form
66
heat/freeze-thaw elution use
ABO incompatibility from ABO HDFN
67
acid/organic solvent elution use
warm autoantibodies and alloantibodies
68
mechanism: titration
testing twofold serial dilutions of patient's serum with preselected red blood cells to provide relatively how much antibody is present in patient's serum or given strength of red blood cell antigen expression