periop practice Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of preoperative teaching? A. Decrease length of hospital stay B. Prevent post-op complications C. Reduce anesthesia use D. Promote early discharge
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. (SATA) Components of the preoperative checklist include: A. Consent signed B. Jewelry removed C. Last oral intake recorded D. Start antibiotics after surgery | A, B, C
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The main focus during intraoperative care is: A. Pain management B. Infection prevention C. Airway management and patient safety D. Family education
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which factor increases a surgical patient’s risk for complications? A. Age 30 B. Obesity C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL D. No medication use
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Informed consent must be obtained by: A. The nurse B. The surgeon C. The anesthesiologist D. A family member
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. (SATA) Which actions are within the circulating nurse’s role? A. Monitor sterile field B. Document intraoperative care C. Count sponges D. Assist with anesthesia | A, B, D
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. A patient is NPO before surgery mainly to reduce risk of: A. Dehydration B. Aspiration C. Hypertension D. Hypoglycemia
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. After surgery, the priority assessment is: A. Pain level B. Surgical dressing C. Airway patency D. Mobility | C
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. During moderate sedation, the patient should be: A. Completely unconscious B. Able to respond to verbal stimuli C. On mechanical ventilation D. NPO for 48 hours post-op | B
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The purpose of incentive spirometry postoperatively is to: A. Strengthen abdominal muscles B. Prevent atelectasis C. Reduce nausea D. Promote wound healing
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. (SATA) Early signs of hypoxia in the post-op client include: A. Restlessness B. Confusion C. Bradycardia D. Cyanosis | A, B
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the best indicator of return of bowel function after surgery? A. Absence of nausea B. Flatus C. Abdominal pain D. Clear vomit
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The scrub nurse is responsible for: A. Circulating sterile equipment B. Maintaining sterile technique C. Documenting vital signs D. Talking with family members
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. When should a pre-op antibiotic ideally be administered? A. 1 hour before incision B. At the end of surgery C. After anesthesia wears off D. Morning of discharge
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a “time-out” in surgery? A. Allow staff to rest B. Verify correct patient, procedure, and site C. Prepare instruments D. Begin anesthesia | B
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. (SATA) Post-op interventions to prevent DVT include: A. Early ambulation B. SCD (sequential compression devices) C. High Fowler’s position D. Anticoagulant therapy | A, B, D
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Priority action if the patient vomits post-anesthesia: A. Administer pain meds B. Suction airway C. Give PO fluids D. Lower the bed flat
18
Q
  1. Which action by the nurse reduces surgical site infections? A. Shaving hair the night before surgery B. Administering prophylactic antibiotics on time C. Giving high-dose steroids pre-op D. Keeping wounds dry at all times
19
Q
  1. A patient with latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Priority intervention? A. Schedule surgery first case of the day B. Delay surgery 24 hours C. Administer diphenhydramine 12 hours pre-op D. Remove IV line
20
Q
  1. What indicates readiness for discharge from PACU? A. Pain score B. Oxygen saturation > 92% C. IV fluids completed D. No urinary catheter
21
Q
  1. (SATA) Common post-op complications include: A. Hemorrhage B. Infection C. Atelectasis D. Hypokalemia | A, B, C
22
Q
  1. If a patient’s blood pressure drops significantly post-op, first action? A. Notify surgeon B. Reassess blood pressure C. Increase IV fluids per protocol D. Administer a vasopressor | B
23
Q
  1. Surgical consent must be obtained: A. Before sedatives are administered B. After sedatives C. On the way to the OR D. After the surgery
24
Q
  1. What is the first sign of malignant hyperthermia during surgery? A. Increased blood pressure B. Muscle rigidity C. Cyanosis D. Hypothermia
25
Q
  1. Which medication is given to treat malignant hyperthermia? A. Atropine B. Dantrolene C. Epinephrine D. Naloxone
26
Q
  1. (SATA) Signs of wound infection include: A. Redness B. Swelling C. Drainage D. Decreased temperature | A, B, C
27
Q
  1. What should the nurse monitor after spinal anesthesia? A. Respiratory depression B. Hypertension C. Diuresis D. Hyperglycemia
28
Q
  1. When should patient teaching ideally be started? A. Pre-op period B. After anesthesia wears off C. Day of surgery D. After discharge
29
Q
  1. If a patient refuses surgery after signing consent, the nurse should: A. Force them to go B. Notify the surgeon C. Call anesthesia D. Ignore and proceed | B
30
Q
  1. The Aldrete score assesses: A. Bowel function B. Recovery from anesthesia C. Urinary output D. Risk for infection
31
Q
  1. (SATA) Immediate post-op nursing priorities include: A. Airway B. Breathing C. Circulation D. Pain score | A, B, C
32
Q
  1. Prolonged immobility increases risk for: A. Bradycardia B. DVT C. Hypothermia D. Infection
33
Q
  1. What is the best position for a conscious patient recovering from anesthesia? A. Supine with pillow B. Side-lying C. Trendelenburg D. High Fowler’s
34
Q
  1. Priority if a surgical dressing is saturated with blood: A. Remove dressing B. Reinforce dressing and notify surgeon C. Apply ice pack D. Loosen dressings completely
35
Q
  1. A urinary output less than ____ mL/hr may indicate renal compromise post-op: A. 15 B. 30 C. 50 D. 75
36
Q
  1. If a post-op patient has absent bowel sounds, first action: A. Insert NG tube B. Notify provider C. Ambulate the patient D. Withhold oral intake | D
37
Q
  1. (SATA) Risk factors for delayed wound healing include: A. Diabetes B. Smoking C. Obesity D. Youth | A, B, C
38
Q
  1. An early sign of hemorrhage post-op is: A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia C. Warm skin D. Oliguria
39
Q
  1. Which electrolyte is most critical to monitor after major surgery? A. Potassium B. Chloride C. Phosphate D. Bicarbonate
40
Q
  1. Normal wound drainage immediately post-op is expected to be: A. Purulent B. Serosanguineous C. Green D. Thick yellow