PATHO WEEK 5 CHECK FOR WEEK 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

A

epispadias.

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2
Q

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

A

leiomyomas.

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3
Q

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

A

bacteria.

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4
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by

A

absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

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5
Q

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

A

ultrasonography.

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6
Q

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

A

interstitial cystitis.

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7
Q

Endometriosis is a condition in which

A

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

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8
Q

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.

A

True

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9
Q

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

A

may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

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10
Q

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

A

chills and fever.

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11
Q

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

A

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

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12
Q

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called

A

overflow incontinence.

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13
Q

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

A

radical mastectomy.

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14
Q

Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.

A

Candida albicans

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15
Q

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

A

prostatic enlargement.

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16
Q

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

A

Escherichia coli.

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17
Q

A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is

A

“When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”

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18
Q

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

A

smoking.

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19
Q

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

A

True

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20
Q

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

A

Sexually active women

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21
Q

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

A

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

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22
Q

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

A

serum creatinine.

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23
Q

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

A

nephralgia.

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24
Q

The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the

A

man who has chronic urinary tract infections.

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25
Q

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

A

contrast media.

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26
Q

Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include

A

proteinuria.

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27
Q

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is

A

pelvic tumor.

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28
Q

The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is

A

crescentic glomerulonephritis.

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29
Q

Glomerular disorders include

A

nephrotic syndrome.

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30
Q

The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in

A

a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.

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31
Q

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

A

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

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32
Q

The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is

A

throat infection.

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33
Q

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

A

renal colic.

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34
Q

Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A

severe hypotension.

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35
Q

The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)

A

elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.

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36
Q

Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

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37
Q

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience

A

fever.

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38
Q

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of

A

associated dermatomes.

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39
Q

One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is

A

hypertension.

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40
Q

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

A

Greater than 90% nephron loss

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41
Q

Absence of menstruation is called

A

amenorrhea.

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42
Q

Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.

A

False

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43
Q

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

A

prostatic enlargement.

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44
Q

Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of

A

testicular torsion.

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45
Q

The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is

A

oliguria.

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46
Q

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

A

True

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47
Q

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

A

radical mastectomy.

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48
Q

Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by

A

inability to retract the foreskin.

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49
Q

Cryptorchidism is

A

associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.

50
Q

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely

A

carcinoma.

51
Q

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

A

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

52
Q

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

A

Stage II

53
Q

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

A

pessary.

54
Q

The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.

A

9

55
Q

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

A

hematuria.

56
Q

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

A

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

57
Q

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?

A

Cystocele

58
Q

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the

A

cardinal ligaments.

59
Q

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

A

leiomyomas.

60
Q

A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is

A

increased urinary protein.

61
Q

Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A

severe hypotension.

62
Q

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

A

tubular

63
Q

If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience

A

polyuria and sodium wasting.

64
Q

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of

A

associated dermatomes.

65
Q

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

A

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

66
Q

The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

A

insufficient erythropoietin.

66
Q

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

A

GFR declines.

67
Q

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

A

serum creatinine.

68
Q

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?

A

Uremia

69
Q

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is

A

pelvic tumor.

70
Q

The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is

A

sepsis.

71
Q

Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

72
Q

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

A

contrast media.

73
Q

One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is

A

hypertension.

74
Q

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience

A

fever.

75
Q

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

A

Greater than 90% nephron loss

76
Q

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

A

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

77
Q

It is true that polycystic kidney disease is

A

genetically transmitted.

78
Q

Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by

A

hypercalciuria.

79
Q

The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is

A

hydronephrosis.

80
Q

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

A

epispadias.

81
Q

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

A

ultrasonography.

82
Q

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

A

chills and fever.

83
Q

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

A

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

84
Q

In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include

A

hematuria.

85
Q

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

A

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

86
Q

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as

A

hyperemesis gravidarum.

87
Q

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

A

prostatic enlargement.

88
Q

The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is

A

oliguria.

89
Q

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

A

Sexually active women

90
Q

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

A

interstitial cystitis.

91
Q

Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of

A

testicular torsion.

92
Q

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

A

leiomyomas.

93
Q

Sexual impotence is rarely because of

A

primary causes.

94
Q

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

A

dysmenorrhea.

95
Q

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

A

pessary.

96
Q

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

A

may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

97
Q

Absence of menstruation is called

A

amenorrhea.

98
Q

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

A

Stage II

99
Q

Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by

A

decreased secretion of erythropoietin.

100
Q

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by

A

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

101
Q

The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves

A

regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.

102
Q

Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by

A

hypercalciuria.

103
Q

The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.

A

struvite

104
Q

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A

bilateral kidney stones.

105
Q

The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

A

insufficient metabolic acid excretion resulting from nephron loss.

106
Q

A common component of renal calculi is

A

calcium.

107
Q

One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is

A

ischemic conditions.

108
Q

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

A

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

109
Q

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is

A

pelvic tumor.

110
Q

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

A

Greater than 90% nephron loss

111
Q

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause

A

hematuria.

112
Q

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of

A

associated dermatomes.

113
Q

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

A

renal colic.

114
Q

A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be

A

uric acid crystals.

115
Q

Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes

A

erythropoietin administration.

116
Q

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

A

GFR declines.

117
Q

The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is

A

throat infection.

118
Q

A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because

A

albumin is excreted in the urine.

119
Q

Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes

A

fluid administration.