check your understanding week 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of

A

hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.

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2
Q

While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is

A

activity restriction.

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3
Q

Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from

A

decreased myoinositol transport.

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4
Q

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

A

tubular

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5
Q

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.

A

True

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6
Q

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is

A

bone pain.

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7
Q

The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI) is prevention.

A

True

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8
Q

The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is

A

intracranial hemorrhage.

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9
Q

The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)

A

elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.

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10
Q

It is true that Bell palsy is a

A

paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.

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11
Q

Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100?

A

Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118

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12
Q

The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is

A

digitalis.

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12
Q

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

A

ultrasonography.

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13
Q

Obstructive disorders are associated with

A

low expiratory flow rates.

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14
Q

The most common type of renal stone is

A

calcium.

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15
Q

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

A

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

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16
Q

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to

A

pulmonary stenosis.

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17
Q

Causes of hypomagnesemia include

A

chronic alcoholism.

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18
Q

The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called

A

glycogenolysis.

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19
Q

The major cause of death from leukemic disease is

A

infection.

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20
Q

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely

A

carcinoma.

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21
Q

Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.

A

gangrene

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22
Q

Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include

A

weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.

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23
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be

A

an autoimmune process.

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24
Q

It is true that biliary cancer

A

tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.

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25
Q

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of

A

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

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26
Q

A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is

A

increased serum creatinine.

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27
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases

A

water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.

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28
Q

Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?

A

Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

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29
Q

A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is

A

positive antinuclear antibodies.

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30
Q

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

A

extrinsic pathway.

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31
Q

Pain in fibromyalgia involves

A

changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

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32
Q

The formation of active vitamin D

A

is impaired in renal failure.

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32
Q

Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.

A

False

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33
Q

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

A

dry cough.

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34
Q

Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of

A

hematogenous transfer.

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35
Q

First-degree heart block is characterized by

A

prolonged PR interval.

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36
Q

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by

A

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

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37
Q

The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.

A

True

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38
Q

A patient presents to the physician’s office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.

A

4 and 7

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38
Q

Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.

A

gastric bypass

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39
Q

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

A

muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

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40
Q

Sepsis has been recently redefined as

A

a systemic inflammatory response to infection.

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41
Q

The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by

A

increased residual lung volumes.

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42
Q

Croup is characterized by

A

a barking cough.

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43
Q

Metaplasia is

A

the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

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44
Q

A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be

A

systemic manifestations of inflammation.

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45
Q

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for

A

endocrine disorders.

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46
Q

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

A

bone fractures.

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46
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is caused by

A

hyperventilation.

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47
Q

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with

A

nonketotic hyperosmolality.

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48
Q

Growth hormone-deficient infants would display

A

normal birth length and weight

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49
Q

Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it

A

inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.

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50
Q

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?

A

Septic

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51
Q

The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in

A

non-Hispanic black adults.

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52
Q

The arterial oxygen content (CaO2) for a patient with PaO2 100 mm Hg, SaO2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.

A

19.4

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53
Q

The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.

A

sodium

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54
Q

One of the most common causes of acute pain is

A

headache.

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55
Q

While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?

A

Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.

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56
Q

The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is

A

hyperkalemia.

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57
Q

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

A

Thrombocytopenia

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58
Q

A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as

A

goiter.

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59
Q

A patient who reports an intestinal fistula also reports feeling “weak and dizzy” when she stands. While taking her blood pressure she becomes temporarily unresponsive but quickly regains consciousness when put into a supine position. What nursing interventions will the nurse implement before calling the physician?

A

Give her water or juice and some salty crackers and ask if she has had any diarrhea or vomiting.

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60
Q

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

A

smoking.

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61
Q

A risk factor for osteoporosis is

A

early menopause.

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62
Q

Jaundice is a common manifestation of

A

liver disease.

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63
Q

The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of VIII.

A

True

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64
Q

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

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64
Q

In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is

A

urinary retention and reflux.

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65
Q

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

A

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

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66
Q

Steroids may be used in the management of acute exacerbation of symptoms in patients with multiple sclerosis, because

A

demyelination is mediated by immune mechanisms.

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67
Q

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

A

bursitis.

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68
Q

All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except

A

aldosterone.

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69
Q

The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is

A

cholecystectomy.

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70
Q

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is

A

an immune complex reaction.

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71
Q

A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?

A

Ventricular escape rhythm

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72
Q

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

A

prostatic enlargement.

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73
Q

Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with

A

hypothyroidism.

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74
Q

Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for

A

urge incontinence.

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75
Q

Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

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75
Q

The signs and symptoms of adrenocortical hormone excess may occur from either a primary or secondary disorder. A symptom associated with primary Cushing syndrome is

A

hyperglycemia.

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76
Q

The effects of histamine release include

A

increased vascular permeability.

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77
Q

The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in

A

a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.

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78
Q

Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to

A

decrease left ventricular afterload.

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79
Q

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)

A

elderly woman without a previous history of MI.

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80
Q

The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dL for adults with diabetes.

A

less than 180

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81
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to

A

autoimmune mechanisms.

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82
Q

The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.

A

False

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83
Q

The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient

A

has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics.

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84
Q

Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include

A

decreased urine output.

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85
Q

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

A

tumor necrosis factor.

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86
Q

The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will

A

decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.

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87
Q

Empyema is defined as an

A

infection in the pleural space.

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88
Q

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

A

an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

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89
Q

Which causes vasoconstriction?

A

Norepinephrine

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90
Q

Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both

A

microcytic.

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91
Q

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

A

interstitial cystitis.

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92
Q

The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is

A

polyarthritis.

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93
Q

When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic

A

True

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94
Q

The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed

A

nociception.

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95
Q

Surgical removal of a gland may result in

A

hyposecretion.

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96
Q

Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by

A

hypercalciuria.

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97
Q

What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?

A

Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HbA1c)

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98
Q

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.

A

migraine

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99
Q

Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

A

bilirubin.

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100
Q

Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is

A

deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.

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101
Q

The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including

A

deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.

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102
Q

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

A

leiomyomas.

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102
Q

A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

A

Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.

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103
Q

A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as

A

osteomalacia.

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104
Q

Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily because of

A

weak muscles of respiration.

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105
Q

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by

A

reduced cardiac output.

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106
Q

The direct cause of stress incontinence is

A

pelvic muscle weakness.

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107
Q

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

A

carcinomas.

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108
Q

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as

A

hyperemesis gravidarum.

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109
Q

The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is

A

Escherichia coli.

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110
Q

The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is

A

ischemic versus hemorrhagic cause.

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111
Q

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

A

measured to improve oxygenation.

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112
Q

Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by

A

decreased secretion of erythropoietin.

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113
Q

Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?

A

Absent breath sounds on the left

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114
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

A

Epstein–Barr virus.

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115
Q

What is likely to lead to hyponatremia?

A

Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water

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116
Q

Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?

A

128/82

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117
Q

Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

A

Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

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118
Q

The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

A

threshold

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119
Q

In general, with aging, organ size and function

A

decrease.

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120
Q

The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who

A

has had diarrhea for over a week.

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121
Q

________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.

A

Cytotoxic

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122
Q

The pain of nonarticular rheumatism (“growing pain”) is worse

A

during the night.

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123
Q

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

A

GFR declines.

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124
Q

It is true that Graves disease is

A

associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.

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125
Q

The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is

A

sepsis.

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126
Q

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

A

Osteomalacia

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127
Q

The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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128
Q

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

A

tender point pain.

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129
Q

Hypernatremia may be caused by

A

decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.

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130
Q

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of

A

associated dermatomes.

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131
Q

Systemic disorders include

A

rheumatoid arthritis.

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132
Q

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

A

recipient antibodies.

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133
Q

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of

A

estrogen deficiency.

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134
Q

A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a tracheal shift should be evaluated for

A

pneumothorax.

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135
Q

Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

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136
Q

A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.

A

latent

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137
Q

The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on

A

maintaining an airway.

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138
Q

Pain is thought of as

A

a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.

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139
Q

The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg, HCO3– = 24 mEq/L demonstrates

A

respiratory alkalosis.

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140
Q

A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop

A

respiratory alkalosis.

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141
Q

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is

A

hypoxemia.

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142
Q

Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with

A

inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods.

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143
Q

A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of

A

octreotide acetate.

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144
Q

What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client’s report of dysphagia?

A

Chest pain during meals

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145
Q

A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis.

A

False

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146
Q

In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of

A

respiratory alkalosis.

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147
Q

Clinical manifestations of Graves disease may include

A

tremor.

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147
Q

The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include

A

rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.

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148
Q

Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.

A

False

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149
Q

Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A

severe hypotension.

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150
Q

Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?

A

Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response

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151
Q

The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is

A

intracellular accumulations.

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152
Q

Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.

A

Candida albicans

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153
Q

A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is

A

brain herniation.

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154
Q

The person at highest risk for developing hypernatremia is a person who

A

receives tube feedings because he or she is comatose after a stroke.

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155
Q

A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is

A

tremors.

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156
Q

The most common site affected in Paget’s disease is the

A

lower spine.

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157
Q

The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is

A

bicarbonate.

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158
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome) results from

A

blocked cortisol production.

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159
Q

Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by

A

increasing fiber in the diet.

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160
Q

The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is

A

acute glomerulonephritis.

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161
Q

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.

A

III

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162
Q

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

A

Liver

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163
Q

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

A

metabolic acid deficit.

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164
Q

A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for

A

Helicobacter pylori.

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165
Q

Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with

A

bronchiectasis.

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166
Q

After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will

A

kill rapidly dividing cells.

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167
Q

More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with

A

alcoholism.

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168
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with

A

increased blood ammonia levels.

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169
Q

Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily as a result of

A

cellular fluid shifts.

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170
Q

The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) may be

A

sluggish pupil response to light.

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171
Q

Hypertension is closely linked to

A

obstructive sleep apnea.

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172
Q

Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is

A

development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.

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173
Q

A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.

A

acute

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174
Q

A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is

A

hypokalemia.

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175
Q

A ureterocele is

A

a cystic dilation of a ureter.

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176
Q

Emesis causes

A

metabolic alkalosis.

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177
Q

It is true that epidural bleeding is

A

characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.

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178
Q

What is necessary for red blood cell production?

A

Iron

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179
Q

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine.

A

protein

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180
Q

Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of

A

botulinum toxin.

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181
Q

Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with

A

IgE-mediated airway inflammation.

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182
Q

What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?

A

Inadequate water intake

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183
Q

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

A

osteosarcoma.

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184
Q

A disease that is native to a particular region is called

A

endemic.

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185
Q

Esophageal varices represent a complication of ________ hypertension.

A

portal

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186
Q

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

A

serum creatinine.

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187
Q

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

A

develop recurrent infections.

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188
Q

A patient who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is

A

being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids.

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189
Q

The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is

A

proteinuria.

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190
Q

Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of

A

Parkinson disease.

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190
Q

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

A

kidney.

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191
Q

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called

A

tophaceous gout.

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191
Q

Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

A

Jaundice

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192
Q

Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.

A

True

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192
Q

The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with

A

antibiotics.

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193
Q

Cryptorchidism is

A

associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.

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193
Q

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

A

iron deficiency.

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194
Q

The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?

A

The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.

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195
Q

Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include

A

hematuria.

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196
Q

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

A

Purpura

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197
Q

Asthma is categorized as a(n)

A

obstructive pulmonary disorder.

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198
Q

An increased urine bilirubin is associated with

A

hepatitis.

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199
Q

To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should

A

avoid sun exposure.

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200
Q

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

A

nitrites.

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201
Q

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

A

dysplasia.

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201
Q

Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to

A

fibromyalgia syndrome.

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202
Q

The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of

A

reentry mechanisms.

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203
Q

One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is

A

ischemic conditions.

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204
Q

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

A

noncontractile tissue injury.

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205
Q

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

A

radical mastectomy.

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206
Q

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes

A

early menarche and late first pregnancy.

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207
Q

The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by

A

absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.

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208
Q

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

A

contrast media.

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209
Q

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

A

fibrinolysis.

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210
Q

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

A

hypercalcemia.

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211
Q

What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?

A

Absence

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212
Q

How do clinical conditions that increase vascular permeability cause edema?

A

By allowing plasma proteins to leak into the interstitial fluid, which draws in excess fluid by increasing the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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213
Q

Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they

A

reduce cardiac output.

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214
Q

Treatment for hemophilia A includes

A

factor VIII replacement.

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215
Q

The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves

A

immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.

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216
Q

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of

A

the intrinsic pathway.

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217
Q

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is characterized by

A

lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.

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218
Q

The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the

A

DNA.

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219
Q

A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia. The expected diagnosis is

A

gastroesophageal varices.

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220
Q

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

A

epispadias.

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221
Q

Premature infants are at greater risk for developing

A

necrotizing enterocolitis.

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221
Q

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

A

HIV/AIDS

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222
Q

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?

A

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.

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223
Q

When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, “What causes my urine to be so full of protein,” the nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that

A

the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.

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224
Q

Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of

A

appendicitis.

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225
Q

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

A

mast cells.

226
Q

The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by

A

hypoventilation.

227
Q

The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

A

insufficient erythropoietin.

228
Q

Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?

A

Anticonvulsants

229
Q

A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

A

vitamin K deficiency.

230
Q

Reperfusion injury to cells

A

involves formation of free radicals.

231
Q

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause

A

hematuria.

232
Q

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the

A

cardinal ligaments.

233
Q

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

A

necrosis.

234
Q

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

A

Carbonic

235
Q

The characteristic x-ray findings in tuberculosis include

A

Ghon tubercles.

236
Q

A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

A

hemophilia.

237
Q

In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include

A

hematuria.

238
Q

The imbalance that occurs with oliguric renal failure is

A

hyperkalemia.

239
Q

To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke

A

impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.

239
Q

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

A

shift to the left.

239
Q

Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?

A

The vena cava

240
Q

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.

A

liquefactive

241
Q

The inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid is called _____ pressure.

A

capillary osmotic

242
Q

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

A

death.

243
Q

Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzyme activity and cellular production of ATP are associated with

A

hypophosphatemia.

244
Q

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of

A

hyperparathyroidism.

245
Q

Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to

A

blood or semen.

245
Q

What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?

A

Slower rate of action potential conduction

246
Q

Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?

A

Sodium

247
Q

A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with

A

meningitis.

248
Q

If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the blood pH is

A

in the normal range.

249
Q

Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except

A

decreased blood viscosity.

250
Q

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by

A

norepinephrine.

251
Q

In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with

A

high cardiac output.

252
Q

Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.

A

posterior

253
Q

A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is

A

“Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”

254
Q

The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is

A

P53.

255
Q

New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.

A

False

256
Q

Cystic fibrosis is associated with

A

bronchiectasis.

257
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

258
Q

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

A

hypertrophy.

259
Q

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to

A

rupture.

259
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called

A

pleural effusion.

260
Q

The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.

A

False

261
Q

One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is

A

hypertension.

262
Q

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

263
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

A

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

264
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by

A

absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

265
Q

Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome.

266
Q

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of

A

peripheral pooling of blood.

267
Q

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

A

air embolus.

268
Q

What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?

A

Hepatitis B

269
Q

Gouty arthritis is a complication of

A

inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.

270
Q

A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is

A

hyponatremia.

270
Q

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to

A

platelets.

271
Q

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.

A

False

272
Q

The hypersecretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of

A

recurrent infection.

273
Q

A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing

A

acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

274
Q

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience

A

fever.

275
Q

A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is

A

pheochromocytoma.

275
Q

A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing ________ shock.

A

obstructive

276
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is

A

calcium.

277
Q

An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is

A

histamine.

278
Q

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by

A

tissue thromboplastin.

279
Q

Respiratory acidosis is associated with

A

increased carbonic acid.

280
Q

The primary effect of aging on all body systems is

A

decreased functional reserve.

280
Q

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in

A

permanent damage and death.

281
Q

The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.

A

hemolysis

282
Q

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by

A

accumulation of alveolar exudates.

283
Q

A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal,’ the nurse responds

A

“Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow to the kidney.”

284
Q

Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed

A

generalized.

285
Q

In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on

A

stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.

286
Q

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

A

tertiary prevention.

287
Q

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of

A

release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.

288
Q

In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).

289
Q

A known cause of hypokalemia is

A

insulin overdose.

290
Q

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when

A

the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.

291
Q

Left-sided heart failure is characterized by

A

pulmonary congestion.

292
Q

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

A

Anaphylactic

293
Q

Pulse pressure is defined as

A

systolic pressure – diastolic pressure.

294
Q

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

A

Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)

295
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by

A

inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints.

296
Q

Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion can cause _____ concentration.

A

decreased serum sodium

297
Q

The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is

A

lack of surfactant.

298
Q

Peripheral edema is a result of

A

venous thrombosis.

299
Q

Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include

A

left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.

300
Q

All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by

A

resistance to airflow.

301
Q

Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.

A

increases capillary hydrostatic

302
Q

An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to

A

dehydration.

303
Q

Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include

A

headache.

304
Q

Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to

A

remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.

305
Q

Which alterations can lead to edema?

A

Decreased lymphatic flow

306
Q

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called

A

overflow incontinence.

307
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.

A

True

308
Q

Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for

A

sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.

309
Q

A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

310
Q

Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.

A

mortality

311
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a patient diagnosed with

A

Pickwickian syndrome.

312
Q

Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?

A

Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

313
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis include

A

tissue anoxia.

314
Q

The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is

A

energy and repair.

315
Q

Secondary injury after head trauma refers to

A

brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage.

315
Q

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

A

antiplatelet drugs.

316
Q

What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?

A

Blood and mucus in the stools

317
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by

A

hypokalemia.

318
Q

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have

A

a productive cough.

319
Q

Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

No change in serum glucocorticoid level

320
Q

A patient presenting with muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression, and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of

A

hypoparathyroidism.

321
Q

Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer disease to

A

decrease hydrochloric acid (HCl) secretion.

322
Q

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases

A

afterload.

323
Q

Most muscle strains are caused by

A

abnormal muscle contraction.

324
Q

Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which

A

focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.

325
Q

The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.

A

True

325
Q

The process responsible for distribution of fluid between the interstitial and intracellular compartments is

A

osmosis.

326
Q

Which change in a patient’s assessment has the greatest urgency?

A

Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing

327
Q

The finding of hypotension, rigid abdomen, and absent bowel sounds in a patient with pancreatitis

A

indicates peritonitis with substantial risk for sepsis and shock.

328
Q

It is true that growth hormone excess in adults

A

results in the condition of acromegaly.

329
Q

Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.

A

fat

330
Q

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

A

Septic

331
Q

An early indicator of colon cancer is

A

a change in bowel habits.

331
Q

It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for

A

intervention.

332
Q

Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of

A

gastric ulcer.

333
Q

“Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up,” asks the client. The nurse’s best response is

A

uric acid.

333
Q

What form of oral rehydration, bottled water or salty broth, is best suited for a patient who is demonstrating signs of clinical dehydration?

A

Salty soup, because it will provide some sodium to help hold the fluid in his blood vessels and interstitial fluid

334
Q

Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include

A

proteinuria.

335
Q

Paget’s disease is characterized by

A

excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.

336
Q

A patient with pancreatitis may experience muscle cramps secondary to

A

hypocalcemia.

337
Q

Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by

A

deficiency of ATP.

337
Q

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

A

air trapping.

337
Q

_________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.

A

Meningocele

338
Q

Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes

A

fluid administration.

338
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)

A

deficient immune response.

339
Q

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

A

Class II, Compensated Stage

340
Q

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

341
Q

When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of

A

IgE.

342
Q

The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of

A

apoptosis.

343
Q

The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via

A

sputum culture.

344
Q

Widespread atelectasis, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and diffuse, fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest radiograph are characteristic of

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome.

345
Q

Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.

A

secondary

346
Q

Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

347
Q

Normal bile is composed of

A

water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.

347
Q

A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of

A

Graves disease.

347
Q

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

A

have no cytoplasmic organelles.

348
Q

Cor pulmonale refers to

A

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

349
Q

A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is

A

overflow.

350
Q

Most gallstones are composed of

A

cholesterol.

351
Q

A patient with cold and edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock.

A

septic

352
Q

Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?

A

Edema

353
Q

A person who overuses magnesium-aluminum antacids for a long period of time is likely to develop

A

hypophosphatemia.

354
Q

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

A

nephralgia.

355
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

A

intrinsic factor.

356
Q

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of

A

hypertensive crisis.

356
Q

A biliary cause of acute pancreatitis is suggested by an elevation in which serum laboratory results?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

357
Q

A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is

A

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).

358
Q

If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience

A

polyuria and sodium wasting.

359
Q

Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of

A

immune injury to basement membranes.

359
Q

A common component of renal calculi is

A

calcium.

360
Q

The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.

A

True

361
Q

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

A

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

362
Q

It is true that encephalitis is usually

A

because of a viral infection in brain cells.

363
Q

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

A

Stage II

364
Q

A 3-year-old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?

A

Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain

365
Q

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

366
Q

The most common type of osteomyelitis is

A

hematogenous.

367
Q

Somatic death refers to death

A

of the entire organism.

368
Q

The most challenging aspect of treatment for chronic pancreatitis is

A

pain control.

369
Q

Viral pneumonia is characterized by

A

a dry cough.

370
Q

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

A

bilateral kidney stones.

371
Q

Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to

A

portal hypertension.

372
Q

Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells?

A

Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T

373
Q

Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?

A

Insulin

374
Q

A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with

A

telangiectasia.

375
Q

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

A

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

376
Q

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

A

subluxation.

377
Q

The effect of stress on the immune system

A

may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.

378
Q

An infusion of mannitol would be prescribed to treat

A

cerebral edema.

378
Q

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age

A

8.

379
Q

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

A

thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

379
Q

Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?

A

Absent peripheral pulses

380
Q

A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly

A

check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.

381
Q

A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of

A

bacterial pneumonia.

382
Q

What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

A

Pancytopenia

383
Q

A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is

A

noncompliance.

384
Q

Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected

A

enterocolitis.

385
Q

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

A

hematuria.

386
Q

Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?

A

ACE inhibitors

387
Q

Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?

A

Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

388
Q

Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?

A

Cyanosis

389
Q

Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing

A

acute tubular necrosis.

390
Q

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

A

Escherichia coli.

391
Q

After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of

A

right-sided heart failure.

392
Q

A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n) ________ diet.

A

low-protein and high-fiber

393
Q

The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.

A

steady and boring

394
Q

________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.

A

Obesity

395
Q

Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as

A

mixed acid-base imbalance.

396
Q

The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.

A

struvite

397
Q

Calcitonin is produced by thyroid parafollicular cells and increases bone formation by

A

osteoblasts.

398
Q

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

A

myasthenia gravis.

399
Q

It is true that gallstones are

A

more common in women.

400
Q

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

A

aspirin.

400
Q

A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of

A

primary prevention.

401
Q

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

A

Burkitt lymphoma.

402
Q

Aldosterone secretion is regulated by the presence of ________ in the circulation.

A

angiotensin II

403
Q

The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is

A

throat infection.

404
Q

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

A

secondary prevention.

405
Q

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.

A

HLA or MHC

406
Q

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

407
Q

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include

A

hyperlipidemia.

408
Q

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in

A

increased pH, increased HCO3–.

409
Q

It is true that scleroderma involves

A

inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.

409
Q

Parkinson disease is associated with

A

a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.

409
Q

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

A

intermittent claudication.

410
Q

The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?

A

Q = P/R

411
Q

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?

A

Mutant tumor-suppressor gene

412
Q

Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of

A

endorphins.

413
Q

A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.

A

False

414
Q

Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.

415
Q

The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves

A

regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.

416
Q

Endometriosis is a condition in which

A

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

417
Q

Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) includes

A

a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.

417
Q

The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension.

A

True

418
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to

A

cerebral vasospasm.

419
Q

A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is

A

dehydration.

420
Q

The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is

A

crescentic glomerulonephritis.

421
Q

A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to

A

hypotension.

422
Q

When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks, “Why is my chest so big and round?”, the nurse responds that

A

“Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round.”

423
Q

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

A

occurs at an earlier age.

424
Q

A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

A

elevated total iron-binding capacity.

425
Q

A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is

A

broken and protruding through the skin.

426
Q

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is

A

less than 100 mL.

427
Q

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of

A

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

428
Q

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with

A

recurrent cystitis.

429
Q

When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

A

decreases.

430
Q

How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone–related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?

A

Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness

431
Q

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

A

they are deficient in active vitamin D.

432
Q

Glomerular disorders include

A

nephrotic syndrome.

433
Q

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

A

Sexually active women

434
Q

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

A

hyperemia.

435
Q

The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is

A

infection by E. coli.

436
Q

Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells.

A

renin

437
Q

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

A

dysmenorrhea.

438
Q

Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of

A

testicular torsion.

439
Q

An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of

A

premature ventricular complexes.

440
Q

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

A

“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

441
Q

Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

442
Q

The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the

A

man who has chronic urinary tract infections.

442
Q

A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.

A

3

443
Q

A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is

A

serum potassium.

443
Q

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of

A

increased pulmonary vascular resistance.

444
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to

A

inhibit clotting factor consumption.

445
Q

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is

A

pelvic tumor.

445
Q

C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is

A

streptococcal infection.

446
Q

Coagulative necrosis is caused by

A

interrupted blood supply.

447
Q

Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by

A

inability to retract the foreskin.

448
Q

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

A

chemotherapy.

449
Q

Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.

A

mean arterial

450
Q

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

A

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

451
Q

The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by

A

tachycardia.

452
Q

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

A

respiratory

453
Q

A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, “Why is my urine the color of coffee?”, the nurse responds

A

“Your immune system was activated by your sore throat and has caused some damage in your kidneys that allows red blood cells to leak into the fluid that becomes urine and make it coffee-colored.”

454
Q

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include

A

acute hypertension.

455
Q

The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have

A

metabolic acidosis.

456
Q

Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in

A

systemic vascular resistance.

457
Q

Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.

A

True

458
Q

Tophi are

A

deposits of urate crystals in tissues.

459
Q

Diabetes insipidus is a condition that

A

results from inadequate ADH secretion.

460
Q

A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is

A

increased urinary protein.

461
Q

The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is

A

blood pressure control.

462
Q

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?

A

Cystocele

463
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis causes

A

intervertebral joint fusion.

464
Q

Absence of menstruation is called

A

amenorrhea.

465
Q

An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of

A

secondary prevention.

466
Q

A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by

A

decreased residual volume.

467
Q

A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of

A

mitral regurgitation.

468
Q

What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?

A

Infants

468
Q

Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.

A

False

469
Q

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because

A

massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

470
Q

It is true that polycystic kidney disease is

A

genetically transmitted.

471
Q

Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?

A

Myeloma

472
Q

Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.

A

True

472
Q

Which symptom suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?

A

Heartburn

473
Q

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is

A

stable angina.

474
Q

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

A

diastolic murmur.

475
Q

After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor

A

is malignant.

476
Q

Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.

A

seventh

477
Q

The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are

A

degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.

478
Q

Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are

A

genetically transmitted.

479
Q

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

A

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.

480
Q

What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?

A

Vasoconstriction

481
Q

Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include

A

bounding pulse.

482
Q

When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis, the nurse will

A

put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.

483
Q

The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is

A

ST-segment elevation.

484
Q

The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL). As part of treatment, the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is

A

infection.

485
Q

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs

A

platelet adhesion to injured tissue.

486
Q

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.

A

Papanicolaou

487
Q

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at

A

decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.

488
Q

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by

A

pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3– 36.

489
Q

A patient with flail chest will demonstrate

A

outward chest movement on expiration.

490
Q

The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is

A

oliguria.

490
Q

An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by

A

positioning the arm above the heart level.

491
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves

A

impaired muscle function.

491
Q

A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

492
Q

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

A

pessary.

493
Q

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

A

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

493
Q

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

A

allostasis.

494
Q

After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is

A

associated with specific allergic triggers.

495
Q

The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is

A

adhesions.

496
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by

A

autoimmune injury.

496
Q

The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in

A

a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.

496
Q

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause

A

bladder contraction.

497
Q

It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones

A

is inhibited by iodine deficiency.

497
Q

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

A

pulmonary embolus.

498
Q

What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?

A

Tachycardia

499
Q

Constrictive pericarditis is associated with

A

impaired cardiac filling.

499
Q

When a parent of a toddler recently diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia asks why their child is so much sicker than a classmate was when they were diagnosed with pneumonia, the nurse replies

A

“It sounds like your child has a case of bacterial pneumonia, while the classmate had viral pneumonia.”

499
Q

Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes

A

erythropoietin administration.

500
Q

Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with

A

bloody diarrhea.

501
Q

The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as

A

subclinical.

502
Q

Cancer grading is based on

A

cell differentiation.

503
Q

A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse. Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?

A

pH in high part of normal range, PaO2 normal, PaCO2 high, bicarbonate high

504
Q

Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?

A

The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.

505
Q

Total body water in older adults is

A

decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.

506
Q

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing

A

vitamin K deficiency bleeding.

507
Q

After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

A

Continue lifestyle modifications only.

507
Q

Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include

A

confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.

507
Q

The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of

A

resistance.

508
Q

Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?

A

Class I

508
Q

Enteropathic arthritis is associated with

A

inflammatory bowel disease.

509
Q

An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with

A

hypokalemia.

510
Q

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

A

may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

511
Q

Diarrhea causes

A

metabolic acidosis.

512
Q

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.

A

Prinzmetal variant

513
Q

Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?

A

Edema

514
Q

What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

A

Resistance increases by a factor of 16.

514
Q

In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?

A

Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute

515
Q

The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.

A

9

516
Q

The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is

A

pain.

517
Q

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

A

soft-tissue damage.

518
Q

Bone healing may be impaired by

A

nicotine use.

519
Q

The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is

A

erythropoietin administration.

520
Q

Hyperaldosteronism causes

A

ECV excess and hypokalemia.

521
Q

Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism

A

result from decreased serum ionized calcium.

522
Q

________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.

A

Wilson

523
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by

A

hypertension and bradycardia.

524
Q

Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ________ shock.

A

cardiogenic

525
Q

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

A

True

526
Q

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except

A

pupil constriction.

527
Q

What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?

A

Bloody stools

528
Q

Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of

A

alcohol-induced injury.

529
Q

A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because

A

albumin is excreted in the urine.

530
Q

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

A

Status asthmaticus

531
Q

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

A

inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

532
Q

Allostasis is best defined as

A

the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.

533
Q

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called

A

malunion.

534
Q

Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt

A

within the same dermatome.

535
Q

The effects of excessive cortisol production include

A

immune suppression.

536
Q

Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they

A

increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.

537
Q

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

A

renal colic.

538
Q

What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?

A

Elevated ferritin

539
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

A

bcr-abl.

540
Q

The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is

A

vasodilation.

541
Q

The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is

A

hydronephrosis.