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Nursing School WCU > Fundamentals Terms to Know > Flashcards

Fundamentals Terms to Know Flashcards

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1
Q

_________ is a measurement of the amount of pressure exerted by the blood within the circulatory system.

A

Blood pressure

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2
Q

____________ pressure is the maximum amount of pressure exerted when the heart contracts and forces blood into the aorta; this phase of the heart’s pumping is called __________.

A

Systolic blood, systole

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3
Q

_________ pressure is the minimum amount of pressure exerted when the heart is relaxed—that is, during _______.

A

Diastolic blood, diastole

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4
Q

The volume of blood ejected by the heart ventricles in one minute; calculated by multiplying the stroke volume and pulse rate of the heart.

A

Cardiac output (CO)

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5
Q

Volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle during one contraction

A

Stroke volume (SV)

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6
Q

The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscle is relaxed and the chambers of the heart fill with blood.

A

diastole

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7
Q

The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. During this phase blood is driven into the aorta and pulmonary arteries.

A

systole

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8
Q

A measurement of the force circulating blood exerts on the interior walls of blood vessels.

A

Blood pressure

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9
Q

The resistance of a liquid to flow.

A

viscosity

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10
Q

________ refers to the thickness of the blood

A

Blood viscosity

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11
Q

The total resistance to flow of blood in the vascular bed.

A

Peripheral vascular resistance

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12
Q

The force required to eject blood from the left ventricle.

A

Contractility

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13
Q

The blood remaining in the left ventricle at the end of diastole causing it to stretch.

A

Preload

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14
Q

_________ refers to the amount of blood inside the ventricles before they contract.

A

Preload

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15
Q

__________ is the amount of resistance, or constriction, that the heart must overcome to eject the blood into the systemic circulation.

A

Afterload

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16
Q

________ is a blood pressure that is above the expected reference range.

A

Hypertension

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17
Q

A blood pressure that is below the expected reference range as determined by a client’s usual baseline measurement is known as _______.

A

hypotension

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18
Q

________ is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a client rises to a sitting or standing position

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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19
Q

The _______ is the rhythmic dilation of the arteries and pulsation of blood flow that occurs with each contraction of the left ventricle​​​​​​​.

A

pulse

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20
Q

Heart rate above the expected reference range.

A

tachycardia.

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21
Q

A heart rate that is less than the expected reference range.

A

bradycardia.

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22
Q

The heart rate that is heard or felt at the apex of the heart, which is located medially to the midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space.

A

apical pulse

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23
Q

Beating or throbbing palpated over the temporal artery located on the temple.

A

temporal pulse

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24
Q

Beating or throbbing felt over the brachial artery, usually palpated in the antecubital space; it is used to assess the quality of perfusion.

A

brachial pulse

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25
Q

Beating of throbbing felt over the radial artery, usually palpated over the groove along the thumb side of the inner wrist.

A

radial pulse

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26
Q

Beating or throbbing palpated over the femoral artery, located in the groin on either side of the genitals; it is used to assess the quality of perfusion.

A

femoral pulse

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27
Q

Beating of throbbing palpated over the popliteal artery located behind the knee; it is used to assess the quality of perfusion.

A

popliteal pulse

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28
Q

Beating or throbbing palpated or heard with a doppler over the dorsalis pedis artery located on the dorsal side of the foot; it is used to assess quality of perfusion.

A

dorsalis pedis pulse

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29
Q

Beating or throbbing palpated or heard with a doppler over the posterior tibial artery, located on the medial side of the ankle; it is used to assess the quality of perfusion.

A

posterior tibial pulse

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30
Q

A difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. This difference indicates a decrease in ventricular contraction or peripheral perfusion.

A

pulse deficit

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31
Q

Another aberration in body temperature is _________, which is an increase in temperature due to the body’s inability to stop heat production or to stimulate heat loss.

A

hyperthermia

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32
Q

________ is the measurement of the balance of heat produced by the body and the heat lost to the environment; it is measured in degrees.

A

Body temperature

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33
Q

_______ is a decrease in core body temperature due to extended exposure to cold or the inability of the body to produce heat.

A

Hypothermia

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34
Q

A ________ is a type of electronic thermometer that measures the amount of heat radiating from the tympanic membrane.

A

tympanic thermometer

35
Q

A _________ is another type of electronic thermometer. This handheld device contains an infrared sensor tip that measures the temperature of blood flow through the temporal artery.

A

temporal thermometer

36
Q

When measuring an ________ ______, the nurse should first apply a disposable cover on the temperature probe.

A

oral temperature

37
Q

Body temperature obtained in the axilla with arm held to side of body.

A

axillary temperature

38
Q

Body temperature obtained via the rectum, or anus.

A

rectal temperature

39
Q

Body temperature obtained via the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A

tympanic temperature

40
Q

Body temperature obtained via a temporal artery scan thermometer.

A

temporal temperature

41
Q

Respiratory rate and rhythm that are within the expected reference range.

A

eupnea.

42
Q

Respiratory rate greater than expected range.

A

Tachypnea

43
Q

Respiratory rate less than expected range.

A

Bradypnea

44
Q

Absence of spontaneous respirations.

A

apnea

45
Q

Breathing pattern of cycles that begin with rapid, shallow breaths, increase to deep breaths, ending with periods of apnea.

A

Cheyne-Stokes

46
Q

Deep, rapid respirations.

A

Kussmaul respirations

47
Q

The percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen.

A

oxygen saturation

48
Q

A noninvasive device used to measure oxygen saturation.

A

pulse oximeter

49
Q

The sensation of difficult or labored breathing.

A

dyspnea

50
Q

How bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, and prions move from place to place. These are contact, droplet, and airborne.

A

chain of infection

51
Q

Below normal level of oxygen in body tissue.

A

hypoxia

52
Q

Something that contains bacteria, fungi, virus, parasite, prion.

A

infectious agent

53
Q

Is the habitat of the infectious agent, a location where it can live, grow, and reproduce itself or replicate.

A

reservoir

54
Q

Means by which the infectious agent can leave the reservoir.

A

portal of exit

55
Q

How bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, and prions move from place to place. These are contact, droplet, and airborne.

A

modes of transmission

56
Q

Any body orifice–for example, ears, nose, mouth, or skin–that provides a place for an infectious agent to replicate or for a toxin to act.

A

portal of entry

57
Q

Required for the infectious agent to take hold and become a reservoir for infection. Not everyone who is exposed to an infectious agent will get ill. Some people never exhibit manifestations at all but can become colonized (temporarily or permanently) with the infectious agent.

A

susceptible host

58
Q

virulent
Term to describe how efficient an infectious agent is at making people ill.

A

virulent

59
Q

Factors That Increase Host Susceptibility

A

Age
Underlying diseaseHIV/AIDS
Malignancy
Transplants
Medications: immunosuppressants, antirejection medications, antineoplastics, antimicrobials, corticosteroids, gastric suppressants (e.g., proton pump inhibitors)
Surgical procedures
Radiation therapy
Indwelling devices: endotracheal tubes, urinary catheters, central venous catheters, arterial catheters, and implants such as pacemakers and artificial joints

60
Q

Occurs when micro-organisms are directly moved from an infected person to another person, rather than through a contaminated object or person.

A

direct contact transmission

61
Q

Occurs when droplets from the respiratory tract of a client travel through the air and into the mucosa of a host (ex. nurse, other client, healthcare worker).

A

droplet transmission

62
Q

Occurs when microorganisms are directly moved from the infected person to another person with having a contaminated object or person between these two.

A

indirect contact transmission

63
Q

Specially designed equipment that is meant to protect the health care worker from contamination, blood, or body fluids. This equipment may include masks, eye protection, gown, gloves, and hair caps. Equipment that should be put on (donned) prior to client interactions to prevent the spread of infectious organisms; can include gloves, gowns, masks, eye and face protection, and shoe covers.

A

personal protective equipment (PPE)

64
Q

Occurs when small particulates move into the airspace of another person.

A

airborne transmission

65
Q

Transmission of infectious agents to various individuals through a common source, such as contaminated food or water.

A

vehicle transmission

66
Q

Transmission of infectious agents through animals, such as an insect or rodent.

A

vector-borne transmission

67
Q

Comprised of neutrophils and macrophages and their work as phagocytes.

A

Nonspecific immunity

68
Q

Eat and destroy micro-organisms, thereby helping to protect the body from harm.

A

Phagocytes

69
Q

The work of antibodies (also called immunoglobulins) and lymphocytes.

A

Specific immunity

70
Q

Natural defense of the body when injured, when foreign substances are present or when infectious agents attack.

A

inflammatory response

70
Q

The basic steps of inflammation are:

A

Recognition of harmful stimuli by pattern receptors (located on the surface of cells)
Activation of the inflammatory pathway
Release of inflammatory markers
Recruitment of inflammatory cells

71
Q

Stage of infection when client begins having initial manifestations as the infectious agent replicates.

A

prodromal

71
Q

First stage of infection in which the client may not feel ill or have visible manifestations, however there may be lab values that are changes or changes in diagnostic tests such as x-rays or CT scans.

A

incubation

72
Q

Third stage of infection where manifestations of a specific infectious disease process are obvious. This is also the stage where it is severe.

A

acute illness,

73
Q

Fourth stage of infection when manifestations begin to wane as the number of infectious disease decreases.

A

period of decline

74
Q

Fifth and last stage of infection when client returns to a normal or a new normal state of health.

A

period of convalescence

75
Q

Are confined to one area of the body.

A

Local infections

76
Q

Start as local infections and then transmit into the bloodstream to infect the entire body system.

A

Systemic infections

77
Q

Washing your hands with antibacterial soap and water, using alcohol-based gel or foam, or surgical scrub.

A

Hand hygiene

78
Q

Clean technique practices that the reduce the presence of disease-causing micro-organisms on surfaces.

A

Medical asepsis

79
Q

Includes techniques that ensures the sterility of items that will come in contact with the client, through use of equipment such as sterile gloves, in order to prevent pathogen transfer to the client.

A

surgical asepsis

80
Q

Cleaning instruments so that all micro-organisms, including bacterial spores are eradicated.

A

Sterilization

81
Q

Created to assure that the smallest number of microorganisms possible are present; used for procedures where surgical asepsis is indicated.

A

Sterile fields

82
Q
A

Nursing School WCU (36 decks)

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