check your understanding week 7 for week 8

Question 1

Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of

Answer 1

immune injury to basement membranes.

Question 2

What type of fracture generally occurs in children?

Answer 2

Greenstick

Question 3

Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be

Answer 3

an autoimmune process.

Question 4

The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as

Answer 4

Paget disease.

Question 5

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

Answer 5

tender point pain.

Question 6

A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is

Answer 6

positive antinuclear antibodies.

Question 7

Gouty arthritis is a complication of

Answer 7

inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.

Question 8

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to

Answer 8

autoimmune mechanisms.

Question 9

Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to

Answer 9

fibromyalgia syndrome.

Question 10

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

Answer 10

soft-tissue damage.

Question 11

It is true that scleroderma involves

Answer 11

inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.

Question 12

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called

Answer 12

tophaceous gout.

Question 13

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which

Answer 13

acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.

Question 14

Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is

Answer 14

development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.

Question 15

In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with

Answer 15

systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.

Question 16

A risk factor for osteoporosis is

Answer 16

early menopause.

Question 17

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

Answer 17

myasthenia gravis.

Question 17

Ankylosing spondylitis causes

Answer 17

intervertebral joint fusion.

Question 18

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to

Answer 18

initiate action to have the cast split or removed.

Question 19

Most muscle strains are caused by

Answer 19

abnormal muscle contraction.

Question 20

Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?

Answer 20

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 21

A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is

Answer 21

brain herniation.

Question 22

It is true that encephalitis is usually

Answer 22

because of a viral infection in brain cells.

Question 23

It is true that Bell palsy is a

Answer 23

paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.

Question 24

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of

Answer 24

estrogen deficiency.

Question 25

Steroids may be used in the management of acute exacerbation of symptoms in patients with multiple sclerosis, because

Answer 25

demyelination is mediated by immune mechanisms.

Question 26

Intracranial pressure normally ranges from ______ mm Hg.

Answer 26

0 to 15

Question 27

Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.

Answer 27

posterior

Question 28

The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is

Answer 28

blood pressure control.

Question 29

An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be

Answer 29

hypoventilation.

Question 30

Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt

Answer 30

within the same dermatome.

Question 31

A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is

Answer 31

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).

Question 32

________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.

Answer 32

Nystagmus

Question 33

Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?

Answer 33

Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response

Question 34

The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed

Answer 34

nociception.

Question 35

Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of

Answer 35

endorphins.

Question 36

The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by

Answer 36

absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.

Question 37

In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on

Answer 37

stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.

Question 38

The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will

Answer 38

decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.

Question 39

The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is

Answer 39

ischemic versus hemorrhagic cause.

Question 40

The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are

Answer 40

degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.

Question 40

The earliest manifestation of scleroderma is

Answer 40

Raynaud phenomenon.

Question 40

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

Answer 40

“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

Question 40

Bone healing may be impaired by

Answer 40

nicotine use.

Question 40

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

Answer 40

Osteomalacia

Question 40

One of the most common causes of acute pain is

Answer 40

headache.

Question 40

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called

Answer 40

malunion.

Question 40

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

Answer 40

bone fractures.

Question 41

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is

Answer 41

bone pain.

Question 41

Paget’s disease is characterized by

Answer 41

excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.

Question 42

The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves

Answer 42

immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.

Question 42

Enteropathic arthritis is associated with

Answer 42

inflammatory bowel disease.

Question 43

Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by

Answer 43

autoimmune injury.

Question 43

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.

Answer 43

migraine

Question 44

Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of

Answer 44

hematogenous transfer.

Question 44

Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of

Answer 44

Parkinson disease.

Question 45

Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they

Answer 45

increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.

Question 46

What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?

Answer 46

Slower rate of action potential conduction

Question 47

A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with

Answer 47

meningitis.

Question 48

The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include

Answer 48

rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.

Question 49

Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed

Answer 49

generalized.

Question 50

Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of

Answer 50

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Question 51

Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by

Answer 51

hypertension and bradycardia.

Question 52

It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of

Answer 52

neural tube defects.

Question 53

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when

Answer 53

the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.

Question 54

The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on

Answer 54

maintaining an airway.

Question 54

Parkinson disease is associated with

Answer 54

a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.

Question 55

Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?

Answer 55

Anticonvulsants

Question 56

Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?

Answer 56

The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.

Question 57

Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of

Answer 57

Guillain-Barré syndrome.

Question 58

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

Answer 58

inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

Question 59

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for

Answer 59

delayed healing.

Question 60

The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is

Answer 60

rickets.

Question 61

A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is

Answer 61

broken and protruding through the skin.

Question 62

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age

Answer 62

8.

Question 63

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

Answer 63

air embolus.

Question 64

“Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up,” asks the client. The nurse’s best response is

Answer 64

uric acid.

Question 65

The most common site affected in Paget’s disease is the

Answer 65

lower spine.

Question 65

The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is

Answer 65

polyarthritis.

Question 66

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

Answer 66

subluxation.

Question 66

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as

Answer 66

comminuted.

Question 67

Secondary injury after head trauma refers to

Answer 67

brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage.

Question 68

Systemic disorders include

Answer 68

rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 69

Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are

Answer 69

genetically transmitted.

Question 70

The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) may be

Answer 70

sluggish pupil response to light.

Question 70

The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is

Answer 70

intracranial hemorrhage.

Question 71

Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which

Answer 71

focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.

Question 72

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include

Answer 72

acute hypertension.

Question 73

The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that

Answer 73

the lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia.

Question 74

The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including

Answer 74

deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.

Question 75

Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with

Answer 75

basilar skull fracture.

Question 76

Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports

Answer 76

sudden, severe headache.

Question 77

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

Answer 77

noncontractile tissue injury.

Question 78

The most common type of osteomyelitis is

Answer 78

hematogenous.

Question 79

A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be

Answer 79

systemic manifestations of inflammation.

Question 80

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

Answer 80

an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

Question 81

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

Answer 81

bursitis.

Question 82

The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.

Answer 82

threshold

Question 83

Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex) are due primarily to

Answer 83

sympathetic nervous system activation.

Question 84

________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.

Answer 84

Cytotoxic

Question 85

It is true that encephalitis is usually

Answer 85

because of a viral infection in brain cells.

Question 86

It is true that epidural bleeding is

Answer 86

characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.

Question 87

Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.

Answer 87

posterior

Question 88

A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of

Answer 88

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Question 89

To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should

Answer 89

avoid sun exposure.

Question 90

Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include

Answer 90

left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.

Question 91

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to

Answer 91

cerebral vasospasm.

Question 92

Before making a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease

Answer 92

other potential causes of dementia must be ruled out

Question 93

Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by

Answer 93

unmyelinated C fibers.