Patho midterm review Flashcards

1
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

A

intrinsic factor.

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2
Q

Treatment for hemophilia A includes

A

factor VIII replacement.

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3
Q

A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is

A

“Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”

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4
Q

To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke

A

impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.

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5
Q

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

A

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

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6
Q

New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.

A

False

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7
Q

Which change in a patient’s assessment has the greatest urgency?

A

Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing

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8
Q

Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in

A

systemic vascular resistance.

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9
Q

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

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10
Q

Mitral stenosis is associated with

A

a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.

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11
Q

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

A

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

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12
Q

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

A

hypertrophy.

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13
Q

A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience

A

numbness and tingling in the extremities.

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14
Q

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

A

necrosis.

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15
Q

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

A

air trapping.

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16
Q

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

A

hyperemia.

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17
Q

A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is

A

noncompliance

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18
Q

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except

A

allostasis.

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19
Q

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

A

intermittent claudication.

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20
Q

The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have

A

metabolic acidosis.

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21
Q

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

A

IgE

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22
Q

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because

A

massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

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23
Q

What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?

A

Inadequate water intake

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24
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to

A

inhibit clotting factor consumption.

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25
Q

Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

A

Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

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26
Q

Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries

A

have the largest total cross-sectional area.

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27
Q

The arterial oxygen content (CaO2) for a patient with PaO2 100 mm Hg, SaO2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.

A

19.4

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28
Q

After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will

A

kill rapidly dividing cells.

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29
Q

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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30
Q

Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except

A

decreased blood viscosity.

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31
Q

The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to

A

prevent further clot formation.

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32
Q

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

A

Thrombocytopenia

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33
Q

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases

A

afterload.

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34
Q

Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes.

A

True

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35
Q

A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis.

A

False

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36
Q

The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with

A

antibiotics.

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37
Q

A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) disease is

A

immunosuppression.

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38
Q

Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?

A

Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

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39
Q

Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as

A

mixed acid-base imbalance.

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40
Q

What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

A

Resistance increases by a factor of 16.

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41
Q

A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is

A

myeloma.

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42
Q

The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.

A

True

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43
Q

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

A

ventricular septal defect.

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44
Q

Coagulative necrosis is caused by

A

interrupted blood supply.

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45
Q

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

A

Carbonic

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46
Q

The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via

A

sputum culture.

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47
Q

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

A

develop recurrent infections.

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48
Q

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?

A

Septic

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49
Q

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

A

HIV/AIDS

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50
Q

A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience

A

syncope

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51
Q

The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is

A

bicarbonate.

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52
Q

An elderly patient’s blood pressure is measured at 160/98. How would the patient’s left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?

A

Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.

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53
Q

Left-sided heart failure is characterized by

A

pulmonary congestion.

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54
Q

Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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55
Q

Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?

A

Sodium

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56
Q

Reperfusion injury to cells

A

involves formation of free radicals.

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57
Q

The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is

A

ST-segment elevation.

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58
Q

Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of

A

baroreceptor activity.

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59
Q

Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of

A

hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.

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60
Q

The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is

A

selective IgA.

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61
Q

How do clinical conditions that increase vascular permeability cause edema?

A

By allowing plasma proteins to leak into the interstitial fluid, which draws in excess fluid by increasing the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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62
Q

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

A

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.

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63
Q

Total body water in older adults is

A

decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.

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64
Q

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of

A

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

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65
Q

A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

A

vitamin K deficiency.

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66
Q

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

A

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

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67
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)

A

deficient immune response.

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68
Q

The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is

A

lack of surfactant.

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69
Q

Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include

A

confusion.

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70
Q

A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is

A

serum potassium.

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71
Q

The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is

A

reduced cardiac output.

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72
Q

A 3-year-old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?

A

Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain

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73
Q

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.

A

liquefactive

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74
Q

After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of

A

right-sided heart failure.

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75
Q

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?

A

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.

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76
Q

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to

A

rupture.

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77
Q

A patient with cold and edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock.

A

septic

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78
Q

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

A

respiratory

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79
Q

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by

A

norepinephrine.

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80
Q

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

A

Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)

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81
Q

In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with

A

reduced contractility.

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82
Q

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

A

fibrinolysis.

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83
Q

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

A

pulmonary embolus.

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84
Q

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

A

Status asthmaticus

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85
Q

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

A

antiplatelet drugs.

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86
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

A

bcr-abl.

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87
Q

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

A

measured to improve oxygenation.

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88
Q

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?

A

Mutant tumor-suppressor gene

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89
Q

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

A

Septic

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90
Q

Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

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91
Q

The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.

A

True

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92
Q

The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.

A

True

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93
Q

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

A

thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

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94
Q

Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily because of

A

weak muscles of respiration.

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95
Q

What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?

A

Tachycardia

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96
Q

Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.

A

True

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97
Q

After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is

A

associated with specific allergic triggers.

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98
Q

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by
Correct!

A

pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3– 36.

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99
Q

Legionnaires disease is characterized by

A

presence of systemic illness.

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100
Q

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

A

death.

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101
Q

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

A

Anaphylactic

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102
Q

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.

A

False

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103
Q

Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.

A

mean arterial

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104
Q

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of

A

hypertensive crisis.

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105
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

A

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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106
Q

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

A

increased neuromuscular excitability.

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107
Q

The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via

A

sputum culture.

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108
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to

A

inhibit clotting factor consumption.

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109
Q

After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor

A

is malignant.

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110
Q

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

A

hyperemia.

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111
Q

Diarrhea causes

A

metabolic acidosis.

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112
Q

Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except

A

decreased blood viscosity.

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113
Q

The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?

A

The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.

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114
Q

A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.

A

False

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115
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.

A

True

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116
Q

Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?

A

Cyanosis

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117
Q

What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

A

Pancytopenia

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118
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

A

intrinsic factor.

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119
Q

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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120
Q

A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

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121
Q

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

A

carcinomas.

122
Q

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

A

occurs at an earlier age.

123
Q

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.

A

liquefactive

124
Q

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

125
Q

A 3-year-old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?

A

Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain

126
Q

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

A

dry cough.

127
Q

Total body water in older adults is

A

decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.

128
Q

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

A

necrosis.

129
Q

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

A

diastolic murmur.

130
Q

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.

A

Prinzmetal variant

131
Q

Your patient eats “lots of fat,” leads a “stressful” life, and has smoked “about two packs a day for the last 40 years.” Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is

A

cigarette smoking.

132
Q

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

A

dysplasia.

133
Q

A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) disease is

A

immunosuppression.

134
Q

A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

A

Bence Jones proteins in the urine.

135
Q

Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by

A

pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3– 36.

136
Q

Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by

A

elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.

137
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is

A

calcium.

138
Q

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

A

iron deficiency.

139
Q

When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse’s best response is

A

“If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated.”

140
Q

Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

A

bilirubin.

141
Q

An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with

A

hypokalemia.

142
Q

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in

A

increased pH, increased HCO3–.

143
Q

While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?

A

Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.

144
Q

A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

A

hemophilia.

145
Q

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

A

intermittent claudication.

146
Q

Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.

A

False

147
Q

The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in

A

non-Hispanic black adults.

148
Q

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of

A

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).

149
Q

An elderly patient’s blood pressure is measured at 160/98. How would the patient’s left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?

A

Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.

150
Q

Which causes vasoconstriction?

A

Norepinephrine

151
Q

Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

152
Q

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because

A

massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

153
Q

Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells?

A

Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T

154
Q

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is

A

stable angina.

155
Q

A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?

A

Ventricular escape rhythm

156
Q

The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the

A

DNA.

157
Q

A known cause of hypokalemia is

A

insulin overdose.

158
Q

In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).

159
Q

The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by

A

increased residual lung volumes.

160
Q

Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include

A

decreased urine output.

161
Q

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?

A

Mutant tumor-suppressor gene

162
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called

A

pleural effusion.

163
Q

The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by

A

tachycardia.

164
Q

What form of oral rehydration, bottled water or salty broth, is best suited for a patient who is demonstrating signs of clinical dehydration?

A

Salty soup, because it will provide some sodium to help hold the fluid in his blood vessels and interstitial fluid

165
Q

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

A

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

166
Q

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

A

HIV/AIDS

167
Q

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.

A

III

168
Q

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

A

Carbonic

169
Q

A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of

A

primary prevention.

170
Q

Empyema is defined as an

A

infection in the pleural space.

171
Q

Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of

A

glucose.

172
Q

Asthma is categorized as a(n)

A

obstructive pulmonary disorder.

173
Q

A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

A

Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.

174
Q

After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is

A

associated with specific allergic triggers.

175
Q

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

A

secondary prevention.

176
Q

Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with

A

bronchiectasis.

177
Q

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

A

aspirin.

178
Q

A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct?

A

“Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate.”

179
Q

Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?

A

Crystalloids

180
Q

Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.

A

secondary

181
Q

The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is

A

bicarbonate.

182
Q

Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries

A

have the largest total cross-sectional area.

183
Q

Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?

A

Edema

184
Q

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

A

respiratory

185
Q

Somatic death refers to death

A

of the entire organism.

186
Q

Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in

A

systemic vascular resistance.

187
Q

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

A

Purpura

188
Q

Which alterations can lead to edema?

A

Decreased lymphatic flow

189
Q

The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of VIII.

A

True

190
Q

Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.

A

True

191
Q

The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have

A

metabolic acidosis.

192
Q

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

A

kidney.

193
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

194
Q

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is characterized by

A

lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.

195
Q

Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?

A

Sodium

196
Q

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

197
Q

Myocarditis should be suspected in a patient who presents with

A

acute onset of left ventricular dysfunction.

198
Q

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

A

fibrinolysis.

199
Q

Reperfusion injury to cells

A

involves formation of free radicals.

200
Q

In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?

A

Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute

201
Q

After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is

A

associated with specific allergic triggers.

202
Q

A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of

A

mitral regurgitation.

203
Q

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

A

secondary prevention.

204
Q

A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing

A

acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

205
Q

What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?

A

Vasoconstriction

206
Q

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)

A

elderly woman without a previous history of MI.

207
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

A

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

208
Q

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

A

Thrombocytopenia

209
Q

When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic

A

True

210
Q

The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is

A

vasodilation.

211
Q

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing

A

vitamin K deficiency bleeding.

212
Q

A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit

A

pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.

213
Q

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

A

HIV/AIDS

214
Q

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

A

develop recurrent infections.

215
Q

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

A

antiplatelet drugs.

216
Q

The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of

A

the intrinsic pathway.

217
Q

Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of

A

nitric oxide.

218
Q

Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.

A

True

219
Q

Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

220
Q

Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100?

A

Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118

221
Q

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

A

fibrinolysis.

222
Q

The effects of excessive cortisol production include

A

immune suppression.

223
Q

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include

A

hyperlipidemia.

224
Q

Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is

A

deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.

225
Q

What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

A

Pancytopenia

226
Q

Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.

A

True

227
Q

The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to

A

prevent further clot formation.

228
Q

Which causes vasoconstriction?

A

Norepinephrine

229
Q

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

A

hypertrophy.

230
Q

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

A

Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)

231
Q

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

A

air trapping.

232
Q

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

A

tertiary prevention.

233
Q

The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is

A

selective IgA.

234
Q

Somatic death refers to death

A

of the entire organism.

235
Q

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of

A

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

236
Q

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

A

Burkitt lymphoma.

237
Q

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.

A

III

238
Q

Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

A

Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

239
Q

Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include

A

headache.

240
Q

A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience

A

syncope.

241
Q

Pulse pressure is defined as

A

systolic pressure – diastolic pressure.

242
Q

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

243
Q

A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

A

elevated total iron-binding capacity.

244
Q

Hyperaldosteronism causes

A

ECV excess and hypokalemia.

245
Q

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as

A

bicarbonate ion.

246
Q

Causes of hypomagnesemia include

A

chronic alcoholism.

247
Q

Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?

A

128/82

248
Q

Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

249
Q

All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by

A

resistance to airflow.

250
Q

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

A

aspirin.

251
Q

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

A

increased neuromuscular excitability.

252
Q

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases

A

afterload.

253
Q

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

A

have no cytoplasmic organelles.

254
Q

A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

A

hemophilia.

255
Q

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

A

ventricular septal defect.

256
Q

The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.

A

True

257
Q

The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.

A

True

258
Q

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

A

hypercalcemia.

259
Q

Hypertension is closely linked to

A

obstructive sleep apnea.

260
Q

A patient who reports an intestinal fistula also reports feeling “weak and dizzy” when she stands. While taking her blood pressure she becomes temporarily unresponsive but quickly regains consciousness when put into a supine position. What nursing interventions will the nurse implement before calling the physician?

A

Give her water or juice and some salty crackers and ask if she has had any diarrhea or vomiting.

261
Q

Respiratory acidosis is associated with

A

increased carbonic acid.

262
Q

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

A

recipient antibodies.

263
Q

Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?

A

Insulin

264
Q

The fraction of total body water (TBW) volume contained in the intracellular space in adults is

A

two thirds.

265
Q

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

A

iron deficiency.

266
Q

Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both

A

microcytic.

267
Q

The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by

A

hypoventilation.

268
Q

Cancer grading is based on

A

cell differentiation.

269
Q

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

A

Liver

270
Q

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.

A

HLA or MHC

271
Q

Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD

A

Normal PaCO2, scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest

272
Q

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

A

occurs at an earlier age.

273
Q

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of

A

peripheral pooling of blood.

274
Q

Peripheral edema is a result of

A

venous thrombosis.

275
Q

What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?

A

Infants

276
Q

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

A

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.

277
Q

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

A

muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

278
Q

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

A

dysplasia.

279
Q

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

A

shift to the left.

280
Q

Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?

A

Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

281
Q

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

A

Status asthmaticus

282
Q

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

A

death.

283
Q

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.

A

False

284
Q

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by

A

accumulation of alveolar exudates.

285
Q

When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse’s best response is

A

“If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated.”

286
Q

When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis, the nurse will

A

put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.

287
Q

Cor pulmonale refers to

A

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

288
Q

A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by

A

decreased residual volume.

289
Q

A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

290
Q

Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

A

Jaundice

291
Q

A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is

A

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

292
Q

First-degree heart block is characterized by

A

prolonged PR interval.

293
Q

The characteristic x-ray findings in tuberculosis include

A

Ghon tubercles.

294
Q

The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is

A

P53.

295
Q

Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.

A

secondary

296
Q

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

A

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

297
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n)

A

communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

298
Q

Metaplasia is

A

the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

299
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

A

Epstein–Barr virus.

300
Q

The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is

A

lack of surfactant.