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Biology 11 > Past Quiz & Test Questions > Flashcards

Past Quiz & Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

formula for actual size of an object

A

field of view diameter (micrometres)
_____________________________________________________

   # of times specimen fits across field of view
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2
Q

ocular lens = 10X and low power= 4X, what is the total magnification?

A

40X

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3
Q

ocular lens = 10X and medium power= 10X, what is the total magnification?

A

100X

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4
Q

ocular lens = 10X and high power= 40X, what is the total magnification?

A

400X

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5
Q

how do you find the field of view diameter?

A

find size of field (mm) and multiply by 1000 to convert to micrometres

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6
Q

what equation do we use to calculate field diameter?

A

HPFD LPMag.
______ = ________
LPFD HPMag.

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7
Q

what equation do we use to calculate field diameter on medium power?

A

MPFD LPMag. (40x)
______ = ________
LPFD MPMag. (100x)

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8
Q

HPFD 40x
______ = _____
4500 400x

find the field diameter on high power

A

4500 x 40
___________
400

=450 micrometres

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9
Q

a microscope has a LPFD of 3000μm, HPM of 400μm and LPM of 40x. Calculate the HPFD.

A

HPFD LPMag.
______ = ________
LPFD HPMag.

HPFD 40x
______ = ________
3000 400

40 x 3000
= __________
400

HPFD = 300μm

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10
Q

what is the equation to find the scale?

A

measured length of the drawing (μm)
________________________________________
actual size (μm)

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11
Q

if the measured length is 10mm, what does it become after you convert it to micrometres?

A

10 x 1000

=10, 000 μm

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12
Q

Find the scale of a drawing if the actual size of the specimen is 40 μm and measured length is 20mm.

A

mm–>μm = x1000

20 x 1000= 20, 000 μm

20,000 μm
______________
40

scale = 500:1 (500 times larger)

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13
Q

Find the field of view diameter of the high powered field of view. The low power field of view diameter is 3.5mm, the low powered objective is 4X and the high is 40X.

A

1) 3.5mm –> μm = 3500μm
2) 4X x 10 (ocular lens) = 40X
3) 40X x 10 (ocular lens) = 400X
4)
HPFD LPMag.
______ = ________
LPFD HPMag.

HPFD 40X
______ = _____
3500 400X

3500 x 40 / 400

HPFD =350μm

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14
Q

This specimen is on high power. The HPFD is 350μm, high power objective lens is 400X, fits across 6 times and FOV on low power is 3500μm.

Use only the information you need to calculate the actual size of the specimen.

A

of times specimen fits across

actual size

    FOV diameter (μm)   \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ # of times specimen fits across

350μm / 6 (times)

= 58 μm

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15
Q

Your lab group had trouble finding a specimen while using the high-powered objective of the microscope. What should you do to find the specimen again?

A

use the low power objective first to centre it and add or reduce light to see it better

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16
Q

How is an amoeba classified? Include 2 levels of classification

A

-eukaryote
-animal-like protist

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17
Q

How are paramecium classified? Include 2 levels of classification

A

-eukaryote
-animal-like protist

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18
Q

A microscope on low power, has a field of view that measures 4mm. The spores under the slide are photographed under low powered magnification of 40X. Goes across 7 times. Find the actual size of the organism.

A

actual size= 4000 / 7

               =   571.43 μm
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19
Q

A microscope has a low powered field diameter of 4mm. Find the diameter of the field of view on high if the objective lens has a power of 4X on low and 40X on high.

A

4mm = 4000μm

4000 x 40
____________
400

= 400 μm

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20
Q

True or false: monocultures are successful because of genetic diversity

A

false

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21
Q

True or false: Bees affect genetic diversity of other species

A

true

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22
Q

true or false: prokaryotes have membrane bound organelles

A

false

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23
Q

true or false: there are 3 races of Homo sapiens sapiens

A

false

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24
Q

true or false: archaebacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell walls

A

false

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25
Q

true or false: fungi are photoautotrophic

A

false

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26
Q

true or false: binomial nomenclature includes the family and genus name

A

false

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27
Q

true or false: Linnaeus’ classification system was originally built upon genetic relatedness

A

false

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28
Q

T or F: species diversity doesn’t affect ecosystem diversity

A

false

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29
Q

T or F: A dichotomous key uses three traits per question to distinguish flora and fauna

A

false

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30
Q

chordates are organisms that all have:

A

backbones

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31
Q

which of the following is classified based on the chitinous composition of its cells?

a. animals
b. plants
c. protists
d. fungi

A

fungi

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32
Q

which of the following would be considered a hybrid species?

a. protists
b. paramecium
c. the offspring of a great dane and a chihuahua
d. a mule
e. all of the above

A

d. a mule

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33
Q

which of the following is most difficult for taxonomists to classify?

a. eukaryotes
b. prokaryotes
c. archaebacteria
d. protists
e. plantae

A

d. protists

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34
Q

prokaryotes reproduce via:

a. fission/budding
b. transmutation
c. sexual reproduction
d. meiosis
e. they cannot reproduce on their own; they need a host

A

a. fission/budding

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35
Q

Why is pollination so significant?

a. it decreases genetic diversity
b. it allows honey bees to reproduce
c. it prevents the spread of diseases
d. it allows for plants to sexually reproduce
e. all of the above

A

d. it allows for plants to sexually reproduce

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36
Q

Explain it was so difficult for scientists to classify the Red Panda. How was it finally classified in terms of relatedness and by what means?

A

-morphologically similar to great panda but more closely related to raccoons
-reclassified by genetic analysis

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37
Q

draw a clearly labelled phylogeny that demonstrates the relatedness of the 3 domains

A

(look at pg 21 in textbook for diagram)

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38
Q

True or False: euglena is a chemoautotroph

A

false

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39
Q

True or False: lytic cycles allow for dormancy in viruses

A

false

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40
Q

True or False: endospores are used by bacillus anthracis

A

true

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41
Q

True or False: yeasts are unicellular protists

A

false

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42
Q

True or False: all protists are motile

A

false

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43
Q

True or False: unicellular organisms can feed via endocytosis

A

true

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44
Q

True or False: transformation allows for genetic diversity in bacteria

A

true

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45
Q

True or False: bacteria can reproduce sexually via binary fission

A

false

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46
Q

True or False: truffles are unicellular

A

false

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47
Q

True or False: conjugation involves the transfer of plasmids

A

true

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48
Q

what is a red tide caused by?

A

Harmful algal bloom (HABs), is caused by microscopic algae that produce toxins that kill fish and make shellfish dangerous to eat

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49
Q

malaria is caused by a

a.mosquito
b.virus
c.protist
d.fungi
e.both b and c

A

c. protist

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50
Q

which of the following lives symbiotically with 80% of plants on earth?

a.mycelium
b.mycorrhizae
c.hyphae
d.dikaryotic hyphae

A

b. mycorrhizae

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51
Q

which of the following is a protist

a.plasmodial slime mould
b.plasmodium
c.both a and b
d.fairy ring

A

c. both a and b

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52
Q

which fungal phylum includes bread molds?

a.sac fungi
b.zygomycota
c.chytrids
d.ascomycota

A

b. zygomycota

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53
Q

what is the reproductive structure of fungi

A

fruiting body

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54
Q

true or false: influenza is a retrovirus

A

false

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55
Q

explain how protists are essential for life but are also harmful. give 2 different examples

A

-essential part of food chain (brown kelp)
-harmful + causes diseases (plasmodium)

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56
Q

explain the sexual life cycle of a fungus

(know how to draw it as well)

A

starts with - hyphae and + hyphae

  1. Plasmogamy:
    -cytoplasm of both hyphae fuse together (2
    separate nuclei)
    -haploid
  2. Karyogamy
    -two nuclei fuse together creating a zygospore
    -diploid
  3. Meiosis
    -zygospore undergoes meiosis to create sexual
    haploid spores
  4. Germination
    -haploid spores germinate, producing hyphae
    -hyphae grow into mycelium and cycle repeats
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57
Q

The net effect of photosynthesis, chemically, is reduction, leading to the formation of which products?

A

Oxygen and carbohydrates

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58
Q

A cell membrane is ______________

A

Semipermeable

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59
Q

A cell uses which of the following to accelerate chemical reactions enabling its metabolic machinery to operate?
a. Centrasome
b. Lysosome
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Enzymes

A

enzymes

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60
Q

Light initiates different types of cellular reactions. Which response to light converts the energy from light into a gain of potential energy?

A

photosynthesis

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61
Q

Genetic information is transferred from the nucleus to cytoplasm by way of _______________.
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Dexyribonucleic acid
c. Ribonucleic acid
d. Amino acid

A

c. Ribonucleic acid

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62
Q

There are two types of cells, eukaryotic and prokaryotic. Which of the following cellular structures are found in both types of cell?

DNA
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria
Chloroplast

A

DNA

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63
Q

What it is the name given to specialized structures within cells responsible for carrying out specific functions such as providing energy and producing hormones?

A

organelles

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64
Q

All of the following are similarities between unicellular organisms and multicellular organisms, except _____________.
a. Internal complexity
b. Division of labor
c. Size
d. Ecological relationships

A

size

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65
Q

How many chromosomes does an individual human person have?

A

46

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66
Q

The term thallus refers to the plant-like structure of which organism?

A

Brown algae

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67
Q

Single-celled protists with animal-like behavior belong to the phylum ______________.
a. Metazoa
b. Porifera
c. Protozoa
d. Mollusca

A

protozoa

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68
Q

Sterile female honey bees are called _________________.

A

workers

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69
Q

Which of the following organisms is a vertebrate?

Frogs
Insects
Earthworms
Sea stars

A

frogs

Vertebrates are multicellular organisms in Kingdom Animalia. Vertebrates are animals with a backbone, and include mammals, birds, fish, reptiles and amphibians. Insects, earthworms and sea stars belong to a group of animals without a backbone, invertebrates.

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70
Q

Many animals protect themselves with an exoskeleton. Which of the following is an example of an animal with an exoskeleton?

a. Mollusk
b. Bird
c. Turtle
d. Snake

A

a. Mollusk

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71
Q

Locomotion in Metazoa is usually due to the contraction of what?
a. Skeleton
b. Muscle
c. Skin
d. Nerves

A

muscle

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72
Q

In normal sexual reproduction, two mature gametes fuse to form a(n) _____________.

A

zygote

73
Q

Changes in the genetic makeup of an organism may be due to which of the following?
a. New combinations of chromosomes
b. Chromosome mutation
c. Gene mututation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

74
Q

The phrase “survival of the fittest” is an alternate phrase expressing which principle?

A

natural selection

75
Q

Which of the following directly (as opposed to indirectly) supports Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution?
a. Evidence from Paleontology
b. Evidence from Geographical Distribution
c. Evidence from Physiology
d. Evidence from Genetics

A

d. Evidence from Genetics

Genetic evidence is the most direct type of evidence used to support the theory of evolution. Since adaptations are passed along genetically, from one generation to another, evidence for evolution can be collected by examining the genome of individuals of the same species and comparing it to genetic information of ancestral species, species of the same phylogenetic groups and/or common ancestors between several species.

76
Q

rules for binomial nomenclature

A

when typing name should be in italics

when writing name should be underlined

77
Q

if you’re a vertebrate, you must be __________

A

a chordate

78
Q

List 3 pieces of evidence that proves the Endosymbiosis Theory

A

-mitochondria + chloroplasts have their own DNA
-their DNA replicates same way as bacteria
-mitochondria + chloroplasts are the same size as prokaryotes

79
Q

dominant generation of a conifer

A

sporophyte

80
Q

what type of plant group is a conifer from

A

gymnosperms (conifers=cones=seeds)

81
Q

what is the only plant group that has gametophytes as a dominant generation

A

mosses

82
Q

Your friend has a cold and wants to take some old antibiotics that were lying around unfinished, from a previous prescription. Explain what you would tell your friend and why.

A

1) antibiotics only work for bacteria not viruses
2) can make you more sick if you keep taking them
3) causes antibiotic resistance

83
Q

explain MRSA, why it’s bad and how it’s caused

A

caused by a type of staph bacteria that’s become resistant to many of the antibiotics used to treat ordinary staph infections.

-resistant to antibiotics
-no antibiotics they give you will work
-conjugation: passes on the resistance gene to other bacteria

84
Q

explain how fungi can be helpful with an example

A

used in antibiotics (penicillin)

85
Q

explain how fungi can be harmful with an example

A

parasitic yeasts cause ringworm, and athlete’s foot

86
Q

list 4 human activities that are currently threatening biodiversity

A

overfishing
deforestation (animal habitats)
fossil fuels (GHG–>climate change)
littering (pollution)

87
Q

compare and contrast algae and angiosperms

A

Green Algae
-doesn’t undergo alternation of generations
-no water-conducting tissues

Angiosperms
-flower: seeds enclosed in an ovary (fruit)
-attracts animals that spread the seeds

Both:
-undergo photosynthesis
-kingdom plantae

88
Q

which statement about genes is false?

a. genes are proteins coded for by DNA
b. every cell’s DNA has genes in it
c. genes are units of inherited information
d. genes can code for traits or functions
e. all of the above are true

A

a. genes are proteins coded for by DNA

89
Q

which is not a typical activity during interphase?

a. housekeeping and metabolic activities
b. the cell grows in size
c. the cytoplasm divides in two
d. the cell increases its protein supply
e. cell organelles are duplicated

A

c. the cytoplasm divides in two

90
Q

daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell

mitosis or meiosis?

A

mitosis

91
Q

haploid cells result

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

92
Q

occurs in ovaries

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

93
Q

creates pollen grains

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

94
Q

cytokinesis occurs

mitosis or meiosis?

A

both

95
Q

involves 2 divisions

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

96
Q

synapsis occurs

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

97
Q

produces gametes

mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

98
Q

repairs broken bones

mitosis or meiosis?

A

mitosis

99
Q

cells are 2n

mitosis or meiosis?

A

mitosis

100
Q

A sequence of DNA reads AGCTTTGCA. What is the complementary strand?

A

TCGAAACGT

101
Q

what is the first codon in the template strand “AGCTTTGCA”?

A

AGC

102
Q

Give an example of a structural mutation and explain what condition can arise from it. Describe two symptoms of the condition.

A

deletion of a short arm of chromosome 5
-Cri du Chat syndrome
-abnormal larynx that causes distinctive cry
-abnormal head structure

103
Q

How is it possible for an organism to inherit a monosomy disorder?

A

non-disjunction
-missing an X or Y chromosome that goes into another cell, so some have more and some have less (n+1) (n-1)

104
Q

what can you infer about a disorder that affects only boys, the father has the condition but the mother does not have the condition in her family?

A

Y linked

105
Q

what is a “true breeding” organism in genetics

A

offspring are genetically identical to parents when self-fertilized

106
Q

The following is a sequence of DNA. List which mutation type is occurring in the four examples:

Original Sequence: T-C-C-G-C-G-A-A

a) TCCTCCTCC

A

duplication

107
Q

The following is a sequence of DNA. List which mutation type is occurring in the four examples:

Original Sequence: T-C-C-G-C-G-A-A

b) TGCGCGAA

A

point mutation

108
Q

The following is a sequence of DNA. List which mutation type is occurring in the four examples:

Original Sequence: T-C-C-G-C-G-A-A

c) TCGCGAA

A

deletion

109
Q

The following is a sequence of DNA. List which mutation type is occurring in the four examples:

Original Sequence: T-C-C-G-C-G-A-A

d) AAGCGCCT

A

inversion

110
Q

if the haploid number in an organism is 9, answer these question….

a) number of chromosomes in daughter cells of mitosis

A

18

111
Q

if the haploid number in an organism is 9, answer these question….

b) diploid number

A

18

112
Q

if the haploid number in an organism is 9, answer these question….

c) prophase l

A

18

113
Q

if the haploid number in an organism is 9, answer these question….

d) telophase l

A

18

114
Q

if the haploid number in an organism is 9, answer these question….

e) telophase ll

A

9

115
Q

enzymes involved in recombinant DNA

A

-Restriction enzymes
-DNA ligase

116
Q

give an example of an organism that has been modified using recombinant DNA technology

A

Bt corn

117
Q

give an example of an organism that can help to create transgenic plants

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(don’t forget about binomial nomenclature- proper format)

118
Q

describe one drawback of recombinant DNA technology in plants

A

GMOs are being overused in plants and causing social issues –> too many GMOs in fruits and vegetables

119
Q

describe one advantage of recombinant DNA technology in plants

A

safflower plants –> produce insulin

120
Q

describe two ways that genes can be affected by the environment

A
  1. Temperature
    -siamese cats- mutations–>enzyme sensitive to heat = black and white fur pigment in warm regions
  2. Soil Acidity
    -hydrangeas –> changes colour from blue to purple
121
Q

2 genes are very close together on a chromosome and 2 genes are far apart on a chromosome, which 2 are most likely to be separated from each other by a cross-over event? Explain.

A

the 2 farthest apart because they are most likely to segregate in meiosis = gene loci far apart

122
Q

In tomatoes, purple stems are recessive to green stems. How can you figure out the genotype of a green stemmed plant?

A

use a test cross to determine the unknown genotype

123
Q

Using your vocabulary, explain why it is unusual for women to be colourblind.

A

-recessive x-linked disorder
-women need 2 recessive genes of the disorder to get it bc it’s on X chromosomes

-if the mom is a carrier and dad is affected
=50% daughters will be affected

-if the mom is a carrier and dad is not affected
=0% of daughters will be affected

124
Q

starches are

a) used in long term energy storage
b) monosaccharides
c) a type of sugar
d) a type of carbohydrate

A

d) a type of carbohydrate

125
Q

Which of these molecules can the cells of your body use directly without modification

a) polysaccharides
b) amino acids
c) lipids
d) fibre

A

b) amino acids

126
Q

which statement is true about proteins?

a) proteins are a main source of energy
b) proteins are monomers
c) they are a type of sugar
d) they are very large molecules

A

d) they are very large molecules

127
Q

which of the following is considered a polysaccharide?

a) fructose
b) glucose
c) cellulose
d) lactose

A

cellulose

128
Q

which structure prevents food from going down the trachea?

A

epiglottis

129
Q

name 3 substances present in the stomach

A

HCL, gastric juice, pepsin

130
Q

what does glucose get converted to during storage?

A

glycogen

131
Q

True or false: hydrolysis is the process in which a food molecule is split into smaller parts by REMOVING a molecule of water

A

false

chemical mechanism in which, by ADDING a molecule of water, a molecule is broken into two pieces

132
Q

True or false: Sucrose is an example of a monosaccharide

A

false

133
Q

True or false: when a camera enters the digestive tract, it is called a biopsy

A

false

capsule endoscopy

134
Q

True or false: human molars are specialized teeth used to tear off chunks of food

A

false

135
Q

True or false: all organisms have a digestive tract

A

false
some have a digestive sac

136
Q

True or false: Carnivorous organisms tend to have longer digestive tracts

A

false

herbivores have longer tracts for digesting grasses

137
Q

True or false: GERD is caused by acid entering the esophagus

A

true

138
Q

What is an ulcer? What causes it? Be specific.

A

-hole/perforation in the stomach
-caused by bacterial infection (H. Pylori)

139
Q

What are villi? Why are they important?

A

Hair-like projections located in the small intestine that absorb nutrients and cover more surface area

140
Q

trace the pathway food takes in the digestive tract of a typical mammal. include all sphincters so you have 10 words.

A

-mouth
-pharynx
-esophagus
-cardiac sphincter
-stomach
-pyloric sphincter
-small intestine
-ileocecal sphincter
-large intestine
-anal sphincter

141
Q

on his 5 year voyage on the HMS Beagle, what did Darwin NOT do?

a) examine fossils
b) develop his theory of natural selection
c) observe an earthquake
d) collect specimens

A

b) develop his theory of natural selection

142
Q

if you explore a group of remote, oceanic islands, what should you expect to observe about the local species?

a) that they closely resemble the species living in North America
b) they show little variation
c) they closely resemble the species living on the nearest, largest landmass
d) they are all nearly identical genetically

A

c) they closely resemble the species living on the nearest, largest landmass

143
Q

After Darwin’s research, society’s worldview changed in that:

a) uniformitarianism is probable
b) species are fixed and immaculate; they do not change
c) the Earth is considered to be relatively wrong
d) changes in the past were always very quick and catastrophic

A

a) uniformitarianism is probable

144
Q

true or false: the oldest fossils are the simplest organisms

A

true

145
Q

capybara, wombats, muskrats, coypu and beavers look similar due to ________

A

environmental pressures

146
Q

true or false: adaptations are any characteristic that allow an organism to reproduce more successfully

A

true

147
Q

hummingbirds and monarch butterflies both have wings. this is an example of __________

A

analogous structures

148
Q

how can evolutionary theory explain why Australia is home to relatively few native placental mammals?

A

marsupials inhabited the island for a long time and few placental mammals are there because they would have to migrate there which’s too difficult for them

149
Q

Describe how artificial selection acts as proof for natural selection. Use an example

A

Artificial selection
-humans choose the traits they desire and breed them (favour one trait and keep breeding it)

Natural selection
-environ. would favour a type of one trait in an animal and it would become popular in pop.

150
Q

You have discovered another organism on a second planet that lives in an environment similar to another organism. Would the two organisms have analogous or homologous features?

A

Analogous
-adapt to similar environ.
-have different structures but perform the same
function
-don’t share a common ancestor

151
Q

industrial melanism

A

evolutionary effect, where an animal’s colour changes in response to an environmental effect caused by pollution

152
Q

which defense mechanism of the peppered moth was affected by industrial melanism?

A

colour (light vs dark)

153
Q

how did industrial melanism affect the phenotype of the moth population in Britain

A

increased majority of the pop. to dark moths (NS)

154
Q

what is natural selection?

A

process where the environ. selects an organism’s trait that helps an organism adapt to environ.

155
Q

how does natural selection relate to the evolution of the peppered moth?

A

-environ selected dark colour trait to help moths adapt to their environ

156
Q

definition of genetic drift

A

a change in the gene pool due to chance

157
Q

inbreeding in small populations can lead to:

a) heterozygosity
b) increased fitness
c) homozygosity
d) mutations

A

c) homozygosity

158
Q

in 1348, one third of the entire human population of Europe died from the black plague. Entire towns were wiped out. Despite these conditions, some people were able to survive. This is an example of :

a) gene flow
b) bottleneck effect
c) founder effect
d) cumulative selection

A

b) bottleneck effect

159
Q

a horse called impressive passed on his strong muscular phenotype to his offspring; unfortunately, he also passed on the disorder HYPP. This is an example of:

a) artificial selection
b) sexual selection
c) co-evolution
d) genetic drift

A

a) artificial selection

160
Q

darwins finches are an example of __________

A

adaptative radiation (divergent evolution)

161
Q

true or false: founder effect is due to the establishment of a new population in a new area

A

true

162
Q

__________ refers to any random changes in allele frequencies in a population

A

genetic drift

163
Q

avoidance of poison-dart frogs by predators is an example of _____

A

co-evolution

164
Q

complex eye of a squid evolved through _________________

A

cumulative selection

165
Q

5 factors for Hardy-Weinburg Equilibrium

A

No natural selection
Random mating
No gene flow
No mutations
Large population

166
Q

Viruses can replicate quickly. Why does this contribute to their rapid rate of evolution?

A

adaptation
-when it replicates, can pass it down to other replications, which will cause evolution at a rapid rate

167
Q

mutation plays an important role in the evolution of viruses. How does mutation relate to evolution?

A

-help us to get genetic variation
-essential to evolution because it’s how populations evolve
-w/o mutations –> no evolution

168
Q

Why does the Canadian Government recommend that its citizens get a new flu shot every year?

A

-virus is continuously adapting to its environ. and getting stronger, so it’s crucial that people keep getting their shots to avoid it becoming resistant

169
Q

What environmental or epigenetic factors can cause mutations? List 4

A

UV radiation, X-rays, smoking, HPV, viruses

170
Q

Why does North America have few people with sickle cell disease when compared to Africa? Explain.

A

-heterozygous for sickle cell disease=resistant to malaria
-malaria more common in Africa, so more common in Africa than North America

171
Q

Agriculture has changed dramatically in the last hundred years. How has it changed, in terms of genetics, and why? What are the possible negative consequences of this? Can you compare this possible future event to another, similar, important historical event?

A

-farmers planting monocultures (genetically identical crops)
-genetically modifying crops to have same traits (e.g. bigger)

Negative consequences:
-disease/pathogens–>kills all crops–>no food

Historical event:
-irish potato famine
-farmers planted genetically identical potatoes and one disease killed them all

172
Q

explain why madagascar is home to very unique organisms that can’t be found anywhere else

A

-geographical isolation
-adaptative radiation

173
Q

what type of reproductive isolating mechanism is in this situation: lions and tigers will not interbreed even though they have the potential to

A

geographic isolation

174
Q

if there’s 20% cytosine in a molecule, what percent of thymine is in the molecule?

A

cytosine(20%) + guanine (20%) = 40%

adenine (30%) + thymine(30%) = 60%

                                                   = 100%                         therefore, thymine = 30%
175
Q

order of colon

A

ascending, transverse, descending

176
Q

what type of virus is HIV?

A

retrovirus

177
Q

what happens in inhalation?

A

diaphragm contracts + chest moves up and out

178
Q

what happens in exhalation?

A

lung volume decreases and air pressure increases

Biology 11 (58 decks)

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