Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

D1 Spring > Op 1 > Flashcards

Op 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 4 number instrument formula used for?

A

margin trimmers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do these numbers represent: 15-98-10-14?

A

15 = 1.5mm width
98 = angle of cutting edge to long axis of handle
10 = 10mm blade length
14 = angle of blade to long axis of handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 3 functions of hand instruments?

A

Removes loose enamel
Smooths preparation
Refines cavity features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 2 examples of refining cavity features?

A

Retention areas
Line angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 2 metals in hand instruments?

A

Stainless steel
Carbon steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the features of stainless steel?

A

Resists corrosion
Dulls easily (need to keep instruments sharp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the features of carbon steel?

A

Corrodes
Holds sharpness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 types of hand instruments?

A

Hand cutting instruments
Restorative instruments
Plastic instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the hand cutting instruments (examples)?

A

chisels, hatchets, hoes, gingival margin trimmers, excavators, carvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common excavator used?

A

spoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Characteristics of chisels

A

Straight or curved
1, 2, or 3 angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characteristics of hatchets

A

Cutting edge = in plane parallel with handle
1 or more angles
Do not use with too much force or twist (can easily break)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Characteristics of hoes

A

Cutting edge is ⟂ to handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of gingival margin trimmer

A

Similar to hatchet, but has curved blades
Cutting edge is at angle to length of blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Characteristics of excavators

A

Remove caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characteristics of carvers

A

Place anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are restorative instruments used for?

A

Used to place, condense, and carve restorative materials back to normal anatomy of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are restorative instruments primarily made of?

A

Stainless steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the restorative instruments (examples)?

A

amalgam carrier, condensers, burnishers, carvers, amalgam knife, composite placement instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Characteristics of condensers (aka amalgam plugger)

A

Condenses materials
Can be used to gauge cavity width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Characteristics of plastic instruments

A

Can be used to carry pliable restorative material to prepped cavity (although typically placed directly by composite gun)
Used to shape material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 3 parts of hand instruments?

A

Shaft/handle
Shank
Blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Characteristics of shaft/handle of a hand instrument

A

Can be small, medium, large
Smooth or serrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Characteristics of shank of a hand instrument

A

Connects handle to blade
Straight or angled
(Angled for access and stability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Characteristics of blade of a hand instrument

A

Working part of the instrument
Beveled to create cutting edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many bevels can the blade of a hand instrument have?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the primary cutting edge of the blade of a hand instrument?

A

on the end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the secondary cutting edge of the blade of a hand instrument?

A

on the sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can hand instruments be double ended? Or just single ended?

A

They can be double ended (2 working sides) or a long handle with 1 working side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 categories for sterilization?

A

Critical
Semi-critical
Non-critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does critical mean in regards to sterilization? Give an example

A

Penetrates soft tissue of bone

Ex: forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do we sterilize critical instruments?

A

Autoclave (most commonly used heat sterilizer in dentistry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does semi-critical mean in regards to sterilization? Give an example

A

Does not penetrate, but contacts mucous membranes or non-intact skin

Ex: mirrors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do we sterilize semi-critical instruments?

A

Autoclave or high level EPA sterilant/disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does non-critical mean in regards to sterilization? Give an example

A

Comes in contact only with intact skin

Ex: blood pressure cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do we sterilize non-critical instruments?

A

Intermediate or low level disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many classes of carious lesions are there? Which one is most and least prevalent?

A

6 (I-VI)

Most prevalent = Class I
Least prevalent = Class VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where are caries on Class I lesions?

A

Pits and fissures on:

-Occlusal ⅓ of molars and premolars
-Occlusal ⅔ of B & L surfaces of molars and premolars
-L surface of upper anterior teeth
-Any other unusually located pit or fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the general rule of pit/fissure lesions? (Class I)

A

More constricted at enamel surface and wider toward DEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where are caries on Class II lesions?

A

Caries affecting proximal surfaces:

-Molars and premolars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the general rule of smooth surface interproximal lesions? (Class II)

A

Wider at enamel surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where are caries on Class III lesions?

A

Caries affecting proximal surfaces of:

-Central and lateral incisors
-Cuspids without involving incisal angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where are caries on Class IV lesions?

A

Caries affecting proximal surfaces including incisal angles of anterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where are caries on Class V lesions?

A

Caries affecting gingival ⅓ of facial or lingual surfaces of:

-Anterior teeth
-Posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where are caries on Class VI lesions?

A

Caries affecting cusp tips of:

-Molars
-Premolars
-Cuspids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is abrasion?

A

Tooth surface loss from frictional forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is erosion?

A

Tooth surface loss from chemico-mechanical action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is attrition?

A

Mechanical wear from opposition teeth (grinding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is abfraction?

A

Cervical, wedge-shaped defects as result of strong eccentric occlusal forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is fracture?

A

Can be most difficult and challenging defects in teeth to diagnose and treat

Can be considered incomplete or complete; involving pulp or not involving pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 4 stages of caries progression?

A

Demineralization
Cavitation
Infected dentin
Affected dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is demineralization?

A

Loss of mineral from tooth structure, resulting from a chemical process (can be from caries, acid, diet, or gastric)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is cavitation?

A

Breakdown of surface integrity that can be detected using optical or tactile methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where can cavitation go?

A

Can be confined to enamel or extend into dentin via tubular invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can cavitation include?

A

Differing layers of infected and affected dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do caries penetrate (shape)?

A

Penetrate in a narrow or cone shaped channel to DEJ then spread laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is infected dentin?

A

Irreversible, demineralized, and denatured layer with bacterial invasion

Very soft, moist, and easy to remove with spoon excavator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is affected dentin?

A

Partially demineralized

Leathery/softer than normal

Collagen is not denatured

Contains minimal to no bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the forms of tooth prep?

A

Outline
Convenience
Resistance
Retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the outline form?

A

External shape of the prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do we consider when it comes to outline form?

A

Access to lesion
Extent of lesion
Restorative material being used
Esthetics
Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does access to lesion refer to in regards to outline form?

A

Visualize extent of caries

Allows bur to reach all carious dentin

Creates space for instrumentation and vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

You should extend your outline to include all ________ enamel, because enamel rods must be supported by _______ ___.

You also should include the ____ spread of caries at ____. Carious dentin can have ____ overlying dentin; ____ enamel is usually removed.

________ enamel can be considered for ____.

A

Unsupported; sound dentin

Lateral; DEJ; sound; undermined

Decalcified; inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What determines the size of the prep?

A

Extent of caries in dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

You should design your prep to take advantage of/compensate for what?

A

For properties of material to be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What do brittle materials like amalgam and porcelain require when creating the outline form?

A

90° cavosurface margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What do ductile materials like composite and gold require when creating the outline form?

A

Beveling of margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do esthetics refer to in regards to outline form?

A

Restorations in visible areas of mouth dictate cavity design and restoration selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does function refer to in regards to outline form?

A

When a restoration alters occlusion, outline may need to be altered

Do not leave occlusal contact on margin of restoration EVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the convenience form?

A

Shape that allows access for the procedure to be done

Allows vision, access, and ease of instrumentation and insertion of restorative materials (influences outline form too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the resistance form?

A

Shape given to prevent fracture of either the restoration or the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are examples of resistance form?

A

Adequate bulk of amalgam
Rounding of internal line angles
Horizontal pulpal and gingival floors prepared ⟂ to tooth’s long axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the consideration of resistance form? What are the 3 reasons?

A

Prep is placed 0.5mm into dentin (not including enamel) for 3 reasons:

Avoid sensitive DEJ
Provide adequate bulk of restorative material
Take advantage of dentin’s resilience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the retention form?

A

Shape that prevents restoration from being displaced by tipping/lifting forces

75
Q

What does retention form include?

A

Undercuts, truncation, grooves, pits, dovetails, etc.

76
Q

What are the considerations of retention form?

A

Primary and secondary retention

77
Q

How do we get primary retention?

A

Converging walls

(and sometimes dovetail)

78
Q

How do we get secondary retention?

A

Grooves, coves, extensions, skirts, beveled margins, pins, slots, steps, amalgam pins, etchants, adhesives

(sometimes dovetail)

79
Q

What does secondary retention do?

A

Helps retain restoration in case primary retention fails

80
Q

Which type of retention do we always need?

A

Must ALWAYS have primary retention; secondary retention is needed when indicated

81
Q

Features that enhance _________ form also enhance _________ form

A

retention; resistance

82
Q

What is an external wall?

A

Touches uncut surface/cavosurface margin

83
Q

What is an internal wall?

A

Does NOT touch uncut surface/cavosurface margin

84
Q

What is a bur?

A

Rotary cutting instrument with bladed cutting head

85
Q

What are most burs made up of?

A

Carbide head to steel neck

86
Q

Describe carbide

A

Stiffer/stronger than steel
Holds up better at high speeds
Less prone to dull

87
Q

Describe steel

A

Decreased cost of fabrication
Freedom in design

88
Q

What does the arbitrary 2 part numeral code of burs indicate?

A

Size and shape

89
Q

What are the basic shapes of burs?

A

Round
Inverted cone
Pear
Straight fissure
Tapered fissure

90
Q

Features of round burs

A

Initial entry into tooth
Expansion of prep
Retention features
Caries removal

91
Q

Features of inverted cone burs

A

Rapidly tapered cone with apex of cone directed TOWARD shank
Head length = head diameter
Undercuts in tooth prep

92
Q

Features of pear burs

A

Slightly tapered cone with small end of cone directed TOWARD shank

245 = elongated pear bur for amalgam preps
330 = small version of 245

93
Q

Feature of straight fissure bur

A

Elongated cylinder

94
Q

Features of tapered fissure bur

A

Slightly tapered cone with small end of cone directed AWAY from shank
Used for indirect restorations

95
Q

What are the 3 parts of a bur?

A

Shank
Head
Neck

96
Q

What does a shank of a bur do?

A

Fits into handpiece
Accepts rotary mutation from handpiece
Provides bearing surface to control alignment and concentricity of instrument

97
Q

How many classes of bur shanks are there? How many are important to us?

A

5 total classes; 3 are important to us

98
Q

What are the 3 classes of bur shanks that we care about?

A

Straight
Right angle latch
Friction grip

99
Q

What are straight bur shanks for?

A

Rarely used for prepping teeth

Used for oral surgery and polishing indirect restorations

100
Q

What are right angle latch bur shanks used for?

A

Used in slow speed handpieces

Fits into D-shaped socket at bottom of bur tube instead of a chuck

101
Q

What are friction grip bur shanks used for?

A

Used in high speed handpieces

Small size allows for improved access with molars

Held in place using friction between shank and chuck within handpiece

102
Q

What is the neck of a bur?

A

Intermediate portion that connects the head to the shank

103
Q

What is the function of the neck of a bur?

A

Transmits rotational and translational forces

104
Q

How does the neck of a bur taper?

A

Tapers from shank diameter to smaller size by the head (improves access/visibility)

105
Q

What is the head of a bur?

A

The working part of the bur

106
Q

What does the head of the bur have?

A

Cutting edges/points that perform desired shaping of tooth structure

107
Q

What part of the bur has the greatest area of variability based on intended application and technique?

A

Head

108
Q

What is the primary retention feature for an amalgam restoration?

A

Converging B and L walls

109
Q

What is the secondary retention feature for an amalgam restoration?

A

Retention grooves and dovetails

110
Q

What must be included in the Class I prep outline form?

A

All caries and defective pits/fissures

111
Q

In Class I preps, you should prep _____mm into _____ and _____ grooves to create nicely shaped dovetails in _______ and ______ ______ by also going slightly toward B and L (outline form)

A

0.5
B
L
M
D
Fossa

112
Q

What is the retentive feature in Class I preps?

A

Dovetails

113
Q

If the dovetail includes B and L grooves, is it considered primary or secondary retention?

A

Primary

114
Q

If the dovetail is not part of the initial prep design, but instead is part of the extension feature, is it considered primary or secondary retention?

A

Secondary

115
Q

What should be preserved unless undermined or crossed by a fissure in Class I preps?

A

Oblique and transverse ridges

116
Q

Why do we direct the bur around cusps in Class I preps?

A

To conserve tooth structure

Remember we want:
No sharp angles

Gently flowing curves and distinct cavosurface margins (outline form)

117
Q

What is the width in Class I preps?

A

1/5 to 1/4 (1.0 mm) of intercuspal distance

118
Q

Why is the width of Class I preps 1/5 to 1/4 (1.0 mm) of intercuspal distance?

A

Conserves tooth structure
Facilitates carving for amalgam restorations
Reduces occlusal interferences

119
Q

How should you center Class I preps?

A

On central groove (outline form)

120
Q

What should the B to L width be in Class I preps?

A

No more than 1.0 - 1.5 mm (outline form)

121
Q

What size should marginal ridges be in Class I preps?

A

1.5 mm (outline form)

122
Q

How should the pulpal floor look in Class I preps?

A

Pulpal floor is flat and ⟂ to long axis of tooth (resistance form)

123
Q

Why should the pulpal floor be flat and ⟂ to long axis of tooth (resistance form) in Class I preps?

A

At right angle to direction of occlusal forces
Helps resist fracturing/shearing forces

124
Q

What is an isthmus? How is it created?

A

Narrow anatomic part/passage connecting 2 larger structures

Created by preparing occlusal width/outline

125
Q

What does the isthmus of a Class I prep contribute to?

A

Retention and resistance form

126
Q

Where is the isthmus of a Class I prep?

A

Central portion of prep between M and D-most aspects/dovetails

127
Q

Where is the isthmus of a Class II prep?

A

Between 2 proximal flares or 1 proximal flare and dovetail

128
Q

How deep should the pulpal floor be in Class I preps?

A

At least 1.5mm (resistance form)

129
Q

The pulpal floor depth of 1.5mm resists ________ force to prevent _________. It also avoids sensitivity at the _______.

A

Occlusal; fracturing; DEJ

130
Q

What angle should all cavosurfaces be at in Class I preps?

A

90 degrees

131
Q

How should all line and point angles look in Class I preps?

A

Rounded, but defined, to avoid stress concentrations (resistance form)

132
Q

How should B and L walls look in Class I preps?

A

B and L walls should converge pulpo-occlusally (retention form)

133
Q

Converging B and L walls create an ____ angle with the ____ floor. This provides ____ retention. The degree of convergence should be ____ degrees.

A

Acute; pulpal; primary; 6

134
Q

How should M and D walls look in Class I preps?

A

M and D walls should diverge pulpo-occlusally (resistance form)

135
Q

Diverging M and D walls create an ____ angle with the ____ floor. This prevents undermining of the _____ _____.

A

Obtuse; pulpal; marginal ridge

136
Q

Once you start carving, you _________ add to amalgam

A

CANNOT

137
Q

If you have a void, fracture, or under-contoured area, you must drill out all amalgam in ________

A

Clinic

138
Q

If you have a void, fracture, or under-contoured area, you must start a new tooth in _________

A

Lab

139
Q

What are the causes for amalgam restoration failure?

A
140
Q

What are the instruments used for amalgam occlusal anatomy?

A
  1. condenser
  2. egg burnisher
  3. acorn burnisher
  4. cleoid/discoid
  5. refine with acorn burnisher
141
Q

What is the condenser used for when placing occlusal anatomy in amalgam?

A

Condenses amalgam into cavity

142
Q

What is the egg burnisher used for when placing occlusal anatomy in amalgam?

A

Pre-burnishes amalgam, further condenses, and aids marginal adaptation

143
Q

What is the acorn burnisher used for when placing occlusal anatomy in amalgam?

A

Places initial anatomy

144
Q

What is the cleoid/discoid used for when placing occlusal anatomy in amalgam?

A

Carves and removes excess amalgam

145
Q

What is the acorn burnisher used for when REFINING occlusal anatomy in amalgam?

A

Refines anatomy, improves smoothness, produces a satin (not shiny appearance)

Groove pattern can shine, BUT NOT the entire restoration

146
Q

What are the 3 P’s of preventing injury?

A

Postural awareness
Positioning strategies
Periodic stretching and exercise

147
Q

What does postural awareness consist of?

A

Neutral posture
Increases comfort and productivity
Decreases tension, numbness/tingling, joint discomfort, muscular problems, circulatory problems
Conserves energy

148
Q

What do positioning strategies consist of?

A

Patient, dentist, lighting, OP setup

149
Q

What does periodic stretching and exercise do?

A

Reduce fatigue, relieve stress, and increase stamina

150
Q

Definition of musculoskeletal disorders

A

Soft-tissue injuries caused by sudden or sustained exposure to repetitive motion, force, vibration, and awkward positions

151
Q

What can musculoskeletal disorders affect?

A

Muscles, nerves, tendons, joints and cartilage in your limbs, neck, and lower back

152
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of lathe-cut alloy

A

High “positive pack” handling quality (“crunchy”) to provide good proximal contacts

Relatively > mercury required

Require early condensation with a small condenser

Irregular in shape, so higher packing forces needed during condensation

Minimal material-related post op sensitivity

153
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of spherical alloy

A

Lower condensation pressure require to achieve same strength

Larger condenser required

Shorter working time, fast set, and high early strength

No positive pack because they move away from the condenser when packing (tendency to poor contacts and more overhangs because they can slide under the matrix band)

Greater risk of post op sensitivity

Advantage: you could work on the tooth the same day after restoring it with this type of amalgam

154
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of admixed alloy (lathe-cut + spherical combined)

A

This is the type of amalgam we have!

Combine best of both geometries

High packing pressure with small condensers still required

Positive interproximal contact obtained

Slightly faster setting

Low post op sensitivity

155
Q

Overall disadvantages of alloy

A

Not esthetic

Low tensile strength in thin sections under masticatory forces

It does not bond to tooth structure

Utilizes mercury

156
Q

What is dental amalgam?

A

Metallic restorative material composed of a mixture of silver-tin alloy and mercury

157
Q

What does the FDA say results from removing intact amalgam fillings?

A

Unnecessary loss of healthy tooth structure and a temporary increase in exposure due to additional mercury vapor released during the removal process

158
Q

Has mercury in amalgam been found safe and beneficial as a direct restorative material?

A

Yes

159
Q

Amalgam is _______ as a _____ lasting restorative material. It is ______ resistant to ______ caries as compared to bonded composite restorations.

A

Successful; long

More; recurrent

160
Q

Amalgam is ______ for _______ restorations and when subsequent addressing of _______ health is needed before a definitive retoration

A

Ideal; large; pulpal

161
Q

Amalgam is used as a __________ for badly broken down teeth that need extra ________ and __________ forms in anticipation of crown placement

A

Foundation/core; retention; resistance

162
Q

Amalgam has ______ mechanical properties such as ________ ________, ________, and _________ __________.

A

High; compressive strength; rigidity; wear resistance

163
Q

Amalgam has packable insertion to provide ________ proximal contact and intimate cavity adaptation

A

Positive

164
Q

Amalgam is carvable with _______ instruments after insertion to provide optimal _______, __________, and _________.

A

Hand; contour; surface; occlusion

165
Q

Amalgam has _____ ______ properties over time.

A

Self sealing

166
Q

Purpose of reverse S curve

A

Preserve the cusp and and triangular ridge; forms a 90 degree cavosurface margin that creates a place of limited undermined enamel

167
Q

Where are Class II carious lesions found in relation to contact point?

A

Located just apical to contact point

168
Q

What is the purpose and functions of matrix bands?

A

For class II, matrix band replaces the missing proximal wall

169
Q

Why does the wedge slightly separate teeth?

A

To compensate for the thickness of the matrix band

170
Q

What does the wedge protect?

A

Gingival tissue/rubber dam during prep

171
Q

What does the wedge seal?

A

Seals matrix against gingival floor to avoid overhang of amalgam

172
Q

What does the outer nut of the Tofflemire matrix retainer do?

A

Locks matrix band into retainer

173
Q

What does the inner nut of the Tofflemire matrix retainer do?

A

Adjusts size of matrix band

174
Q

What does the slotted guide of the Tofflemire matrix retainer do?

A

Holds the matrix band in place

175
Q

The Tofflemire matrix retainer should be _______ to the arch

A

parallel

176
Q

What is self assessment?

A

Learning process
More than recalling info
Assists in making individuals more aware/responsible of their own learning

177
Q

When does self assessment occur?

A
178
Q

What is the sequence of use when polishing amalgam restorations?

A

1.Brownie polisher = achieves smooth surface (pre-polish)

  1. Greenie polisher = creates lustrous polish
  2. Supergreenie polisher = creates high polish
179
Q

What does finishing a restoration mean?

A

Process of removing surface defects/scratches created during contouring process through use of cutting or grinding instruments (or both)

180
Q

What does polishing a restoration mean?

A

Most refined of the finishing processes; removes finest surface particle

Production of shiny mirror like surface, which reflects light similar to enamel

181
Q

How do you cause mercury to rise to the surface of an amalgam restoration?

A

During polishing, heat is created

Heat brings mercury to the surface of the restoration, which results in a dull, cloudy surface, and a surface that is more susceptible to corrosion

182
Q

How long should you wait before finishing and polishing amalgam restorations?

A

At least 24 hours after it has been placed and carved

183
Q

What is required for the development of caries?

A

Primary modifying factors (like tooth anatomy, saliva, pH) + secondary modifying factors (education, socio-economic status, age) + host + cariogenic biofilm + time + fermentable carbohydrates = caries

184
Q

What bacteria is responsible for caries formation?

A

Streptococcus mutans

D1 Spring (47 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions