NREMT Study Deck Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Blood Pressure

A

The pressure caused by blood exerting force against the walls of the blood vessels. Usually arterial blood pressure (the pressure in an artery) is measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brachial Artery

A

Artery of the upper arm; the site of the pulse checked during infant CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bronchi

A

The two large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs. There are right and left bronchi Singular (Bronchus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Buffer System

A

A system that helps manage the pH of the body to maintain it at a normal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Calcaneus

A

The heel bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Capillary

A

A thin-walled, microscopic blood vessel where the oxygen/carbon dioxide and nutrient/waste exchange with the body’s cells takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac Conduction System

A

A system of specialized muscle tissues that conducts electrical impulses that stimulates the heart to beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cardiac Muscle

A

Specialized involuntary muscle found only in the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiovascular System

A

The system made up of the heart (cardio), and the blood vessels (vascular). Vascular System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Carotid Artery

A

The large neck arteries, one on each side of the neck, that carry blood from the heart to the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Carpals

A

The Wrist bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Central Nervous System

A

The brain and the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Central Pulses

A

Carotid Femoral These can be felt in the central part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clavicle

A

The collarbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Coronary Arteries

A

Blood vessels that supply the muscle of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Myocardium

A

The heart muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cranium

A

Consists of: The top The back The sides of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cricoid Cartilage

A

The ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dermis

A

The inner (second) layer of the skin, rich in blood vessels and nerves, found beneath the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Diaphragm

A

The muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity; a major muscle of respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure in the arteries when the left ventricle is REFILLING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Digestive system

A

Systems by which food travels through the body and is digested, or broken down, into absorbable forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dorsalis Pedis Artery

A

Artery supplying the foot, lateral to the large tendon of the big toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Endocrine System

A

System of glands that produce chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer layer of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epiglottis

A

A leaf shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Epinephrine

A

A hormone produced by the body. As a medication, it dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Exhalation

A

A passive process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax, causing the chest cavity to to decrease in size and air to flow out of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Femoral Artery (FEM-o-ral)

A

The major artery supplying the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Femur (FEE-mer)

A

The large bone of the thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fibula (FIB-u-luh)

A

The lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gallbladder

A

A sac on the underside of the liver that stores bile produced by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Humerus

A

The bone of the upper arm, between the shoulder of the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hypoperfusion

A

Inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to provide them with O2 and nutrients;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is Hypoperfusion a TRUE life threatening condition?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a another name for Hypoperfusion

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ilium

A

The superior and widest portion of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Inhalation

A

An ACTIVE process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm contract, expanding the size of the chest cavity, creating negative pressure in the chest, and and causing air to flow into the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Insulin

A

A hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Involuntary Muscles

A

Muscles that respond automatically to brain signals but cannot be consciously controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ischium

A

The lower, posterior portions of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Joint

A

The point where two bones come together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Kidneys

A

Organs of the renal system used to filter blood and regulate fluid levels of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Large Intestine

A

The muscular tube that removes water from waste products received from the small intestine and moves anything not absorbed by the body towards excretion from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Larynx

A

The voice box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ligament

A

Tissue that connects bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Liver

A

The largest organ of the body, which produces bile to assist in breakdown of fats and assists in breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lungs

A

The organs where exchange exchange of atmospheric O2 and waste CO2 takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lymphatic System

A

The system composed of organs, tissues and vessels that helps to maintain the fluid balance of the body and contributes to the body’s immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Malleolus

A

Protrusion on the side of the ankle. Consists of lateral and medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lateral Malleolus

A

Lateral malleolus - lower end of the fibula, is seen on the OUTER ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Medial Malleolus

A

Medial Malleolus - The lower end of the tibia, as seen on the INNER ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mandible

A

The lower jawbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Maxllae

A

The two fused bones fused, forming the upper jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Maubriam

A

The superior portion of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Metacarpals

A

The hand bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Metatarsals

A

The foot bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Muscle

A

Tissue that can contract to allow movement of a body part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Musculoskeletal System

A

The system of bones and skeletal muscle that support and protects the body and permits movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Nasal Bones

A

The nose bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nasopharnyx

A

The area directly posterior to posterior to the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Nervous System

A

The system of the brain, spinal cord and nerves that govern sensation, movement and thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Orbits

A

The bony structures around the eyes (the eye sockets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Oropharnyx

A

The area directly posterior to the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ovaries

A

Egg producing organs within the female reproductive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pancreas

A

A gland located behind the stomach that produces insulin and juices that assist in digestion of food in the duodenum of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Patella

A

The knee cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pelvis

A

The basin-shaped bony structure that supports the spine and is the point of proximal attachment for the lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Penis

A

The organ of male reproduction responsible for sexual intercourse and the exchange of sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Perfusion

A

The supply of O2 to and removal of waste from the cells and tissues of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

The nerves that center and leave the spinal cord and travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Peripheral Pulses

A

Consist of: Radial, Brachial, Posterior Tibial and Dorsalis Pedis pulses. These can be felt at peripheral (outlying) points of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Phalanges

A

Toe and finger bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pharynx (FAIR-inks)

A

The area directly posterior to the mouth and nose , It is made up of the oropharynx and the nasopharnyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Physiology

A

The study of body function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Plasma

A

The fluid portion of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Platelets

A

Components of the blood, membrane-enclosed fragments of specialized cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Posterior Tibial Artery

A

Artery supplying blood to the foot, behind the medial ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pubis

A

The medial anterior pert of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pulmonary Arteries

A

The vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Pulmonary Veins

A

The veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lunges to the LEFT ATRIUM of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pulse

A

The rhythmic beat caused as waves of blood move through the expanded arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Radial Artery

A

Artery of the lower arm; the artery felt when taking the pulse at the thumb side of the wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Radius

A

The lateral bone of the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Red Blood Cells

A

Components of the blood. They carry O2 to and CO2 away from the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Renal System

A

The body system that regulates fluid balance and the filtration of blood. (aka the Urinary System)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Reproductive System

A

The body system that is responsible for human reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Respiration

A

The process of moving O2 and CO2 between circulating blood and the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Respiratory System

A

The system of nose, mouth, throat, lungs, and muscles that brings O2 into the body and expels CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Scapula

A

The shoulder blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Shock

A

AKA Hypoperfusion - Inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to provide them with O2 and nutrients; (A LIFE THREATENING CONDITION)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Skeleton

A

The bones of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Skin

A

The layer of tissue between the body and the external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Skull

A

The bony structure of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Small Intestine

A

The muscular tube between the stomach and the large intestine, divided into the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum, that receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues digestion. Nutrients are absorbed by the body through its walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Spleen

A

An organ located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen that acts as a blood filtration system and a reservoir for reserves of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Sternum

A

The breastbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Stomach

A

Muscular sac between the esophagus and the small intestine where digestion of food begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Subcutaneous layers

A

The layers of fat and soft tissues found below the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure created in the arteries when the LEFT VENTRICLE contracts and forces blood out into circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Tarsals

A

The ankle bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Testes

A

The male organs or reproduction, used for the production of sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Thorax

A

The chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Thyroid Cartilage

A

The wing shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms the Adam’s apple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Tibia

A

The medial and larger bone of the lower leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Torso

A

The trunk of the body; the body without the head and the extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Trachea

A

The “windpipe”; the structure that connects the pharynx to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Ulna

A

The medial bone of the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Ureters

A

The tubes connecting the kidneys to the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Urethra

A

Tube connecting the bladder to the vagina or penis for excretion of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Uterus

A

Female organ of reproduction used to house the developing fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Vagina

A

The female organ for reproduction used for both sexual intercourse and as an exit from the the uterus for the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Vein

A

Any blood vessel returning blood to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Venae Cavae

A

The superior venae cavae and the inferior vena cavae. These two major veins return return blood from the body to the right atrium. (Singular - Vena Cava)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Ventilation

A

The process of moving gases (O2 and CO2) between inhaled air and the pulmonary circulation of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Ventricles

A

The two lower chambers of the heart. There is a right ventricle (which sends oxygen poor blood to the lungs) and a left ventricle (which sends O2 rich blood to the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Venule

A

The smallest kind of vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Vertebrae

A

The 33 bones of the spinal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Volunary Muscle

A

Muscle that can be consciously controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

White Blood Cells

A

Components of the blood. They produce substances that help the body to fight infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

The inferior portion of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Zygomatic Arches

A

Bones that form the structure of the cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Metabolism

A

The cellular function of converting nutrients into energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Electrolyte

A

A substance that when dissolved in H2O, separates into charged particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Aerobic Metabolism

A

The cellular process in which O2 is used to metabolize glucose. Energy is produced in an efficient manner, with minimal waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Anaerobic Metabolism

A

The cellular process in which glucose is metabolized into energy without O2. Energy is produced in an INEFFICIENT manner, with many wast products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Patent

A

Open and clear; Free from Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Tidal Volume

A

The volume of air moved in one cycle of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Minute Volume

A

The amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by the number of breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Dead Air Space

A

Air that occupies the space between the mouth and alveoli but that does not actually reach the area of gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

Chemical sensors in the brain and blood vessels that identify changing levels of O2 and CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Plasma Oncotic Pressure

A

The pull exerted by large proteins in the plasma portion of blood that tends to pull water from the body into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Hydrostatic Pressure

A

The pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push water out of the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Stretch Receptors

A

Sensors in blood vessels that identify internal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Systemic Vascular Resistance

A

The pressure in the peripheral blood vessels that the heart must overcome to pump blood into the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Stroke Volume

A

The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Cardiac Output

A

The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one minute (heart rate x stroke volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

V/Q Match

A

Ventilation/Perfusion match. This implies that the alveoli are supplied with enough air and that the air in the alveoli is matched with sufficient blood in the pulmonary capillaries to permit optimum exchange of O2 and CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Perfusion

A

The supply of O2 to and removal wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a resuult of the flow of the blood through the capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Hypoperfusion

A

Inability of the body to inadequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with O2 and nutrients. A life threatening condition (aka SHOCK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Shock

A

Inability of the body to inadequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with O2 and nutrients. A life threatening condition (aka HYPOPERFUSION)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Diaphoresis

A

Sweating; Condition of cool, pale, moist/sweaty skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Dehydration

A

An abnormally low amount of water in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Edema

A

Swelling associated with the movement of water into the interstitial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

An exaggerated response by the immune system to a particular substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Pathophysiology

A

The study of how disease processes affect the function of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What structure within a cell contains the genetic blueprint for reproduction?

A

The nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is the cellular structure that protects and selectively allows water and other substances into and out of the cell?

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

A loss of electrolytes could affect

A

cardiac muscle depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

FiO2

A

Fraction of inspired O2; the concentration of O2 in the air that we breathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Preload

A

How much blood is returned to the heart prior to the contraction; in other words, how much it is filled. The greater the filling of the the heart, the greater the stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Contractility

A

The force of contraction-that is, how hard the heart squeezes. The more forcefully the heart squeezes, the greater the stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Afterload

A

A function of the systemic vascular resistance. It is how much pressure the heart has to pump against to force blood into the system. The greater the pressure in the system, the lower the stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Anaerobic Respiration

A

A type of cell respiration that takes place in Anaerobes, and in which energy is released from glucose and other foods without the presence of O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What effect does the lack of O2 have on the cell?

A

The body must utilize anaerobic metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Cellular Energy (ATP) is important to the cells because it is needed for the operation of the:

A

Sodium Potassium Pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the Sodium Potassium Pumps responsible for?

A

Actively moving ions back and forth across the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

High level of acid in the body affect the O2 carrying molecules in the blood called

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

To provide adequate quantities of O2 for aerobic metabolism to occur, inhaled air must reach the alveoli of the lungs and the blood must reach the

A

capillaries that surround the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

When lung tissue is displaced or destroyed by mechanical force, it cannot exchange:

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How will Bradycardia affect the cardiac output?

A

The cardiac output will decrease The method of figuring this out is that the cardiac output is the amount of blood moved through the heart in one minute (HR x SV). Therefore, it will decrease if the pulse slows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Excessive permeability is a condition that affects the

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the effect of HYPOperfusion the cellular level?

A

Acids and waste products accumulate, damaging the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is Decompensated Shock also known as?

A

Hypotensive Shock. Occurs when compensatory mechanisms have not been successful or have subsequently failed in their effort to sustain perfusion is also known as hypotensive shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

When a patient is going into decompensated shock, what is the one major noticeable change in vital signs?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Swelling that is associated with the movement of water into the interstitial space is called?

A

Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which of the following is most likely to signal neurological impairment? 1. Fall injury 2. Long Bone Fracture 3. Seizures 4. Irregular pulse rate

A
  1. Seizures This is a common sign of neurological impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Most commonly, the combination of nausea - which may lead to vomiting - and diarrhea is caused by: 1. Compensated injuries 2. Compensated shock 3. A viral or bacterial infection 4. A fluid imbalance

A
  1. A viral or bacterial imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Meningitis

A

An infection of the protective layers of the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to shock? 1. Diarrhea 2. Headache 3. Hypertension 4. Tachycardia

A
  1. Diarrhea This would be due to loss of fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

If your patient has a drop in their respiratory rate due to a drug overdose, what is going to be the result when talking about their minute rate?

A

Their minute rate is going to drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is anemia?

A

a condition marked by a deficiency of red blood cells or of hemoglobin in the blood, resulting in pallor and weariness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What does severe sepsis change about the thin wall between the alveoli and the alveolar capillaries?

A

It’s permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is a cell’s internally created fuel that is responsible for powering all of the other cellular functions

A

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

An organ transplant can suppress the normal functions of: A. kidneys B. adrenal glands C. thyroid D. testes

A

B. Adrenal glands This is due to medications that the patient is taking after the transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Endocrine disorders generally involve too many or not enough: A. Hormones B. Blood Cells C. Glands D. Nerves

A

A. Hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is the: 1. Mitochondria 2. Sodium Pump 3. Nucleus 4. Endoplasmic Reticulum

A
  1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Your patient has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels he may faint. This disruption is most likely caused by:

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmits to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscles in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments. The sensors are called: 1. Pressure Receptors 2. Stretch Receptors 3. Chemo Receptors 4. Volume Receptors

A
  1. Stretch Receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

The human body is made up of ______% of water

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Preload

A

The amount of blood that is returned to the heart prior to the next heart contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Contractility

A

The force of the contraction of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Afterload

A

A function of systemic resistance. It is how much pressure the heart has to pump against to force blood out into the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

When carbon dioxide is not​ exchanged, the net result is high carbon​ dioxide, a condition called​ ________, within the body.

A

Hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

The respiratory system moves air in and out; however in order to __________ cells, the air that is inhaled, must meet up with the circulatory system

A

Perfuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Meningitis

A

Infection of the protective layer of the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Encephalitis

A

Infection of the brain itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A

(Hypovolemia) - Low Blood Volume; Occurs when blood is lost from the Cardiovascular system (such as in severe bleeding), or when the volume portion of the blood is lost (as in dehydration). In this case, too little volume leads to reduced pressure in the cardiovascular system. Without, adequate pressure, the heart has great difficulty pumping blood to all the necessary regions of the body, and cells become hypoperfused. Lost blood also leads to lost oxygen-carrying capacity, furthering the oxygen deficit in the cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Distributive Shock

A

In distributive shock, blood vessel tone is lost. The smooth muscle in the vessels loses its ability to maintain a normal diameter. Conditions such as anaphylaxis, or sepsis cause normally constricted vessels to dilate, and as a result, pressure within the system is reduced. With low pressure the blood cannot efficiently be pumped and blood flow to the cells is diminished. Hypoperfusion is the net result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is the net result of Distributed Shock if not handled in a timely fashion?

A

Hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A

In this form of shock, the heart fails in its ability to pump blood. Conditions such as myocardial infarction or trauma can lead to either an electrical problem such as a dysrhythmia, or a mechanical problem such as damage to the heart muscle itself. In either case, the pump fails and the cardiac output suffers. Hypoperfusion occurs when the heart can no longer maintain the pressure in the cardiovascular system and blood fails to be pumped to the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Obstructive Shock

A

Occasionally blood is physically prevented from flowing. In conditions such as tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade, and pulmonary embolism, large quantities of blood are prevented from reaching essential organs and vital areas. Hypoperfusion occurs as these organs and vital areas go without the blood they need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Stages of Shock are:

A
  1. Non-Progressive 2. Progressive Stage 3. Irreversible Stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Infancy

A

Stage of life = Birth - 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Moro reflex

A

Seen in a child in Child in Infancy stage - A response to being startled in which the infant throws out both arms, spreads the fingers, then grabs with fingers and arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Palmar reflex

A

Seen in a Child in infancy stage - A grasping reflex in which an infant grabs onto a finger placed in the infant’s palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Rooting Reflex

A

Seen in Infant - Reflex response in which a hungry infant automatically turns toward the stimulus when the cheek or one side of the mouth is touched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Sucking reflex

A

Seen in infant - Reflex in which stroking a hungry infant’s lips causes the infant to start sucking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Heart Rate for Newborn

A

100-170

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Heart Rate for Infant up to 1 Year Old

A

90-160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Respiratory Rate for Infant

A

30-60/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Respiratory Rate for up to 1 year old

A

24-30/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Systolic BP for infant

A

50-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Systolic BP for up to 1 year old

A

About 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Bonding

A

Formation of close relationship through frequent association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Trust vs Mistrust

A

Concept developed from an orderly, predicatble environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Scaffolding

A

Building on what one already knows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Temperament

A

The infant’s nature or personality, especially in terms of responding to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Toddler Phase

A

12 - 36 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Toddler normal Heart Rate

A

80-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Toddler normal Respiration Rate

A

24-40/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Toddler normal Systolic BP

A

90+ (age in years x 2) So in a 2 y/o (90+(2x2=4)4 = 94)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Preschool Age

A

3-5 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Preschool Normal Heart Rate

A

70-120/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Preschool Normal Respiratory Rate

A

22-34/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

School Age

A

6-12 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

School Age Heart Rate

A

65-120/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

School Age Respiratory Rate

A

18-30/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Adolescence

A

13-18 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Adolescence Heart Rate

A

60-100/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Adolescence Respiratory Rate

A

12-20/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Adolescence Systolic BP

A

107-117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Early Adulthood

A

19-40 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Early Adulthood Heart Rate

A

60-100/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Early Adulthood Respiratory Rate

A

12-20/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Early Adulthood Systolic BP

A

<120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Middle Adulthood

A

41-60 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Late Adulthood

A

61 and older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Late Adulthood

A

61 and older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Middle Adulthood

A

41-60 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Early Adulthood Systolic BP

A

<120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Early Adulthood Respiratory Rate

A

12-20/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Early Adulthood Heart Rate

A

60-100/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Early Adulthood

A

19-40 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Adolescence Systolic BP

A

107-117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Adolescence Respiratory Rate

A

12-20/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Adolescence Heart Rate

A

60-100/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Adolescence

A

13-18 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

School Age Respiratory Rate

A

18-30/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

School Age Heart Rate

A

65-120/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

School Age

A

6-12 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Preschool Normal Respiratory Rate

A

22-34/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Preschool Normal Heart Rate

A

70-120/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Preschool Age

A

3-5 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Toddler normal Systolic BP

A

90+ (age in years x 2) So in a 2 y/o (90+(2x2=4)4 = 94)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Toddler normal Respiration Rate

A

24-40/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Toddler normal Heart Rate

A

80-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Toddler Phase

A

12 - 36 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Temperament

A

The infant’s nature or personality, especially in terms of responding to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Scaffolding

A

Building on what one already knows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Trust vs Mistrust

A

Concept developed from an orderly, predicatble environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Bonding

A

Formation of close relationship through frequent association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Systolic BP for up to 1 year old

A

About 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Systolic BP for infant

A

50-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Respiratory Rate for up to 1 year old

A

24-30/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Respiratory Rate for Infant

A

30-60/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Heart Rate for Infant up to 1 Year Old

A

90-160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Heart Rate for Newborn

A

100-170

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Sucking reflex

A

Seen in infant - Reflex in which stroking a hungry infant’s lips causes the infant to start sucking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Rooting Reflex

A

Seen in Infant - Reflex response in which a hungry infant automatically turns toward the stimulus when the cheek or one side of the mouth is touched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Palmar reflex

A

Seen in a Child in infancy stage - A grasping reflex in which an infant grabs onto a finger placed in the infant’s palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Moro reflex

A

Seen in a child in Child in Infancy stage - A response to being startled in which the infant throws out both arms, spreads the fingers, then grabs with fingers and arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Infancy

A

Stage of life = Birth - 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Airway

A

The passageway by which air enters and leaves the body. The structures of the airway are the nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Patent airway

A

An airway (passage from nose or mouth to lungs) that is open and clear and will remain open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air into and out of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Glottic opening

A

The level of the vocal cords that defines the boundary between the upper and lower airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Esophagus

A

Lies posterior to the Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Broncioles

A

Structures just proximal to the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Brochoconstriction

A

The contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchial passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

The ___________ is the most common cause of airway obstruction

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

The contraction of smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Stridor

A

A high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed airflow in the upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

You approach a patient and speak with the patient. She says “Thank you for coming.” BASED ON THIS INFORMATION ONLY - What do you know about the status of her airway?

A

It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Hoarseness

A

Can be indicative of a narrowing of the upper airway (especially if this is something that came on suddenly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Snoring

A

This is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance (partial obstruction) to the flow of air to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Gurgling

A

The sound of fluid obstructing the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

You are at a restaurant and another patron in the restaurant suddenly jumps up and grasps their throat. You immediately ask if they can breath or speak. They just their head “no.” They appear unable to breath. Based on this information only, how would you identify their airway?

A

These are signs of an INADEQUATE airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What two questions do you want to ask yourself when assessing an airway?

A
  1. Is their airway open? 2. Will their airway STAY open?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise? 1. A patient who overdosed on Opioids, his breathing WAS 4-6 BBM, we administered NARCAN, he is now A&O (can be x 1, 2, or 3) and now is breathing 16 BBM 2. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum. 3. A Patient who panicked in the swimming pool, swallowed water, was coughing, but is not coughing now and has good BBM 4. A patient who started to snore after falling asleep, but after you being called, and you making contact with the patient, they are annoyed, but A&O x 3

A
  1. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise 1. Patient who is talking clearly, but is hoarse and throat hurts after screaming for hours at a concert 2. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring 3. Patient who was complaining of tightness in cheat, but took Benadryl and now feels “ok” 4. Patient who took a drink of water, aspirated a little of it, choked, coughed and is no longer coughing

A
  1. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Your patient is a child with retractions, nasal flaring, and AMS. These are signs that the patient has what?

A

An inadequate airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

As you listened to a patient’s chest, what would indicate an inadequate airway?

A

Diminished breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

When opening the airway of a patient what maneuver do you use?

A

Head Tilt, Chin Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, what maneuver would you use?

A

You use the jaw thrust maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

For which of these patients would the head tilt, chin-lift maneuver be most appropriate to open the airway? 1. A​ conscious, alert adult who is talking in​ short, choppy sentences 2. An infant who is crying very loudly because of an earache 3. An adult who was found lying prone and bruised at the base of a stairway 4. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed

A
  1. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Head-tilt, Chin-lift Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by the tongue by tilting the head back and lifting the chin. (Used when no trauma or injury is suspected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Jaw-Thrust Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head or neck. Used when trauma or injury is suspected to open the airway without causing further injury injury to the spinal cord in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

How do you clear a choking infants airway?

A
  1. Pick up the infant, and supporting the infant in one hand and forearm, while also supporting the chin (head tilted lower than the body) 2. Do 5 back slaps with the palm of your hand (this is NOT the time to be gentle) 3. Put the child supine, and perform 5 chest thrusts Repeat as many times as necessary to clear the airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

When sizing an NPA (Nasopharyngeal Airway), what is the proper way to conduct this measurement?

A

Measure from the tip of the patients nose to the tip of the earlobe (or angle of the jaw)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Oropharyngeal Airway

A

A curved device inserted through the patients mouth into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Nasopharyngeal Airway

A

A flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Gag reflex

A

Vomiting or retching that results when something is placed in the back of the pharynx. This is tied to the swallow reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

When inserting an airway, what is something that you always want to ensure that you do (other than measuring the device)

A

Have suction ready in the case of the patient vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

What technique would you use when inserting an OPA?

A

Crossed-finger technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

How do you initially insert the OPA?

A

Insert the OPA facing the roof of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

You inserted the OPA as you have been taught. What is the next thing that you would do, and when would you do this part of the task?

A

After getting resistance from the soft palate, you will rotate the OPA from the “tip up” position, 180 degrees and then you will continue advancing the OPA until it rests on the lips of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

After you have completed all of the steps of the OPA insertion, what would you do if the patient regains consciousness OR if a gag reflex is present?

A

REMOVE the OPA IMMEDIATELY (this is where your having the Suction present comes into play)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

The removal of a liquid foreign body from an airway would require WHAT adjunct?

A

Suctioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

When suctioning a patient which of the following would not normally be needed? 1. Gown 2. Eye Protection 3. Gloves 4. Mask

A
  1. Gown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

When should suction be applied to the catheter? 1. As you insert it and as you remove it 2. As you insert it 3. As you remove it 4. Before you insert it

A
  1. As you remove it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Suctioning

A

Use of a vacuum device to remove blood, vomitus, and other secretions or foreign materials from the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What is the first rule of suctioning

A

Always use appropriate infection control techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is the second rule of suctioning

A

Limit suctioning to NO LONGER THAN 10 SECONDS AT A TIME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What is the third rule of suctioning

A

Place the tip/catheter where you want to suction and suction on the way OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

When a collecting tube is clamped, a suctioning system must be able to generate no less than what? 1) 300 mmHg 2. 200 mmHg 3. 500 mmHg 4. 400 mmHg

A

1) 300 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

A proper technique of suctioning includes 1. Inserting the tip of the rigid catheter approximately 2 cm past the base of the tongue. 2. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue. 3. Suctioning while inserting the catheter into the​ patient’s mouth. 4. Positioning yourself at the​ patient’s side.

A
  1. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Your patient has a skull fracture and it has caused brain tissue to be visible in the pharynx during your inspection of the patient’s airway. What type of special consideration and action would be needed in this case?

A

Suctioning should be limited to the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

What large leaf-like object covers the glottic opening which seals off the trachea during swallowing or in response to a gag reflex

A

Epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

What should be done with dentures?

A

Leave them in place if at all possible. If there is a danger of them coming dislodged, then remove them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

What is the most important thing to consider when determining the need to suction

A

Constant observance of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

During bronchoconstriction, the smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages contracts, resulting in a decrease of the internal diameter of the airway and an increase of

A

Resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Carina

A

The branch in the bronchus where the bronchus splits to the left and right bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Suctioning is used to correct 1. Stridor 2. Foreign body obstruction 3. Hypoxia 4. Fluid in the upper airway

A
  1. Fluid in the upper airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

When an infant is unconscious in bed, what procedure should the EMT use to open the airway?

A

Head-tilt, chin lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

All of the following can result in airway obstructions except 1. facial trauma 2. infections 3. burns 4. the tongue

A
  1. the tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

When opening the airway of a patient what maneuver do you use?

A

Head Tilt, Chin Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

As you listened to a patient’s chest, what would indicate an inadequate airway?

A

Diminished breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Your patient is a child with retractions, nasal flaring, and AMS. These are signs that the patient has what?

A

An inadequate airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise 1. Patient who is talking clearly, but is hoarse and throat hurts after screaming for hours at a concert 2. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring 3. Patient who was complaining of tightness in cheat, but took Benadryl and now feels “ok” 4. Patient who took a drink of water, aspirated a little of it, choked, coughed and is no longer coughing

A
  1. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise? 1. A patient who overdosed on Opioids, his breathing WAS 4-6 BBM, we administered NARCAN, he is now A&O (can be x 1, 2, or 3) and now is breathing 16 BBM 2. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum. 3. A Patient who panicked in the swimming pool, swallowed water, was coughing, but is not coughing now and has good BBM 4. A patient who started to snore after falling asleep, but after you being called, and you making contact with the patient, they are annoyed, but A&O x 3

A
  1. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

What two questions do you want to ask yourself when assessing an airway?

A
  1. Is their airway open? 2. Will their airway STAY open?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

You are at a restaurant and another patron in the restaurant suddenly jumps up and grasps their throat. You immediately ask if they can breath or speak. They just their head “no.” They appear unable to breath. Based on this information only, how would you identify their airway?

A

These are signs of an INADEQUATE airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Gurgling

A

The sound of fluid obstructing the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Snoring

A

This is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance (partial obstruction) to the flow of air to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Hoarseness

A

Can be indicative of a narrowing of the upper airway (especially if this is something that came on suddenly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

You approach a patient and speak with the patient. She says “Thank you for coming.” BASED ON THIS INFORMATION ONLY - What do you know about the status of her airway?

A

It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Stridor

A

A high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed airflow in the upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

The contraction of smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

The ___________ is the most common cause of airway obstruction

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Brochoconstriction

A

The contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchial passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Broncioles

A

Structures just proximal to the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Esophagus

A

Lies posterior to the Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

How do you clear a choking infants airway?

A
  1. Pick up the infant, and supporting the infant in one hand and forearm, while also supporting the chin (head tilted lower than the body) 2. Do 5 back slaps with the palm of your hand (this is NOT the time to be gentle) 3. Put the child supine, and perform 5 chest thrusts Repeat as many times as necessary to clear the airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

After you have completed all of the steps of the OPA insertion, what would you do if the patient regains consciousness OR if a gag reflex is present?

A

REMOVE the OPA IMMEDIATELY (this is where your having the Suction present comes into play)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

The removal of a liquid foreign body from an airway would require WHAT adjunct?

A

Suctioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

When suctioning a patient which of the following would not normally be needed? 1. Gown 2. Eye Protection 3. Gloves 4. Mask

A
  1. Gown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

When should suction be applied to the catheter? 1. As you insert it and as you remove it 2. As you insert it 3. As you remove it 4. Before you insert it

A
  1. As you remove it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Suctioning

A

Use of a vacuum device to remove blood, vomitus, and other secretions or foreign materials from the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

What is the first rule of suctioning

A

Always use appropriate infection control techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

What is the second rule of suctioning

A

Limit suctioning to NO LONGER THAN 10 SECONDS AT A TIME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

What is the third rule of suctioning

A

Place the tip/catheter where you want to suction and suction on the way OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

When a collecting tube is clamped, a suctioning system must be able to generate no less than what? 1) 300 mmHg 2. 200 mmHg 3. 500 mmHg 4. 400 mmHg

A

1) 300 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

A proper technique of suctioning includes 1. Inserting the tip of the rigid catheter approximately 2 cm past the base of the tongue. 2. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue. 3. Suctioning while inserting the catheter into the​ patient’s mouth. 4. Positioning yourself at the​ patient’s side.

A
  1. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Your patient has a skull fracture and it has caused brain tissue to be visible in the pharynx during your inspection of the patient’s airway. What type of special consideration and action would be needed in this case?

A

Suctioning should be limited to the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

What large leaf-like object covers the glottic opening which seals off the trachea during swallowing or in response to a gag reflex

A

Epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

What should be done with dentures?

A

Leave them in place if at all possible. If there is a danger of them coming dislodged, then remove them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

What is the most important thing to consider when determining the need to suction

A

Constant observance of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

During bronchoconstriction, the smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages contracts, resulting in a decrease of the internal diameter of the airway and an increase of

A

Resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Carina

A

The branch in the bronchus where the bronchus splits to the left and right bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Suctioning is used to correct 1. Stridor 2. Foreign body obstruction 3. Hypoxia 4. Fluid in the upper airway

A
  1. Fluid in the upper airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

When an infant is unconscious in bed, what procedure should the EMT use to open the airway?

A

Head-tilt, chin lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

All of the following can result in airway obstructions except 1. facial trauma 2. infections 3. burns 4. the tongue

A
  1. the tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

You inserted the OPA as you have been taught. What is the next thing that you would do, and when would you do this part of the task?

A

After getting resistance from the soft palate, you will rotate the OPA from the “tip up” position, 180 degrees and then you will continue advancing the OPA until it rests on the lips of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

How do you initially insert the OPA?

A

Insert the OPA facing the roof of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

What technique would you use when inserting an OPA?

A

Crossed-finger technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

When inserting an airway, what is something that you always want to ensure that you do (other than measuring the device)

A

Have suction ready in the case of the patient vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Gag reflex

A

Vomiting or retching that results when something is placed in the back of the pharynx. This is tied to the swallow reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Nasopharyngeal Airway

A

A flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Oropharyngeal Airway

A

A curved device inserted through the patients mouth into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

When sizing an NPA (Nasopharyngeal Airway), what is the proper way to conduct this measurement?

A

Measure from the tip of the patients nose to the tip of the earlobe (or angle of the jaw)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Jaw-Thrust Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head or neck. Used when trauma or injury is suspected to open the airway without causing further injury injury to the spinal cord in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Head-tilt, Chin-lift Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by the tongue by tilting the head back and lifting the chin. (Used when no trauma or injury is suspected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

For which of these patients would the head tilt, chin-lift maneuver be most appropriate to open the airway? 1. A​ conscious, alert adult who is talking in​ short, choppy sentences 2. An infant who is crying very loudly because of an earache 3. An adult who was found lying prone and bruised at the base of a stairway 4. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed

A
  1. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, what maneuver would you use?

A

You use the jaw thrust maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

When opening the airway of a patient what maneuver do you use?

A

Head Tilt, Chin Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

As you listened to a patient’s chest, what would indicate an inadequate airway?

A

Diminished breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Your patient is a child with retractions, nasal flaring, and AMS. These are signs that the patient has what?

A

An inadequate airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise 1. Patient who is talking clearly, but is hoarse and throat hurts after screaming for hours at a concert 2. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring 3. Patient who was complaining of tightness in cheat, but took Benadryl and now feels “ok” 4. Patient who took a drink of water, aspirated a little of it, choked, coughed and is no longer coughing

A
  1. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise? 1. A patient who overdosed on Opioids, his breathing WAS 4-6 BBM, we administered NARCAN, he is now A&O (can be x 1, 2, or 3) and now is breathing 16 BBM 2. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum. 3. A Patient who panicked in the swimming pool, swallowed water, was coughing, but is not coughing now and has good BBM 4. A patient who started to snore after falling asleep, but after you being called, and you making contact with the patient, they are annoyed, but A&O x 3

A
  1. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

What two questions do you want to ask yourself when assessing an airway?

A
  1. Is their airway open? 2. Will their airway STAY open?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

You are at a restaurant and another patron in the restaurant suddenly jumps up and grasps their throat. You immediately ask if they can breath or speak. They just their head “no.” They appear unable to breath. Based on this information only, how would you identify their airway?

A

These are signs of an INADEQUATE airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Gurgling

A

The sound of fluid obstructing the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Snoring

A

This is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance (partial obstruction) to the flow of air to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

Hoarseness

A

Can be indicative of a narrowing of the upper airway (especially if this is something that came on suddenly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

You approach a patient and speak with the patient. She says “Thank you for coming.” BASED ON THIS INFORMATION ONLY - What do you know about the status of her airway?

A

It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Stridor

A

A high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed airflow in the upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

The contraction of smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

The ___________ is the most common cause of airway obstruction

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Brochoconstriction

A

The contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchial passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Broncioles

A

Structures just proximal to the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

Esophagus

A

Lies posterior to the Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Glottic opening

A

The level of the vocal cords that defines the boundary between the upper and lower airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Glottic opening

A

The level of the vocal cords that defines the boundary between the upper and lower airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

All of the following can result in airway obstructions except 1. facial trauma 2. infections 3. burns 4. the tongue

A
  1. the tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

When an infant is unconscious in bed, what procedure should the EMT use to open the airway?

A

Head-tilt, chin lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

Suctioning is used to correct 1. Stridor 2. Foreign body obstruction 3. Hypoxia 4. Fluid in the upper airway

A
  1. Fluid in the upper airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

Carina

A

The branch in the bronchus where the bronchus splits to the left and right bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

During bronchoconstriction, the smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages contracts, resulting in a decrease of the internal diameter of the airway and an increase of

A

Resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

What is the most important thing to consider when determining the need to suction

A

Constant observance of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

What should be done with dentures?

A

Leave them in place if at all possible. If there is a danger of them coming dislodged, then remove them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

What large leaf-like object covers the glottic opening which seals off the trachea during swallowing or in response to a gag reflex

A

Epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

Your patient has a skull fracture and it has caused brain tissue to be visible in the pharynx during your inspection of the patient’s airway. What type of special consideration and action would be needed in this case?

A

Suctioning should be limited to the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

A proper technique of suctioning includes 1. Inserting the tip of the rigid catheter approximately 2 cm past the base of the tongue. 2. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue. 3. Suctioning while inserting the catheter into the​ patient’s mouth. 4. Positioning yourself at the​ patient’s side.

A
  1. Inserting the catheter no farther than the base of the tongue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

When a collecting tube is clamped, a suctioning system must be able to generate no less than what? 1) 300 mmHg 2. 200 mmHg 3. 500 mmHg 4. 400 mmHg

A

1) 300 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

What is the third rule of suctioning

A

Place the tip/catheter where you want to suction and suction on the way OUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

What is the second rule of suctioning

A

Limit suctioning to NO LONGER THAN 10 SECONDS AT A TIME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

What is the first rule of suctioning

A

Always use appropriate infection control techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

Suctioning

A

Use of a vacuum device to remove blood, vomitus, and other secretions or foreign materials from the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

When should suction be applied to the catheter? 1. As you insert it and as you remove it 2. As you insert it 3. As you remove it 4. Before you insert it

A
  1. As you remove it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

When suctioning a patient which of the following would not normally be needed? 1. Gown 2. Eye Protection 3. Gloves 4. Mask

A
  1. Gown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

The removal of a liquid foreign body from an airway would require WHAT adjunct?

A

Suctioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

After you have completed all of the steps of the OPA insertion, what would you do if the patient regains consciousness OR if a gag reflex is present?

A

REMOVE the OPA IMMEDIATELY (this is where your having the Suction present comes into play)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

You inserted the OPA as you have been taught. What is the next thing that you would do, and when would you do this part of the task?

A

After getting resistance from the soft palate, you will rotate the OPA from the “tip up” position, 180 degrees and then you will continue advancing the OPA until it rests on the lips of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

How do you initially insert the OPA?

A

Insert the OPA facing the roof of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

What technique would you use when inserting an OPA?

A

Crossed-finger technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

When inserting an airway, what is something that you always want to ensure that you do (other than measuring the device)

A

Have suction ready in the case of the patient vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

Gag reflex

A

Vomiting or retching that results when something is placed in the back of the pharynx. This is tied to the swallow reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

Nasopharyngeal Airway

A

A flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

Oropharyngeal Airway

A

A curved device inserted through the patients mouth into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

When sizing an NPA (Nasopharyngeal Airway), what is the proper way to conduct this measurement?

A

Measure from the tip of the patients nose to the tip of the earlobe (or angle of the jaw)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
411
Q

How do you clear a choking infants airway?

A
  1. Pick up the infant, and supporting the infant in one hand and forearm, while also supporting the chin (head tilted lower than the body) 2. Do 5 back slaps with the palm of your hand (this is NOT the time to be gentle) 3. Put the child supine, and perform 5 chest thrusts Repeat as many times as necessary to clear the airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
412
Q

Jaw-Thrust Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head or neck. Used when trauma or injury is suspected to open the airway without causing further injury injury to the spinal cord in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
413
Q

Head-tilt, Chin-lift Maneuver

A

A means of correcting blockage of the airway by the tongue by tilting the head back and lifting the chin. (Used when no trauma or injury is suspected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
414
Q

For which of these patients would the head tilt, chin-lift maneuver be most appropriate to open the airway? 1. A​ conscious, alert adult who is talking in​ short, choppy sentences 2. An infant who is crying very loudly because of an earache 3. An adult who was found lying prone and bruised at the base of a stairway 4. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed

A
  1. An​ unconscious, adult overdose victim who was found in his bed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
415
Q

When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, what maneuver would you use?

A

You use the jaw thrust maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
416
Q

When opening the airway of a patient what maneuver do you use?

A

Head Tilt, Chin Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
417
Q

As you listened to a patient’s chest, what would indicate an inadequate airway?

A

Diminished breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
418
Q

Your patient is a child with retractions, nasal flaring, and AMS. These are signs that the patient has what?

A

An inadequate airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
419
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise 1. Patient who is talking clearly, but is hoarse and throat hurts after screaming for hours at a concert 2. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring 3. Patient who was complaining of tightness in cheat, but took Benadryl and now feels “ok” 4. Patient who took a drink of water, aspirated a little of it, choked, coughed and is no longer coughing

A
  1. A conscious patient with diminished lung sounds and nasal flaring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
420
Q

Which of these patients has an open airway, but is still at risk for airway compromise? 1. A patient who overdosed on Opioids, his breathing WAS 4-6 BBM, we administered NARCAN, he is now A&O (can be x 1, 2, or 3) and now is breathing 16 BBM 2. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum. 3. A Patient who panicked in the swimming pool, swallowed water, was coughing, but is not coughing now and has good BBM 4. A patient who started to snore after falling asleep, but after you being called, and you making contact with the patient, they are annoyed, but A&O x 3

A
  1. A patient rescued from a structure fire, has facial burns, is coughing up black, sooty sputum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
421
Q

What two questions do you want to ask yourself when assessing an airway?

A
  1. Is their airway open? 2. Will their airway STAY open?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
422
Q

You are at a restaurant and another patron in the restaurant suddenly jumps up and grasps their throat. You immediately ask if they can breath or speak. They just their head “no.” They appear unable to breath. Based on this information only, how would you identify their airway?

A

These are signs of an INADEQUATE airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
423
Q

Gurgling

A

The sound of fluid obstructing the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
424
Q

Snoring

A

This is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance (partial obstruction) to the flow of air to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
425
Q

Hoarseness

A

Can be indicative of a narrowing of the upper airway (especially if this is something that came on suddenly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
426
Q

You approach a patient and speak with the patient. She says “Thank you for coming.” BASED ON THIS INFORMATION ONLY - What do you know about the status of her airway?

A

It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
427
Q

Stridor

A

A high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed airflow in the upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
428
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

The contraction of smooth muscles that line the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased resistance to airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
429
Q

The ___________ is the most common cause of airway obstruction

A

Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
430
Q

Brochoconstriction

A

The contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchial passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
431
Q

Broncioles

A

Structures just proximal to the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
432
Q

Esophagus

A

Lies posterior to the Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
433
Q

Patent airway

A

An airway (passage from nose or mouth to lungs) that is open and clear and will remain open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air into and out of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
434
Q

Glottic opening

A

The level of the vocal cords that defines the boundary between the upper and lower airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
435
Q

Airway

A

The passageway by which air enters and leaves the body. The structures of the airway are the nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
436
Q

Patent airway

A

An airway (passage from nose or mouth to lungs) that is open and clear and will remain open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air into and out of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
437
Q

Airway

A

The passageway by which air enters and leaves the body. The structures of the airway are the nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
438
Q

Patent airway

A

An airway (passage from nose or mouth to lungs) that is open and clear and will remain open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air into and out of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
439
Q

Airway

A

The passageway by which air enters and leaves the body. The structures of the airway are the nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
440
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
441
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
442
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
443
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
444
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
445
Q

Pulmonary Respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
446
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between cells and circulating blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
447
Q

Respiration

A

The diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration), Also used to mean, simply breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
448
Q

Hypoxia

A

An insufficiency of O2 in the body’s tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
449
Q

Respiratory Distress

A

Increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
450
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

The inadequacy of breathing to the point where O2 intake or the ventilation removal of CO2 is not sufficient to support life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
451
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

When breathing completely stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blue or gray color resulting from lack of O2 in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
453
Q

Artificial Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
454
Q

Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called artificial ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
455
Q

Pocket Face Mask

A

A device, usually with a one-way valve, to aid in artificial ventilation. A rescuer breathes through the valve when the mask is placed over the patient’s face, it also acts as a barrier to prevent contact with a patient’s breath or bodily fluids. It can also be used with supplemental O2 when fitted with an O2 inlet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
456
Q

Bag Valve Mask (BVM)

A

A hand-held device with a face mask and self refilling bag that can be squeezed to provide artificial ventilations to a patient. It can deliver air from the atmosphere or O2 from supplemental O2 supply system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
457
Q

Stoma

A

A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
458
Q

Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)

A

A device that provides positive pressure ventilations. It includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume, is portable and is easily carried on an ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
459
Q

Oxygen Cylinder

A

A Cylinder filled with O2 under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
460
Q

Pressure Regulator

A

A device connected to an O2 cylinder to reduce cylinder pressure so it is safe for delivery of O2 to a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
461
Q

Flowmeter

A

A valve that indicates the flow of O2 in liters per minute (LPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
462
Q

Humidifier

A

A device connected to the flowmeter to add moisture to the dry O2 coming from an O2 cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
463
Q

Non-Rebreather (NRB) Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers high concentrations of O2. The patients exhaled air escapes through a valve (flutter valves), and is not re-breathed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
464
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

A device that delivers low concentration of O2 through two (2) prongs that rest in the patient’s nostril’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
465
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir O2 bag with NO one way valve to the reservoir bag. So, some exhaled air, mixes with the O2, used in some patients to help preserve CO2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
466
Q

Venturi Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of O2 by mixing O2 with inhaled air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
467
Q

Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
468
Q

Amount of Air that enters the alveoli for gas exchange is referred to as:

A

Alveolar ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
469
Q

For pulmonary and cellular respiration to work efficiently __________ must also be functioning

A

Cardiovascular System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
470
Q

When a person inhales, the diaphragm 1. contracts and the intercostal muscles relax 2. and the intercostal muscles relax 3. relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract 4. and the intercostal muscles contract

A
  1. and the intercostal muscles contract When a person inhales….the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
471
Q

In which of the following situations does the chest expand, the diaphragm contracts, and a negative intrathoracic pressure is created? 1. Exhalation 2. Apnea 3. Inhalation 4. Passive Breathing

A
  1. Inhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
472
Q

Alveolar ventilation can be altered through changes in rate as well as changes in:

A

TIDAL VOLUME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
473
Q

Minute Volume is determined primarily by

A

Respiratory rate and tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
474
Q

When calculating alveolar ventilation, what must be subtracted from what?

A

Dead Air from Tidal Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
475
Q

What happens with O2 and CO2 during the process of Pulmonary Respiration?

A

O2 is loaded into the hemoglobin of the blood from the alveoli, and CO2 is off-loaded from the blood into the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
476
Q

Insufficient supply of O2 to the body’s tissues is known as what?

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
477
Q

What primarily differentiates a patient a patient with adequate breathing from a patient with inadequate breathing?

A

The body of a patient with adequate breathing is still able to compensate for increasing O2 demand, but the body of a patient with inadequate breathing is no longer able to compensate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
478
Q

A patient ceasing to be able to speak is most likely a sign of

A

Respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
479
Q

What is the least reliable as a sign of respiratory arrest in a patient? 1. Absent breath sounds 2. Gasping 3. Unconsciousness 4. No chest rise or fall

A
  1. Gasping Gasping may be present in a patient in respiratory arrest, gasping and normal breathing can be confused, and gasping may indicate respiratory failure, not arrest. In some cases, gasping may be present during adequate breathing. The other signs are much more indicative of respiratory arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
480
Q

For a patient with very slow ventilations you should:

A

Add ventilations in between the patients own breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
481
Q

If you are asked to assist a Paramedic in their placing an airway using an Laryngoscope, you would use was maneuver?

A

BURP maneuver Bringing Up Right Position This maneuver is where you will take your thumb and index finger, gently press down on the vocal cords. This helps the Paramedic to be able to visualize the vocal cords, ensuring proper placement of the ET.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
482
Q

After a patient is intubated, you listen for lung sounds during ventilations and you SHOULD hear sounds in _____, and NOT _______

A

in all four quadrants of the lungs NOT in the epigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
483
Q

Nonrebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

12-15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
484
Q

Nonrebreather O2 Concentrationg

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
485
Q

Appropriate use for Nonrebreather Mask

A

Delivery system of choice for patients with signs of severe hypoxia and those SOB, suffering severe injuries, or displaying an altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
486
Q

Nasal Cannula Flow Rate

A

1-6 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
487
Q

Nasal Cannula O2 Concentration

A

24-44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
488
Q

Appropriate use for Nasal Cannula

A

Appropriate for patients with sx of hypoxia and those SOB who need a small amount of supplemental O2 or cannot tolerate a mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
489
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

9-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
490
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask O2 Concentration

A

40-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
491
Q

Appropriate use for Partial Rebreather Mask

A

Usually not use in EMS. Some patients may use at home to treat ongoing respiratory diseases such as COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
492
Q

Venturi Mask Flow Rate

A

Varied, depending on device; up to 15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
493
Q

Venturi Mask O2 Concentration

A

24-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
494
Q

Appropriate use for Venturi Mask

A

A device used to deliver a specific concentration of O2. Device delivers 24-60% O2, depending on adapter tip and O2 flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
495
Q

Tracheostomy Mask Flow Rate

A

8-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
496
Q

Tracheostomy O2 Concentration

A

Can be set up to deliver varying O2 percentages as required by patient; desired percentage of O2 may be recommended by the home care agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
497
Q

Appropriate use for the Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device used to deliver ventilations/O2 through a stoma or tracheostomy tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
498
Q

How should you position a patient with a stoma as you are administering BVM artificial respirations?

A

Leave the head of the patient in the neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
499
Q

A constant flow selector valve type of low-pressure flowmeter _________ 1. may only be used with M or larger cylinders 2. is not adjustable 3. may only be used when upright 4. has no gauge

A
  1. has no gauge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
500
Q

Vomitus from gastric distension during artificial ventilation 1. is a sign that volume needs to be increased 2. indicates an improperly protected airway 3. is normal 4. indicates inadequate respiration

A
  1. indicates an improperly protected airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
501
Q

Always open the valve on an O2 cylinder fully, then close it by how much to prevent someone else from thinking that the valve is closed and trying to force it open?

A

Half a turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
502
Q

To inflate the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather mask, use your finger to cover the: 1. intake valve 2. exhaust port 3. flowmeter 4. pressure regulator

A
  1. exhaust port
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
503
Q

At the point at which a patients body has become acidotic from the retention of too much CO2 and from anaerobic metabolism, and he is growing tired, the patient is in: 1. severe respiratory distress 2. increasing respiratory distress 3. respiratory failure 4. respiratory arrest

A
  1. respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
504
Q

At the smallest level, respiration involved the: 1. lungs 2. bronchioles 3. alveoli 4. cells

A
  1. cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
505
Q

What is the safe residual for an O2 cylinder?

A

200 psi or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
506
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
507
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
508
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
509
Q

What is the safe residual for an O2 cylinder?

A

200 psi or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
510
Q

At the smallest level, respiration involved the: 1. lungs 2. bronchioles 3. alveoli 4. cells

A
  1. cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
511
Q

At the point at which a patients body has become acidotic from the retention of too much CO2 and from anaerobic metabolism, and he is growing tired, the patient is in: 1. severe respiratory distress 2. increasing respiratory distress 3. respiratory failure 4. respiratory arrest

A
  1. respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
512
Q

To inflate the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather mask, use your finger to cover the: 1. intake valve 2. exhaust port 3. flowmeter 4. pressure regulator

A
  1. exhaust port
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
513
Q

Always open the valve on an O2 cylinder fully, then close it by how much to prevent someone else from thinking that the valve is closed and trying to force it open?

A

Half a turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
514
Q

Vomitus from gastric distension during artificial ventilation 1. is a sign that volume needs to be increased 2. indicates an improperly protected airway 3. is normal 4. indicates inadequate respiration

A
  1. indicates an improperly protected airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
515
Q

A constant flow selector valve type of low-pressure flowmeter _________ 1. may only be used with M or larger cylinders 2. is not adjustable 3. may only be used when upright 4. has no gauge

A
  1. has no gauge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
516
Q

How should you position a patient with a stoma as you are administering BVM artificial respirations?

A

Leave the head of the patient in the neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
517
Q

Appropriate use for the Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device used to deliver ventilations/O2 through a stoma or tracheostomy tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
518
Q

Tracheostomy O2 Concentration

A

Can be set up to deliver varying O2 percentages as required by patient; desired percentage of O2 may be recommended by the home care agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
519
Q

Tracheostomy Mask Flow Rate

A

8-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
520
Q

Appropriate use for Venturi Mask

A

A device used to deliver a specific concentration of O2. Device delivers 24-60% O2, depending on adapter tip and O2 flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
521
Q

Venturi Mask O2 Concentration

A

24-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
522
Q

Venturi Mask Flow Rate

A

Varied, depending on device; up to 15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
523
Q

Appropriate use for Partial Rebreather Mask

A

Usually not use in EMS. Some patients may use at home to treat ongoing respiratory diseases such as COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
524
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask O2 Concentration

A

40-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
525
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

9-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
526
Q

Appropriate use for Nasal Cannula

A

Appropriate for patients with sx of hypoxia and those SOB who need a small amount of supplemental O2 or cannot tolerate a mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
527
Q

Nasal Cannula O2 Concentration

A

24-44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
528
Q

Nasal Cannula Flow Rate

A

1-6 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
529
Q

Appropriate use for Nonrebreather Mask

A

Delivery system of choice for patients with signs of severe hypoxia and those SOB, suffering severe injuries, or displaying an altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
530
Q

Nonrebreather O2 Concentrationg

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
531
Q

Nonrebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

12-15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
532
Q

After a patient is intubated, you listen for lung sounds during ventilations and you SHOULD hear sounds in _____, and NOT _______

A

in all four quadrants of the lungs NOT in the epigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
533
Q

If you are asked to assist a Paramedic in their placing an airway using an Laryngoscope, you would use was maneuver?

A

BURP maneuver Bringing Up Right Position This maneuver is where you will take your thumb and index finger, gently press down on the vocal cords. This helps the Paramedic to be able to visualize the vocal cords, ensuring proper placement of the ET.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
534
Q

For a patient with very slow ventilations you should:

A

Add ventilations in between the patients own breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
535
Q

What is the least reliable as a sign of respiratory arrest in a patient? 1. Absent breath sounds 2. Gasping 3. Unconsciousness 4. No chest rise or fall

A
  1. Gasping Gasping may be present in a patient in respiratory arrest, gasping and normal breathing can be confused, and gasping may indicate respiratory failure, not arrest. In some cases, gasping may be present during adequate breathing. The other signs are much more indicative of respiratory arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
536
Q

A patient ceasing to be able to speak is most likely a sign of

A

Respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
537
Q

What primarily differentiates a patient a patient with adequate breathing from a patient with inadequate breathing?

A

The body of a patient with adequate breathing is still able to compensate for increasing O2 demand, but the body of a patient with inadequate breathing is no longer able to compensate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
538
Q

Insufficient supply of O2 to the body’s tissues is known as what?

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
539
Q

What happens with O2 and CO2 during the process of Pulmonary Respiration?

A

O2 is loaded into the hemoglobin of the blood from the alveoli, and CO2 is off-loaded from the blood into the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
540
Q

When calculating alveolar ventilation, what must be subtracted from what?

A

Dead Air from Tidal Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
541
Q

Minute Volume is determined primarily by

A

Respiratory rate and tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
542
Q

Alveolar ventilation can be altered through changes in rate as well as changes in:

A

TIDAL VOLUME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
543
Q

In which of the following situations does the chest expand, the diaphragm contracts, and a negative intrathoracic pressure is created? 1. Exhalation 2. Apnea 3. Inhalation 4. Passive Breathing

A
  1. Inhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
544
Q

When a person inhales, the diaphragm 1. contracts and the intercostal muscles relax 2. and the intercostal muscles relax 3. relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract 4. and the intercostal muscles contract

A
  1. and the intercostal muscles contract When a person inhales….the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
545
Q

For pulmonary and cellular respiration to work efficiently __________ must also be functioning

A

Cardiovascular System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
546
Q

Amount of Air that enters the alveoli for gas exchange is referred to as:

A

Alveolar ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
547
Q

Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
548
Q

Venturi Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of O2 by mixing O2 with inhaled air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
549
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir O2 bag with NO one way valve to the reservoir bag. So, some exhaled air, mixes with the O2, used in some patients to help preserve CO2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
550
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

A device that delivers low concentration of O2 through two (2) prongs that rest in the patient’s nostril’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
551
Q

Non-Rebreather (NRB) Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers high concentrations of O2. The patients exhaled air escapes through a valve (flutter valves), and is not re-breathed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
552
Q

Humidifier

A

A device connected to the flowmeter to add moisture to the dry O2 coming from an O2 cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
553
Q

Flowmeter

A

A valve that indicates the flow of O2 in liters per minute (LPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
554
Q

Pressure Regulator

A

A device connected to an O2 cylinder to reduce cylinder pressure so it is safe for delivery of O2 to a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
555
Q

Oxygen Cylinder

A

A Cylinder filled with O2 under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
556
Q

Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)

A

A device that provides positive pressure ventilations. It includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume, is portable and is easily carried on an ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
557
Q

Stoma

A

A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
558
Q

Bag Valve Mask (BVM)

A

A hand-held device with a face mask and self refilling bag that can be squeezed to provide artificial ventilations to a patient. It can deliver air from the atmosphere or O2 from supplemental O2 supply system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
559
Q

Pocket Face Mask

A

A device, usually with a one-way valve, to aid in artificial ventilation. A rescuer breathes through the valve when the mask is placed over the patient’s face, it also acts as a barrier to prevent contact with a patient’s breath or bodily fluids. It can also be used with supplemental O2 when fitted with an O2 inlet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
560
Q

Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called artificial ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
561
Q

Artificial Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
562
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blue or gray color resulting from lack of O2 in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
563
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

When breathing completely stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
564
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

The inadequacy of breathing to the point where O2 intake or the ventilation removal of CO2 is not sufficient to support life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
565
Q

Respiratory Distress

A

Increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
566
Q

Hypoxia

A

An insufficiency of O2 in the body’s tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
567
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
568
Q

What is the safe residual for an O2 cylinder?

A

200 psi or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
569
Q

At the smallest level, respiration involved the: 1. lungs 2. bronchioles 3. alveoli 4. cells

A
  1. cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
570
Q

At the point at which a patients body has become acidotic from the retention of too much CO2 and from anaerobic metabolism, and he is growing tired, the patient is in: 1. severe respiratory distress 2. increasing respiratory distress 3. respiratory failure 4. respiratory arrest

A
  1. respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
571
Q

To inflate the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather mask, use your finger to cover the: 1. intake valve 2. exhaust port 3. flowmeter 4. pressure regulator

A
  1. exhaust port
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
572
Q

Always open the valve on an O2 cylinder fully, then close it by how much to prevent someone else from thinking that the valve is closed and trying to force it open?

A

Half a turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
573
Q

Vomitus from gastric distension during artificial ventilation 1. is a sign that volume needs to be increased 2. indicates an improperly protected airway 3. is normal 4. indicates inadequate respiration

A
  1. indicates an improperly protected airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
574
Q

A constant flow selector valve type of low-pressure flowmeter _________ 1. may only be used with M or larger cylinders 2. is not adjustable 3. may only be used when upright 4. has no gauge

A
  1. has no gauge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
575
Q

How should you position a patient with a stoma as you are administering BVM artificial respirations?

A

Leave the head of the patient in the neutral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
576
Q

Appropriate use for the Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device used to deliver ventilations/O2 through a stoma or tracheostomy tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
577
Q

Tracheostomy O2 Concentration

A

Can be set up to deliver varying O2 percentages as required by patient; desired percentage of O2 may be recommended by the home care agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
578
Q

Tracheostomy Mask Flow Rate

A

8-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
579
Q

Appropriate use for Venturi Mask

A

A device used to deliver a specific concentration of O2. Device delivers 24-60% O2, depending on adapter tip and O2 flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
580
Q

Venturi Mask O2 Concentration

A

24-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
581
Q

Venturi Mask Flow Rate

A

Varied, depending on device; up to 15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
582
Q

Appropriate use for Partial Rebreather Mask

A

Usually not use in EMS. Some patients may use at home to treat ongoing respiratory diseases such as COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
583
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask O2 Concentration

A

40-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
584
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

9-10 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
585
Q

Appropriate use for Nasal Cannula

A

Appropriate for patients with sx of hypoxia and those SOB who need a small amount of supplemental O2 or cannot tolerate a mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
586
Q

Nasal Cannula O2 Concentration

A

24-44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
587
Q

Nasal Cannula Flow Rate

A

1-6 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
588
Q

Appropriate use for Nonrebreather Mask

A

Delivery system of choice for patients with signs of severe hypoxia and those SOB, suffering severe injuries, or displaying an altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
589
Q

Nonrebreather O2 Concentrationg

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
590
Q

Nonrebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

12-15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
591
Q

After a patient is intubated, you listen for lung sounds during ventilations and you SHOULD hear sounds in _____, and NOT _______

A

in all four quadrants of the lungs NOT in the epigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
592
Q

If you are asked to assist a Paramedic in their placing an airway using an Laryngoscope, you would use was maneuver?

A

BURP maneuver Bringing Up Right Position This maneuver is where you will take your thumb and index finger, gently press down on the vocal cords. This helps the Paramedic to be able to visualize the vocal cords, ensuring proper placement of the ET.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
593
Q

For a patient with very slow ventilations you should:

A

Add ventilations in between the patients own breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
594
Q

What is the least reliable as a sign of respiratory arrest in a patient? 1. Absent breath sounds 2. Gasping 3. Unconsciousness 4. No chest rise or fall

A
  1. Gasping Gasping may be present in a patient in respiratory arrest, gasping and normal breathing can be confused, and gasping may indicate respiratory failure, not arrest. In some cases, gasping may be present during adequate breathing. The other signs are much more indicative of respiratory arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
595
Q

A patient ceasing to be able to speak is most likely a sign of

A

Respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
596
Q

What primarily differentiates a patient a patient with adequate breathing from a patient with inadequate breathing?

A

The body of a patient with adequate breathing is still able to compensate for increasing O2 demand, but the body of a patient with inadequate breathing is no longer able to compensate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
597
Q

Insufficient supply of O2 to the body’s tissues is known as what?

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
598
Q

What happens with O2 and CO2 during the process of Pulmonary Respiration?

A

O2 is loaded into the hemoglobin of the blood from the alveoli, and CO2 is off-loaded from the blood into the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
599
Q

When calculating alveolar ventilation, what must be subtracted from what?

A

Dead Air from Tidal Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
600
Q

Minute Volume is determined primarily by

A

Respiratory rate and tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
601
Q

Alveolar ventilation can be altered through changes in rate as well as changes in:

A

TIDAL VOLUME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
602
Q

In which of the following situations does the chest expand, the diaphragm contracts, and a negative intrathoracic pressure is created? 1. Exhalation 2. Apnea 3. Inhalation 4. Passive Breathing

A
  1. Inhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
603
Q

When a person inhales, the diaphragm 1. contracts and the intercostal muscles relax 2. and the intercostal muscles relax 3. relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract 4. and the intercostal muscles contract

A
  1. and the intercostal muscles contract When a person inhales….the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
604
Q

For pulmonary and cellular respiration to work efficiently __________ must also be functioning

A

Cardiovascular System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
605
Q

Amount of Air that enters the alveoli for gas exchange is referred to as:

A

Alveolar ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
606
Q

Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
607
Q

Venturi Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of O2 by mixing O2 with inhaled air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
608
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir O2 bag with NO one way valve to the reservoir bag. So, some exhaled air, mixes with the O2, used in some patients to help preserve CO2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
609
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

A device that delivers low concentration of O2 through two (2) prongs that rest in the patient’s nostril’s

610
Q

Non-Rebreather (NRB) Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers high concentrations of O2. The patients exhaled air escapes through a valve (flutter valves), and is not re-breathed

611
Q

Humidifier

A

A device connected to the flowmeter to add moisture to the dry O2 coming from an O2 cylinder

612
Q

Flowmeter

A

A valve that indicates the flow of O2 in liters per minute (LPM)

613
Q

Pressure Regulator

A

A device connected to an O2 cylinder to reduce cylinder pressure so it is safe for delivery of O2 to a patient

614
Q

Oxygen Cylinder

A

A Cylinder filled with O2 under pressure

615
Q

Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)

A

A device that provides positive pressure ventilations. It includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume, is portable and is easily carried on an ambulance

616
Q

Stoma

A

A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

617
Q

Bag Valve Mask (BVM)

A

A hand-held device with a face mask and self refilling bag that can be squeezed to provide artificial ventilations to a patient. It can deliver air from the atmosphere or O2 from supplemental O2 supply system

618
Q

Pocket Face Mask

A

A device, usually with a one-way valve, to aid in artificial ventilation. A rescuer breathes through the valve when the mask is placed over the patient’s face, it also acts as a barrier to prevent contact with a patient’s breath or bodily fluids. It can also be used with supplemental O2 when fitted with an O2 inlet.

619
Q

Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called artificial ventilation

620
Q

Artificial Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called positive pressure ventilation

621
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blue or gray color resulting from lack of O2 in the body

622
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

When breathing completely stops

623
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

The inadequacy of breathing to the point where O2 intake or the ventilation removal of CO2 is not sufficient to support life

624
Q

Respiratory Distress

A

Increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath

625
Q

Hypoxia

A

An insufficiency of O2 in the body’s tissues

626
Q

Respiration

A

The diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration), Also used to mean, simply breathing

627
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between cells and circulating blood

628
Q

Pulmonary Respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

629
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

630
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

631
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

632
Q

What is the safe residual for an O2 cylinder?

A

200 psi or greater

633
Q

At the smallest level, respiration involved the: 1. lungs 2. bronchioles 3. alveoli 4. cells

A
  1. cells
634
Q

At the point at which a patients body has become acidotic from the retention of too much CO2 and from anaerobic metabolism, and he is growing tired, the patient is in: 1. severe respiratory distress 2. increasing respiratory distress 3. respiratory failure 4. respiratory arrest

A
  1. respiratory failure
635
Q

To inflate the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather mask, use your finger to cover the: 1. intake valve 2. exhaust port 3. flowmeter 4. pressure regulator

A
  1. exhaust port
636
Q

Always open the valve on an O2 cylinder fully, then close it by how much to prevent someone else from thinking that the valve is closed and trying to force it open?

A

Half a turn

637
Q

Vomitus from gastric distension during artificial ventilation 1. is a sign that volume needs to be increased 2. indicates an improperly protected airway 3. is normal 4. indicates inadequate respiration

A
  1. indicates an improperly protected airway
638
Q

A constant flow selector valve type of low-pressure flowmeter _________ 1. may only be used with M or larger cylinders 2. is not adjustable 3. may only be used when upright 4. has no gauge

A
  1. has no gauge
639
Q

How should you position a patient with a stoma as you are administering BVM artificial respirations?

A

Leave the head of the patient in the neutral position

640
Q

Appropriate use for the Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device used to deliver ventilations/O2 through a stoma or tracheostomy tube

641
Q

Tracheostomy O2 Concentration

A

Can be set up to deliver varying O2 percentages as required by patient; desired percentage of O2 may be recommended by the home care agency

642
Q

Tracheostomy Mask Flow Rate

A

8-10 LPM

643
Q

Appropriate use for Venturi Mask

A

A device used to deliver a specific concentration of O2. Device delivers 24-60% O2, depending on adapter tip and O2 flow rate

644
Q

Venturi Mask O2 Concentration

A

24-60%

645
Q

Venturi Mask Flow Rate

A

Varied, depending on device; up to 15 LPM

646
Q

Appropriate use for Partial Rebreather Mask

A

Usually not use in EMS. Some patients may use at home to treat ongoing respiratory diseases such as COPD

647
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask O2 Concentration

A

40-60%

648
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

9-10 LPM

649
Q

Appropriate use for Nasal Cannula

A

Appropriate for patients with sx of hypoxia and those SOB who need a small amount of supplemental O2 or cannot tolerate a mask

650
Q

Nasal Cannula O2 Concentration

A

24-44%

651
Q

Nasal Cannula Flow Rate

A

1-6 LPM

652
Q

Appropriate use for Nonrebreather Mask

A

Delivery system of choice for patients with signs of severe hypoxia and those SOB, suffering severe injuries, or displaying an altered mental status

653
Q

Nonrebreather O2 Concentrationg

A

80-90%

654
Q

Nonrebreather Mask Flow Rate

A

12-15 LPM

655
Q

After a patient is intubated, you listen for lung sounds during ventilations and you SHOULD hear sounds in _____, and NOT _______

A

in all four quadrants of the lungs NOT in the epigastrium

656
Q

If you are asked to assist a Paramedic in their placing an airway using an Laryngoscope, you would use was maneuver?

A

BURP maneuver Bringing Up Right Position This maneuver is where you will take your thumb and index finger, gently press down on the vocal cords. This helps the Paramedic to be able to visualize the vocal cords, ensuring proper placement of the ET.

657
Q

For a patient with very slow ventilations you should:

A

Add ventilations in between the patients own breaths

658
Q

What is the least reliable as a sign of respiratory arrest in a patient? 1. Absent breath sounds 2. Gasping 3. Unconsciousness 4. No chest rise or fall

A
  1. Gasping Gasping may be present in a patient in respiratory arrest, gasping and normal breathing can be confused, and gasping may indicate respiratory failure, not arrest. In some cases, gasping may be present during adequate breathing. The other signs are much more indicative of respiratory arrest
659
Q

A patient ceasing to be able to speak is most likely a sign of

A

Respiratory failure

660
Q

What primarily differentiates a patient a patient with adequate breathing from a patient with inadequate breathing?

A

The body of a patient with adequate breathing is still able to compensate for increasing O2 demand, but the body of a patient with inadequate breathing is no longer able to compensate

661
Q

Insufficient supply of O2 to the body’s tissues is known as what?

A

Hypoxia

662
Q

What happens with O2 and CO2 during the process of Pulmonary Respiration?

A

O2 is loaded into the hemoglobin of the blood from the alveoli, and CO2 is off-loaded from the blood into the alveoli

663
Q

When calculating alveolar ventilation, what must be subtracted from what?

A

Dead Air from Tidal Volume

664
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

665
Q

Minute Volume is determined primarily by

A

Respiratory rate and tidal volume

666
Q

Alveolar ventilation can be altered through changes in rate as well as changes in:

A

TIDAL VOLUME

667
Q

In which of the following situations does the chest expand, the diaphragm contracts, and a negative intrathoracic pressure is created? 1. Exhalation 2. Apnea 3. Inhalation 4. Passive Breathing

A
  1. Inhalation
668
Q

When a person inhales, the diaphragm 1. contracts and the intercostal muscles relax 2. and the intercostal muscles relax 3. relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract 4. and the intercostal muscles contract

A
  1. and the intercostal muscles contract When a person inhales….the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles contract
669
Q

For pulmonary and cellular respiration to work efficiently __________ must also be functioning

A

Cardiovascular System

670
Q

Amount of Air that enters the alveoli for gas exchange is referred to as:

A

Alveolar ventilation

671
Q

Tracheostomy Mask

A

A device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental O2

672
Q

Venturi Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of O2 by mixing O2 with inhaled air

673
Q

Partial Rebreather Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir O2 bag with NO one way valve to the reservoir bag. So, some exhaled air, mixes with the O2, used in some patients to help preserve CO2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

674
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

A device that delivers low concentration of O2 through two (2) prongs that rest in the patient’s nostril’s

675
Q

Non-Rebreather (NRB) Mask

A

A face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers high concentrations of O2. The patients exhaled air escapes through a valve (flutter valves), and is not re-breathed

676
Q

Humidifier

A

A device connected to the flowmeter to add moisture to the dry O2 coming from an O2 cylinder

677
Q

Flowmeter

A

A valve that indicates the flow of O2 in liters per minute (LPM)

678
Q

Pressure Regulator

A

A device connected to an O2 cylinder to reduce cylinder pressure so it is safe for delivery of O2 to a patient

679
Q

Oxygen Cylinder

A

A Cylinder filled with O2 under pressure

680
Q

Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)

A

A device that provides positive pressure ventilations. It includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume, is portable and is easily carried on an ambulance

681
Q

Stoma

A

A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

682
Q

Bag Valve Mask (BVM)

A

A hand-held device with a face mask and self refilling bag that can be squeezed to provide artificial ventilations to a patient. It can deliver air from the atmosphere or O2 from supplemental O2 supply system

683
Q

Pocket Face Mask

A

A device, usually with a one-way valve, to aid in artificial ventilation. A rescuer breathes through the valve when the mask is placed over the patient’s face, it also acts as a barrier to prevent contact with a patient’s breath or bodily fluids. It can also be used with supplemental O2 when fitted with an O2 inlet.

684
Q

Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called artificial ventilation

685
Q

Artificial Ventilation

A

The use of positive pressure to force air or O2 into the lungs when a patient has stopped breathing or has inadequate breathing. Also called positive pressure ventilation

686
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blue or gray color resulting from lack of O2 in the body

687
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

When breathing completely stops

688
Q

Respiration

A

The diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration), Also used to mean, simply breathing

689
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

The inadequacy of breathing to the point where O2 intake or the ventilation removal of CO2 is not sufficient to support life

690
Q

Respiratory Distress

A

Increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath

691
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between cells and circulating blood

692
Q

Hypoxia

A

An insufficiency of O2 in the body’s tissues

693
Q

Respiration

A

The diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration), Also used to mean, simply breathing

694
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between cells and circulating blood

695
Q

Pulmonary Respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

696
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

697
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

698
Q

Pulmonary Respiration

A

The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

699
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

700
Q

Diffusion

A

A process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

701
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli

702
Q

Ventilation

A

Breathing in and out (inhalation and exhalation), or artificial provision of breaths

703
Q

Scene Size-Up

A

Steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: Checking scene safety taking standard precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for

704
Q

Danger Zone

A

The area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

705
Q

Examples of Danger Zones

A

Downed Power Lines Vehicles on Fire Hazardous Materials Threatened by Fire Spilled Fuel Hazardous Materials

706
Q

Danger Zone when there are no apparent hazards:

A

Consider the DZ to extend at least 50’ (15.2M) in all directions from the wreckage). The ambulance needs to be staged away from broken glass and other debris, the ambulance cannot impede emergency service personnel who must work in or around the wreckage. When using flares to protect the scene, make sure the person igniting them has been trained in the proper technique

707
Q

Danger Zone where there has been fuel spilled:

A

Danger zone extended to minimum of 100’ (30.4M) in all directions from the wreckage and fuel. Park upwind. Note wind direction. You want the ambulance out of the path of dense smoke if fuel ignites. If fuel is flowing away from the wreckage, park uphill as well as upwind from the wreck. Do NOT use flares in areas that fuel has been spilled. Avoid gutters, ditches, and gullies that can carry the fuel towards the ambulance. Use traffic cones during the day and triangles at night.

708
Q

Danger Zone when vehicle is on fire

A

Danger zone 100’ (30.4M) in all directions even if the fire seems small and limited to engine compartment. If fire does reach the fuel tank, an explosion could easily damage an ambulance parked any closer

709
Q

Danger zone where wires are down

A

Danger zone the area in which people may be in contact with energized wires if the wires pivot around their points of attachment. Even though you may have to carry equipment and stretchers for a considerable distance, the ambulance should be parked at least one full span of wires away from the poles to which the broken wires are attached

710
Q

Danger zone where hazardous material is involved

A

The ERG needs to be consulted for stand off distances

711
Q

Mechanism of Injury

A

A force or forces that may have caused injury

712
Q

Penetrating Trauma

A

Injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

713
Q

Blunt Force Trauma

A

Injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

714
Q

Index of Suspicion

A

Awareness that there may be injuries

715
Q

Nature of the illness

A

What is medically wrong with the patient

716
Q

When looking at the Nature of the Illness you can look at:

A

The patient Family Members or Bystanders The scene To get information on the nature of the illness

717
Q

Nature of Illness - Patient provided

A

When conscious and oriented, patients will be a prime source of information about their condition throughout the assessment process

718
Q

Nature of Illness - Family members or Bystanders

A

These are people who can provide you with information especially when dealing with an unconscious patient. Additionally, if the patient is conscious, but their mental status is compromised, these other sources can be put in there in order to be able to piece the information to put a full picture together for your patient

719
Q

Nature of Illness - The scene

A

As you are sizing up the scene for safety, you can also make notes of other factors that may be clues to the patients condition. You may see medications in the patients room, living conditions that are unsanitary, or dangerous are all things that you are able to make note of in order to give a report on later and be able to give a more clear picture of when you give your patient report

720
Q

Scene Safety Scenario: Which of the following would be be a NEW and UNEXPECTED FACTOR that CHANGED the nature of of the scene following your arrival? 1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients 2. You see downed lines as you are driving up to the scene 3. Dispatch warns you to expect downed power lines 4. After you begin transport the power goes out across the neighborhood

A
  1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients This would be a new and unexpected factor that CHANGED the nature of the scene and required sizing up. 2. Seeing downed lines as you drive up is part of ARRIVING on the scene, 3. A warning from dispatch prior to entering the scene is PRE-ARRIVAL 4. A power outage after you begin transport occurs after you LEAVE the scene
721
Q

Scene Size up: 1. is ongoing throughout every call 2. ends with arrival on the scene 3. ends with identification of MOI or NOI 4. extends of initial identification of hazards

A
  1. Is ongoing throughout every call Scene size-up is not confined to the first part of the assessment process. These considerations should continue throughout the call, because emergencies are dynamic, always-changing events
722
Q

You arrive on scene and see smoke, approaching onlookers, an overturned vehicle, a broken utility pole, shards of glass on the street, and a fire hydrant. The element that signals nothing hazardous is: 1. the utility pole 2. the smoke 3. the approaching onlookers 4. the fire hydrant

A
  1. the fire hydrant Smoke, approaching onlookers, and a broken utility pole are all signs of potential hazards. A fire hydrant is there to help in emergencies and is not in itself a sign of any hazard or emergency
723
Q

Your ambulance has been dispatched to a multiple-car motor vehicle crash. Dispatch has alerted you that fire and rescue units are enroute. As you approach the scene, you should 1. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets 2. don personal protective equipment 3. remove your seatbelt to allow easy exit of the ambulance 4. review the trauma triage criteria

A
  1. look and listen for other emergency vehicles as you approach the scene 2. Although personal protective equipment and 4. the trauma triage criteria are important, the immediate risk is being struck by an oncoming vehicle. You should always consider safety first 3. You should never remove your seat belt in a moving vehicle
724
Q

You pull up on a MVA. Vehicle vs a utility pole, you notice that there is gasoline leaking from the car. What is another potential hazard that you would expect/need to take into account in this situation? 1. Penetrating trauma 2. Fumes 3. Blunt-force trauma 4. Organ collision

A
  1. Fumes This is another hazard that you should expect/take into consideration as a hazard. During your assessment you may find that patients involved have sustained: 1. Penetrating trauma 3. Blunt force trauma 4. Organ collision However, all of the above are types of injuries, not hazards on the scene
725
Q

Which of the following would represent the next best location for parking if you could not park upwind, or uphill from the scene of a gasoline spill? 1. Behind a barrier 2. In a drainage ditch 3. Downwind from the spill 4. Downhill from the spill

A
  1. Behind a barrier If liquid is flowing, park behind a barrier if possible. Parking downhill or downwind would put you, your crew and your ambulance at risk for exposure to the liquid or fumes. Drainage ditches also pose the risk of exposing you to runoff from the spill
726
Q

You are called to an area that you and/or your partner know to be dangerous (can be from experience, or briefings). There are frequent incidents of violent incidents of violent crime in that area. When you arrive, you see no bystanders, you see the patient who is an elderly male, he is experiencing respiratory problems, he also appears to be alone with the exception of his granddaughter, who is also the RP. The scene is quiet. What most indicates potential danger? 1. The patient is alone except for his granddaughter 2. There are no bystanders 3. The scene is quiet 4. You know the neighborhood is dangerous

A
  1. You know the neighborhood is dangerous You and your partner have prior knowledge of violence in the neighborhood you are responding to, and so you know that there is a potential for dangerous situation(s) to occur
727
Q

Your patient is a known black belt martial arts instructor, you have been dispatched for a welfare check due to his being in the middle of the street attacking cars. When is it safe to approach him? 1. After he has calmed down 2. After dispatched has cleared you 3. After another crew arrives 4. After the police have subdued him

A
  1. After the police have subdued him You are facing an emotionally unstable patient who can be a significant threat if his anger is directed toward you. You should NOT approach him, even with another crew, without law enforcement present. Once police have the patient subdued, it is safe to approach him
728
Q

A 68 y/o F complains of respiratory distress. She says she has been sick for 3 days, she has a HX of COPD. You note that she is coughing forcefully into napkin. Which of the following would be the most appropriate personal appropriate protective equipment for use on this scene? 1. Mask and eye protection 2. Gloves and Eye Protection 3. Gloves and gown 4. Gloves, Eye Protection, and Mask

A
  1. Gloves, Eye Protection and Mask This patient is exhibiting sx of respiratory illness. You should employ droplet protection in the form of gloves, eye protection and a mask. The mask would protect against direct inhalation of droplets, the eye protection would protect the mucous membrane of the eyes, and the gloves would prevent secondary infection from contact with infected surfaces
729
Q

In a rollover collision, expect which of the following: 1. skeletal and internal injuries 2. any type of serious injury pattern 3. spinal injuries 4. head and neck injuries

A
  1. Any type of serious injury pattern Rollover collisions can be the most serious because of the potential for multiple impacts. Rollover collisions frequently cause ejection of anyone who is not wearing a seat belt. Expect any type of serious injury pattern.
730
Q

You have been dispatched to a call for an assault, that is all of the information. What is the initial response you will take as you approach the scene with the information provided?

A

Based on the information provided, it being an assault, you are going to stage, waiting for law enforcement to secure the scene

731
Q

When you are finally cleared to come into the scene. As you start to head in, you are informed that your patient has suffered a gunshot wound. What types of damage would you expect to find? 1. Cavitation and projectile damage 2. Pressure-related damage and cavitation 3. Blunt-force trauma and penetrating 4. Cavitation and blunt force trauma

A
  1. Cavitation and projectile damage In a bullet injury, you would expect to find cavitation, or pressure-related damage from the bullet, and projectile damage directly from the projectile
732
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, your patient is in the drivers side of the vehicle and you noticed that there was no airbag deployment. What would be your first concern? 1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you or your patient 2. The patient may have chest injuries he is not aware of. 3. You should immediately fir a cervical collar 4. The patient may have a head injury

A
  1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you as well as your patient.
733
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, the MVA was a head-on collision. One injury pattern you would expect to find is 1. rollover 2. cavitation 3. down and under 4. projectile damage

A
  1. Down and Under
734
Q

For a trauma to qualify as penetrating trauma, it must be an injury that passes through the skin or other body tissues and that is caused by: 1. a projectile 2. a person 3. an object 4. a blunt object

A
  1. an object
735
Q

You were dispatched to treat a​ 41-year-old woman with unknown bleeding. You introduce yourself to the patient and identify that the bleeding was caused by a stab wound. The patient says that the perpetrator has left the premises. You should​ next: 1. identify the weapon 2. request law enforcement 3. leave the scene 4. begin the primary assessment

A
  1. request law enforcement
736
Q

Scene Size-Up

A

Steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: Checking scene safety taking standard precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for

737
Q

You were dispatched to treat a​ 41-year-old woman with unknown bleeding. You introduce yourself to the patient and identify that the bleeding was caused by a stab wound. The patient says that the perpetrator has left the premises. You should​ next: 1. identify the weapon 2. request law enforcement 3. leave the scene 4. begin the primary assessment

A
  1. request law enforcement
738
Q

For a trauma to qualify as penetrating trauma, it must be an injury that passes through the skin or other body tissues and that is caused by: 1. a projectile 2. a person 3. an object 4. a blunt object

A
  1. an object
739
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, the MVA was a head-on collision. One injury pattern you would expect to find is 1. rollover 2. cavitation 3. down and under 4. projectile damage

A
  1. Down and Under
740
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, your patient is in the drivers side of the vehicle and you noticed that there was no airbag deployment. What would be your first concern? 1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you or your patient 2. The patient may have chest injuries he is not aware of. 3. You should immediately fir a cervical collar 4. The patient may have a head injury

A
  1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you as well as your patient.
741
Q

When you are finally cleared to come into the scene. As you start to head in, you are informed that your patient has suffered a gunshot wound. What types of damage would you expect to find? 1. Cavitation and projectile damage 2. Pressure-related damage and cavitation 3. Blunt-force trauma and penetrating 4. Cavitation and blunt force trauma

A
  1. Cavitation and projectile damage In a bullet injury, you would expect to find cavitation, or pressure-related damage from the bullet, and projectile damage directly from the projectile
742
Q

You have been dispatched to a call for an assault, that is all of the information. What is the initial response you will take as you approach the scene with the information provided?

A

Based on the information provided, it being an assault, you are going to stage, waiting for law enforcement to secure the scene

743
Q

In a rollover collision, expect which of the following: 1. skeletal and internal injuries 2. any type of serious injury pattern 3. spinal injuries 4. head and neck injuries

A
  1. Any type of serious injury pattern Rollover collisions can be the most serious because of the potential for multiple impacts. Rollover collisions frequently cause ejection of anyone who is not wearing a seat belt. Expect any type of serious injury pattern.
744
Q

A 68 y/o F complains of respiratory distress. She says she has been sick for 3 days, she has a HX of COPD. You note that she is coughing forcefully into napkin. Which of the following would be the most appropriate personal appropriate protective equipment for use on this scene? 1. Mask and eye protection 2. Gloves and Eye Protection 3. Gloves and gown 4. Gloves, Eye Protection, and Mask

A
  1. Gloves, Eye Protection and Mask This patient is exhibiting sx of respiratory illness. You should employ droplet protection in the form of gloves, eye protection and a mask. The mask would protect against direct inhalation of droplets, the eye protection would protect the mucous membrane of the eyes, and the gloves would prevent secondary infection from contact with infected surfaces
745
Q

Your patient is a known black belt martial arts instructor, you have been dispatched for a welfare check due to his being in the middle of the street attacking cars. When is it safe to approach him? 1. After he has calmed down 2. After dispatched has cleared you 3. After another crew arrives 4. After the police have subdued him

A
  1. After the police have subdued him You are facing an emotionally unstable patient who can be a significant threat if his anger is directed toward you. You should NOT approach him, even with another crew, without law enforcement present. Once police have the patient subdued, it is safe to approach him
746
Q

You are called to an area that you and/or your partner know to be dangerous (can be from experience, or briefings). There are frequent incidents of violent incidents of violent crime in that area. When you arrive, you see no bystanders, you see the patient who is an elderly male, he is experiencing respiratory problems, he also appears to be alone with the exception of his granddaughter, who is also the RP. The scene is quiet. What most indicates potential danger? 1. The patient is alone except for his granddaughter 2. There are no bystanders 3. The scene is quiet 4. You know the neighborhood is dangerous

A
  1. You know the neighborhood is dangerous You and your partner have prior knowledge of violence in the neighborhood you are responding to, and so you know that there is a potential for dangerous situation(s) to occur
747
Q

Which of the following would represent the next best location for parking if you could not park upwind, or uphill from the scene of a gasoline spill? 1. Behind a barrier 2. In a drainage ditch 3. Downwind from the spill 4. Downhill from the spill

A
  1. Behind a barrier If liquid is flowing, park behind a barrier if possible. Parking downhill or downwind would put you, your crew and your ambulance at risk for exposure to the liquid or fumes. Drainage ditches also pose the risk of exposing you to runoff from the spill
748
Q

You pull up on a MVA. Vehicle vs a utility pole, you notice that there is gasoline leaking from the car. What is another potential hazard that you would expect/need to take into account in this situation? 1. Penetrating trauma 2. Fumes 3. Blunt-force trauma 4. Organ collision

A
  1. Fumes This is another hazard that you should expect/take into consideration as a hazard. During your assessment you may find that patients involved have sustained: 1. Penetrating trauma 3. Blunt force trauma 4. Organ collision However, all of the above are types of injuries, not hazards on the scene
749
Q

Your ambulance has been dispatched to a multiple-car motor vehicle crash. Dispatch has alerted you that fire and rescue units are enroute. As you approach the scene, you should 1. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets 2. don personal protective equipment 3. remove your seatbelt to allow easy exit of the ambulance 4. review the trauma triage criteria

A
  1. look and listen for other emergency vehicles as you approach the scene 2. Although personal protective equipment and 4. the trauma triage criteria are important, the immediate risk is being struck by an oncoming vehicle. You should always consider safety first 3. You should never remove your seat belt in a moving vehicle
750
Q

You arrive on scene and see smoke, approaching onlookers, an overturned vehicle, a broken utility pole, shards of glass on the street, and a fire hydrant. The element that signals nothing hazardous is: 1. the utility pole 2. the smoke 3. the approaching onlookers 4. the fire hydrant

A
  1. the fire hydrant Smoke, approaching onlookers, and a broken utility pole are all signs of potential hazards. A fire hydrant is there to help in emergencies and is not in itself a sign of any hazard or emergency
751
Q

Scene Size up: 1. is ongoing throughout every call 2. ends with arrival on the scene 3. ends with identification of MOI or NOI 4. extends of initial identification of hazards

A
  1. Is ongoing throughout every call Scene size-up is not confined to the first part of the assessment process. These considerations should continue throughout the call, because emergencies are dynamic, always-changing events
752
Q

Scene Safety Scenario: Which of the following would be be a NEW and UNEXPECTED FACTOR that CHANGED the nature of of the scene following your arrival? 1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients 2. You see downed lines as you are driving up to the scene 3. Dispatch warns you to expect downed power lines 4. After you begin transport the power goes out across the neighborhood

A
  1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients This would be a new and unexpected factor that CHANGED the nature of the scene and required sizing up. 2. Seeing downed lines as you drive up is part of ARRIVING on the scene, 3. A warning from dispatch prior to entering the scene is PRE-ARRIVAL 4. A power outage after you begin transport occurs after you LEAVE the scene
753
Q

Nature of Illness - The scene

A

As you are sizing up the scene for safety, you can also make notes of other factors that may be clues to the patients condition. You may see medications in the patients room, living conditions that are unsanitary, or dangerous are all things that you are able to make note of in order to give a report on later and be able to give a more clear picture of when you give your patient report

754
Q

Nature of Illness - Family members or Bystanders

A

These are people who can provide you with information especially when dealing with an unconscious patient. Additionally, if the patient is conscious, but their mental status is compromised, these other sources can be put in there in order to be able to piece the information to put a full picture together for your patient

755
Q

Nature of Illness - Patient provided

A

When conscious and oriented, patients will be a prime source of information about their condition throughout the assessment process

756
Q

When looking at the Nature of the Illness you can look at:

A

The patient Family Members or Bystanders The scene To get information on the nature of the illness

757
Q

Nature of the illness

A

What is medically wrong with the patient

758
Q

Index of Suspicion

A

Awareness that there may be injuries

759
Q

Blunt Force Trauma

A

Injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

760
Q

Penetrating Trauma

A

Injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

761
Q

Mechanism of Injury

A

A force or forces that may have caused injury

762
Q

Danger zone where hazardous material is involved

A

The ERG needs to be consulted for stand off distances

763
Q

Danger zone where wires are down

A

Danger zone the area in which people may be in contact with energized wires if the wires pivot around their points of attachment. Even though you may have to carry equipment and stretchers for a considerable distance, the ambulance should be parked at least one full span of wires away from the poles to which the broken wires are attached

764
Q

Danger Zone when vehicle is on fire

A

Danger zone 100’ (30.4M) in all directions even if the fire seems small and limited to engine compartment. If fire does reach the fuel tank, an explosion could easily damage an ambulance parked any closer

765
Q

Danger Zone where there has been fuel spilled:

A

Danger zone extended to minimum of 100’ (30.4M) in all directions from the wreckage and fuel. Park upwind. Note wind direction. You want the ambulance out of the path of dense smoke if fuel ignites. If fuel is flowing away from the wreckage, park uphill as well as upwind from the wreck. Do NOT use flares in areas that fuel has been spilled. Avoid gutters, ditches, and gullies that can carry the fuel towards the ambulance. Use traffic cones during the day and triangles at night.

766
Q

Danger Zone when there are no apparent hazards:

A

Consider the DZ to extend at least 50’ (15.2M) in all directions from the wreckage). The ambulance needs to be staged away from broken glass and other debris, the ambulance cannot impede emergency service personnel who must work in or around the wreckage. When using flares to protect the scene, make sure the person igniting them has been trained in the proper technique

767
Q

Examples of Danger Zones

A

Downed Power Lines Vehicles on Fire Hazardous Materials Threatened by Fire Spilled Fuel Hazardous Materials

768
Q

You were dispatched to treat a​ 41-year-old woman with unknown bleeding. You introduce yourself to the patient and identify that the bleeding was caused by a stab wound. The patient says that the perpetrator has left the premises. You should​ next: 1. identify the weapon 2. request law enforcement 3. leave the scene 4. begin the primary assessment

A
  1. request law enforcement
769
Q

For a trauma to qualify as penetrating trauma, it must be an injury that passes through the skin or other body tissues and that is caused by: 1. a projectile 2. a person 3. an object 4. a blunt object

A
  1. an object
770
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, the MVA was a head-on collision. One injury pattern you would expect to find is 1. rollover 2. cavitation 3. down and under 4. projectile damage

A
  1. Down and Under
771
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, your patient is in the drivers side of the vehicle and you noticed that there was no airbag deployment. What would be your first concern? 1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you or your patient 2. The patient may have chest injuries he is not aware of. 3. You should immediately fir a cervical collar 4. The patient may have a head injury

A
  1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you as well as your patient.
772
Q

When you are finally cleared to come into the scene. As you start to head in, you are informed that your patient has suffered a gunshot wound. What types of damage would you expect to find? 1. Cavitation and projectile damage 2. Pressure-related damage and cavitation 3. Blunt-force trauma and penetrating 4. Cavitation and blunt force trauma

A
  1. Cavitation and projectile damage In a bullet injury, you would expect to find cavitation, or pressure-related damage from the bullet, and projectile damage directly from the projectile
773
Q

You have been dispatched to a call for an assault, that is all of the information. What is the initial response you will take as you approach the scene with the information provided?

A

Based on the information provided, it being an assault, you are going to stage, waiting for law enforcement to secure the scene

774
Q

In a rollover collision, expect which of the following: 1. skeletal and internal injuries 2. any type of serious injury pattern 3. spinal injuries 4. head and neck injuries

A
  1. Any type of serious injury pattern Rollover collisions can be the most serious because of the potential for multiple impacts. Rollover collisions frequently cause ejection of anyone who is not wearing a seat belt. Expect any type of serious injury pattern.
775
Q

A 68 y/o F complains of respiratory distress. She says she has been sick for 3 days, she has a HX of COPD. You note that she is coughing forcefully into napkin. Which of the following would be the most appropriate personal appropriate protective equipment for use on this scene? 1. Mask and eye protection 2. Gloves and Eye Protection 3. Gloves and gown 4. Gloves, Eye Protection, and Mask

A
  1. Gloves, Eye Protection and Mask This patient is exhibiting sx of respiratory illness. You should employ droplet protection in the form of gloves, eye protection and a mask. The mask would protect against direct inhalation of droplets, the eye protection would protect the mucous membrane of the eyes, and the gloves would prevent secondary infection from contact with infected surfaces
776
Q

Your patient is a known black belt martial arts instructor, you have been dispatched for a welfare check due to his being in the middle of the street attacking cars. When is it safe to approach him? 1. After he has calmed down 2. After dispatched has cleared you 3. After another crew arrives 4. After the police have subdued him

A
  1. After the police have subdued him You are facing an emotionally unstable patient who can be a significant threat if his anger is directed toward you. You should NOT approach him, even with another crew, without law enforcement present. Once police have the patient subdued, it is safe to approach him
777
Q

You are called to an area that you and/or your partner know to be dangerous (can be from experience, or briefings). There are frequent incidents of violent incidents of violent crime in that area. When you arrive, you see no bystanders, you see the patient who is an elderly male, he is experiencing respiratory problems, he also appears to be alone with the exception of his granddaughter, who is also the RP. The scene is quiet. What most indicates potential danger? 1. The patient is alone except for his granddaughter 2. There are no bystanders 3. The scene is quiet 4. You know the neighborhood is dangerous

A
  1. You know the neighborhood is dangerous You and your partner have prior knowledge of violence in the neighborhood you are responding to, and so you know that there is a potential for dangerous situation(s) to occur
778
Q

Which of the following would represent the next best location for parking if you could not park upwind, or uphill from the scene of a gasoline spill? 1. Behind a barrier 2. In a drainage ditch 3. Downwind from the spill 4. Downhill from the spill

A
  1. Behind a barrier If liquid is flowing, park behind a barrier if possible. Parking downhill or downwind would put you, your crew and your ambulance at risk for exposure to the liquid or fumes. Drainage ditches also pose the risk of exposing you to runoff from the spill
779
Q

You pull up on a MVA. Vehicle vs a utility pole, you notice that there is gasoline leaking from the car. What is another potential hazard that you would expect/need to take into account in this situation? 1. Penetrating trauma 2. Fumes 3. Blunt-force trauma 4. Organ collision

A
  1. Fumes This is another hazard that you should expect/take into consideration as a hazard. During your assessment you may find that patients involved have sustained: 1. Penetrating trauma 3. Blunt force trauma 4. Organ collision However, all of the above are types of injuries, not hazards on the scene
780
Q

Your ambulance has been dispatched to a multiple-car motor vehicle crash. Dispatch has alerted you that fire and rescue units are enroute. As you approach the scene, you should 1. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets 2. don personal protective equipment 3. remove your seatbelt to allow easy exit of the ambulance 4. review the trauma triage criteria

A
  1. look and listen for other emergency vehicles as you approach the scene 2. Although personal protective equipment and 4. the trauma triage criteria are important, the immediate risk is being struck by an oncoming vehicle. You should always consider safety first 3. You should never remove your seat belt in a moving vehicle
781
Q

You arrive on scene and see smoke, approaching onlookers, an overturned vehicle, a broken utility pole, shards of glass on the street, and a fire hydrant. The element that signals nothing hazardous is: 1. the utility pole 2. the smoke 3. the approaching onlookers 4. the fire hydrant

A
  1. the fire hydrant Smoke, approaching onlookers, and a broken utility pole are all signs of potential hazards. A fire hydrant is there to help in emergencies and is not in itself a sign of any hazard or emergency
782
Q

Scene Size up: 1. is ongoing throughout every call 2. ends with arrival on the scene 3. ends with identification of MOI or NOI 4. extends of initial identification of hazards

A
  1. Is ongoing throughout every call Scene size-up is not confined to the first part of the assessment process. These considerations should continue throughout the call, because emergencies are dynamic, always-changing events
783
Q

Scene Safety Scenario: Which of the following would be be a NEW and UNEXPECTED FACTOR that CHANGED the nature of of the scene following your arrival? 1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients 2. You see downed lines as you are driving up to the scene 3. Dispatch warns you to expect downed power lines 4. After you begin transport the power goes out across the neighborhood

A
  1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients This would be a new and unexpected factor that CHANGED the nature of the scene and required sizing up. 2. Seeing downed lines as you drive up is part of ARRIVING on the scene, 3. A warning from dispatch prior to entering the scene is PRE-ARRIVAL 4. A power outage after you begin transport occurs after you LEAVE the scene
784
Q

Danger Zone

A

The area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

785
Q

Nature of Illness - The scene

A

As you are sizing up the scene for safety, you can also make notes of other factors that may be clues to the patients condition. You may see medications in the patients room, living conditions that are unsanitary, or dangerous are all things that you are able to make note of in order to give a report on later and be able to give a more clear picture of when you give your patient report

786
Q

Nature of Illness - Family members or Bystanders

A

These are people who can provide you with information especially when dealing with an unconscious patient. Additionally, if the patient is conscious, but their mental status is compromised, these other sources can be put in there in order to be able to piece the information to put a full picture together for your patient

787
Q

Nature of Illness - Patient provided

A

When conscious and oriented, patients will be a prime source of information about their condition throughout the assessment process

788
Q

When looking at the Nature of the Illness you can look at:

A

The patient Family Members or Bystanders The scene To get information on the nature of the illness

789
Q

Nature of the illness

A

What is medically wrong with the patient

790
Q

Index of Suspicion

A

Awareness that there may be injuries

791
Q

Blunt Force Trauma

A

Injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

792
Q

Penetrating Trauma

A

Injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

793
Q

Mechanism of Injury

A

A force or forces that may have caused injury

794
Q

Danger zone where hazardous material is involved

A

The ERG needs to be consulted for stand off distances

795
Q

Danger zone where wires are down

A

Danger zone the area in which people may be in contact with energized wires if the wires pivot around their points of attachment. Even though you may have to carry equipment and stretchers for a considerable distance, the ambulance should be parked at least one full span of wires away from the poles to which the broken wires are attached

796
Q

Danger Zone when vehicle is on fire

A

Danger zone 100’ (30.4M) in all directions even if the fire seems small and limited to engine compartment. If fire does reach the fuel tank, an explosion could easily damage an ambulance parked any closer

797
Q

Danger Zone where there has been fuel spilled:

A

Danger zone extended to minimum of 100’ (30.4M) in all directions from the wreckage and fuel. Park upwind. Note wind direction. You want the ambulance out of the path of dense smoke if fuel ignites. If fuel is flowing away from the wreckage, park uphill as well as upwind from the wreck. Do NOT use flares in areas that fuel has been spilled. Avoid gutters, ditches, and gullies that can carry the fuel towards the ambulance. Use traffic cones during the day and triangles at night.

798
Q

You were dispatched to treat a​ 41-year-old woman with unknown bleeding. You introduce yourself to the patient and identify that the bleeding was caused by a stab wound. The patient says that the perpetrator has left the premises. You should​ next: 1. identify the weapon 2. request law enforcement 3. leave the scene 4. begin the primary assessment

A
  1. request law enforcement
799
Q

For a trauma to qualify as penetrating trauma, it must be an injury that passes through the skin or other body tissues and that is caused by: 1. a projectile 2. a person 3. an object 4. a blunt object

A
  1. an object
800
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, the MVA was a head-on collision. One injury pattern you would expect to find is 1. rollover 2. cavitation 3. down and under 4. projectile damage

A
  1. Down and Under
801
Q

You have been dispatched to a MVA, your patient is in the drivers side of the vehicle and you noticed that there was no airbag deployment. What would be your first concern? 1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you or your patient 2. The patient may have chest injuries he is not aware of. 3. You should immediately fir a cervical collar 4. The patient may have a head injury

A
  1. The airbag may still deploy, injuring you as well as your patient.
802
Q

When you are finally cleared to come into the scene. As you start to head in, you are informed that your patient has suffered a gunshot wound. What types of damage would you expect to find? 1. Cavitation and projectile damage 2. Pressure-related damage and cavitation 3. Blunt-force trauma and penetrating 4. Cavitation and blunt force trauma

A
  1. Cavitation and projectile damage In a bullet injury, you would expect to find cavitation, or pressure-related damage from the bullet, and projectile damage directly from the projectile
803
Q

You have been dispatched to a call for an assault, that is all of the information. What is the initial response you will take as you approach the scene with the information provided?

A

Based on the information provided, it being an assault, you are going to stage, waiting for law enforcement to secure the scene

804
Q

In a rollover collision, expect which of the following: 1. skeletal and internal injuries 2. any type of serious injury pattern 3. spinal injuries 4. head and neck injuries

A
  1. Any type of serious injury pattern Rollover collisions can be the most serious because of the potential for multiple impacts. Rollover collisions frequently cause ejection of anyone who is not wearing a seat belt. Expect any type of serious injury pattern.
805
Q

A 68 y/o F complains of respiratory distress. She says she has been sick for 3 days, she has a HX of COPD. You note that she is coughing forcefully into napkin. Which of the following would be the most appropriate personal appropriate protective equipment for use on this scene? 1. Mask and eye protection 2. Gloves and Eye Protection 3. Gloves and gown 4. Gloves, Eye Protection, and Mask

A
  1. Gloves, Eye Protection and Mask This patient is exhibiting sx of respiratory illness. You should employ droplet protection in the form of gloves, eye protection and a mask. The mask would protect against direct inhalation of droplets, the eye protection would protect the mucous membrane of the eyes, and the gloves would prevent secondary infection from contact with infected surfaces
806
Q

Your patient is a known black belt martial arts instructor, you have been dispatched for a welfare check due to his being in the middle of the street attacking cars. When is it safe to approach him? 1. After he has calmed down 2. After dispatched has cleared you 3. After another crew arrives 4. After the police have subdued him

A
  1. After the police have subdued him You are facing an emotionally unstable patient who can be a significant threat if his anger is directed toward you. You should NOT approach him, even with another crew, without law enforcement present. Once police have the patient subdued, it is safe to approach him
807
Q

You are called to an area that you and/or your partner know to be dangerous (can be from experience, or briefings). There are frequent incidents of violent incidents of violent crime in that area. When you arrive, you see no bystanders, you see the patient who is an elderly male, he is experiencing respiratory problems, he also appears to be alone with the exception of his granddaughter, who is also the RP. The scene is quiet. What most indicates potential danger? 1. The patient is alone except for his granddaughter 2. There are no bystanders 3. The scene is quiet 4. You know the neighborhood is dangerous

A
  1. You know the neighborhood is dangerous You and your partner have prior knowledge of violence in the neighborhood you are responding to, and so you know that there is a potential for dangerous situation(s) to occur
808
Q

Which of the following would represent the next best location for parking if you could not park upwind, or uphill from the scene of a gasoline spill? 1. Behind a barrier 2. In a drainage ditch 3. Downwind from the spill 4. Downhill from the spill

A
  1. Behind a barrier If liquid is flowing, park behind a barrier if possible. Parking downhill or downwind would put you, your crew and your ambulance at risk for exposure to the liquid or fumes. Drainage ditches also pose the risk of exposing you to runoff from the spill
809
Q

You pull up on a MVA. Vehicle vs a utility pole, you notice that there is gasoline leaking from the car. What is another potential hazard that you would expect/need to take into account in this situation? 1. Penetrating trauma 2. Fumes 3. Blunt-force trauma 4. Organ collision

A
  1. Fumes This is another hazard that you should expect/take into consideration as a hazard. During your assessment you may find that patients involved have sustained: 1. Penetrating trauma 3. Blunt force trauma 4. Organ collision However, all of the above are types of injuries, not hazards on the scene
810
Q

Your ambulance has been dispatched to a multiple-car motor vehicle crash. Dispatch has alerted you that fire and rescue units are enroute. As you approach the scene, you should 1. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets 2. don personal protective equipment 3. remove your seatbelt to allow easy exit of the ambulance 4. review the trauma triage criteria

A
  1. look and listen for other emergency vehicles as you approach the scene 2. Although personal protective equipment and 4. the trauma triage criteria are important, the immediate risk is being struck by an oncoming vehicle. You should always consider safety first 3. You should never remove your seat belt in a moving vehicle
811
Q

You arrive on scene and see smoke, approaching onlookers, an overturned vehicle, a broken utility pole, shards of glass on the street, and a fire hydrant. The element that signals nothing hazardous is: 1. the utility pole 2. the smoke 3. the approaching onlookers 4. the fire hydrant

A
  1. the fire hydrant Smoke, approaching onlookers, and a broken utility pole are all signs of potential hazards. A fire hydrant is there to help in emergencies and is not in itself a sign of any hazard or emergency
812
Q

Scene Size up: 1. is ongoing throughout every call 2. ends with arrival on the scene 3. ends with identification of MOI or NOI 4. extends of initial identification of hazards

A
  1. Is ongoing throughout every call Scene size-up is not confined to the first part of the assessment process. These considerations should continue throughout the call, because emergencies are dynamic, always-changing events
813
Q

Scene Safety Scenario: Which of the following would be be a NEW and UNEXPECTED FACTOR that CHANGED the nature of of the scene following your arrival? 1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients 2. You see downed lines as you are driving up to the scene 3. Dispatch warns you to expect downed power lines 4. After you begin transport the power goes out across the neighborhood

A
  1. Power lines come down as you are providing care to patients This would be a new and unexpected factor that CHANGED the nature of the scene and required sizing up. 2. Seeing downed lines as you drive up is part of ARRIVING on the scene, 3. A warning from dispatch prior to entering the scene is PRE-ARRIVAL 4. A power outage after you begin transport occurs after you LEAVE the scene
814
Q

Danger Zone when there are no apparent hazards:

A

Consider the DZ to extend at least 50’ (15.2M) in all directions from the wreckage). The ambulance needs to be staged away from broken glass and other debris, the ambulance cannot impede emergency service personnel who must work in or around the wreckage. When using flares to protect the scene, make sure the person igniting them has been trained in the proper technique

815
Q

Nature of Illness - The scene

A

As you are sizing up the scene for safety, you can also make notes of other factors that may be clues to the patients condition. You may see medications in the patients room, living conditions that are unsanitary, or dangerous are all things that you are able to make note of in order to give a report on later and be able to give a more clear picture of when you give your patient report

816
Q

Nature of Illness - Family members or Bystanders

A

These are people who can provide you with information especially when dealing with an unconscious patient. Additionally, if the patient is conscious, but their mental status is compromised, these other sources can be put in there in order to be able to piece the information to put a full picture together for your patient

817
Q

Nature of Illness - Patient provided

A

When conscious and oriented, patients will be a prime source of information about their condition throughout the assessment process

818
Q

When looking at the Nature of the Illness you can look at:

A

The patient Family Members or Bystanders The scene To get information on the nature of the illness

819
Q

Nature of the illness

A

What is medically wrong with the patient

820
Q

Index of Suspicion

A

Awareness that there may be injuries

821
Q

Blunt Force Trauma

A

Injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

822
Q

Penetrating Trauma

A

Injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

823
Q

Examples of Danger Zones

A

Downed Power Lines Vehicles on Fire Hazardous Materials Threatened by Fire Spilled Fuel Hazardous Materials

824
Q

Mechanism of Injury

A

A force or forces that may have caused injury

825
Q

Danger zone where hazardous material is involved

A

The ERG needs to be consulted for stand off distances

826
Q

Scene Size-Up

A

Steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: Checking scene safety taking standard precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for

827
Q

Danger zone where wires are down

A

Danger zone the area in which people may be in contact with energized wires if the wires pivot around their points of attachment. Even though you may have to carry equipment and stretchers for a considerable distance, the ambulance should be parked at least one full span of wires away from the poles to which the broken wires are attached

828
Q

Danger Zone when vehicle is on fire

A

Danger zone 100’ (30.4M) in all directions even if the fire seems small and limited to engine compartment. If fire does reach the fuel tank, an explosion could easily damage an ambulance parked any closer

829
Q

Danger Zone where there has been fuel spilled:

A

Danger zone extended to minimum of 100’ (30.4M) in all directions from the wreckage and fuel. Park upwind. Note wind direction. You want the ambulance out of the path of dense smoke if fuel ignites. If fuel is flowing away from the wreckage, park uphill as well as upwind from the wreck. Do NOT use flares in areas that fuel has been spilled. Avoid gutters, ditches, and gullies that can carry the fuel towards the ambulance. Use traffic cones during the day and triangles at night.

830
Q

Danger Zone when there are no apparent hazards:

A

Consider the DZ to extend at least 50’ (15.2M) in all directions from the wreckage). The ambulance needs to be staged away from broken glass and other debris, the ambulance cannot impede emergency service personnel who must work in or around the wreckage. When using flares to protect the scene, make sure the person igniting them has been trained in the proper technique

831
Q

Examples of Danger Zones

A

Downed Power Lines Vehicles on Fire Hazardous Materials Threatened by Fire Spilled Fuel Hazardous Materials

832
Q

Danger Zone

A

The area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

833
Q

Scene Size-Up

A

Steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: Checking scene safety taking standard precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for

834
Q

Danger Zone

A

The area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

835
Q

Scene Size-Up

A

Steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call: Checking scene safety taking standard precautions, noting the mechanism of injury or nature of the patient’s illness, determining the number of patients and deciding what, if any, additional resources to call for

836
Q

Primary Assessment

A

The first element in a patient assessment; steps taken for the purpose of discovering and dealing with any kind life-threatening problems. The six parts of primary assessment are: (1) forming a general impression, (2) assessing mental status, (3) assessing patients airway, (4) assessing breathing, (5) assessing circulation, and (6) determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport to the hospital

837
Q

Interventions

A

Actions taken to correct or manage a patient’s problems

838
Q

General Impression

A

Impression of the patient’s condition that is formed on first approaching the patient, based on the patient’s environment, chief complaint, and appearance

839
Q

Spinal Motion Restriction

A

A procedure for limiting movement of the head, neck, and spine when spinal injury is possible or likely

840
Q

Manual Stabilization

A

Using one’s hands to prevent movement of a patient’s head and neck until a cervical collar can be applied

841
Q

Chief Complaint

A

In emergency medicine the reason EMS was called, usually in the patients own words

842
Q

Mental Status

A

Level of responsiveness

843
Q

AVPU

A

A memory aid for classifying a patient’s level of responsiveness or mental status. The letters stand for Alert, Verbal Response, Painful Response, Unresponsive

844
Q

ABC’s

A

Airway Breathing Circulation

845
Q

Priority

A

The decision regarding the need for immediate transport of the patient versus further assessment and care at the scene

846
Q

High Priority Conditions

A

Poor General Impression Unresponsive Responsive, but not following commands Difficulty breathing Shock Complicated childbirth Chest pain consistent with cardiac problems Uncontrolled bleeding Severe pain anywhere

847
Q

Primary Assessment - Responsive

A

General Impression : Form general impression of patients condition Mental Status : AVPU - Alert Airway - Open Breathing - Look for rise and fall of chest, and listen and feel for rate and depth of breathing. Look for work of breathing (use of accessory muscles, retractions). Assess O2 saturation Circulation - Pulse; bleeding; skin color, temperature, condition

848
Q

Primary Assessment - Responsive Interventions Priority

A

Breathing interventions: Administer O2 based on the patient’s O2 saturation reading, complaint, and level of distress. If breathing becomes inadequate, provide positive pressure ventilations and high-concentration O2 Circulation Intervention: Control bleeding. Treat for shock. If Cardiac arrest occurs perform CPR Priority - A responsive patient’s depends on on chief complaint, status of ABC’s and other factors

849
Q

Primary Assessment - Unresponsive

A

General Impression: Form general impression of patient’s condition Mental Status: AVPU - Responsive to only verbal or painful stimulus, or unresponsive Airway is compromised Breathing : Look for rise and fall of chest and listen feel for rate and depth of breathing (use of accessory muscles, retractions). Assess oxygen saturation Circulation : Pulse; bleeding, skin color, temperature, condition

850
Q

Primary Assessment - Unresponsive Interventions Mental Airway Breathing Circulation Priority

A

MENTAL INTERVENTION : Recognize that hypoxia or shock may be a cause of altered mental status/ Administer O2, as appropriate, during your treatment in breathing intervention AIRWAY INTERVENTION : Open airway with head-tilt, chin lift maneuver; consider oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway; suction as needed. For foreign body obstruction, use abdominal thrusts or other blockage-clearing technique BREATHING INTERVENTION : Administer O2 based on the patient’s O2 saturation reading complaint and level of distress. Position patient on side. If breathing is inadequate, provide positive pressure ventilations with O2. If respiratory arrest develops, perform rescue breathing CIRCULATION INTERVENTION : Control breathing. Treat for shock. If cardiac arrest occurs perform CPR PRIORITY : An unresponsive patient is automatically a high priority for immediate transport

851
Q

TRAUMA PATIENT Primary Assessment - Responsive

A

General Impression : Form general impression of patient’s condition. Evaluate MOI Mental Status: Alert Airway : Open Breathing : Look for rise and fall of chest, listen and feel for rate and depth of breathing. Look for work of breathing (use of accessory muscles, retractions) Circulation : Pulse; Bleeding; Skin Color; temperature; condition

852
Q

TRAUMA PATIENT Primary Assessment - Responsive INTERVENTIONS General Impression Breathing Circulation PRIORITY

A

GENERAL IMPRESSION INTERVENTION : Manual stabilization of head and neck if you suspect spinal injury BREATHING INTERVENTION : Patients with minor or isolated injuries usually do not require O2. Administer O2 based on the patients saturation reading, compliant, and level of distress. If respiratory failure develops, provide positive pressure ventilations and high-concentration O2 CIRCULATION INTERVENTION : Control bleeding. Treat for shock. If cardiac arrest occurs, perform CPR PRIORITY : A responsive patient’s depends on chief complaint, status of ABCs and other factors

853
Q

TRAUMA PATIENT Primary Assessment - Unresponsive

A

General Impression : Form general impression of patients condition. Evaluate MOI Mental Status : AVPU - Responsive only to Verbal or Painful stimuli, or unresponsive Airway : Compromised Breathing: Look for rise and fall of chest and listen and feel for rate and depth of breathing. Look for work of breathing (use of accessory muscles, retractions) Expose and palpate the chest for signs of trauma that will affect breathing Circulation : Pulse; bleeding; skin color; temperature; condition

854
Q

TRAUMA PATIENT Patient Assessment - Unresponsive INTERVENTIONS General Impression Mental Status Airway Breathing Circulation PRIORITY

A

GENERAL IMPRESSION INTERVENTION : Manual stabilization of head and neck if you suspect spinal injury MENTAL STATUS INTERVENTION : O2 administration. For patients with shock, hypoxia, or severe injuries, you will administer high-concentration O2 AIRWAY INTERVENTION : Open airway with jaw-thrust maneuver; consider oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway. Suction as needed. For foreign-body obstruction, use abdominal thrusts or other blockage-clearing technique BREATHING INTERVENTION : Administer O2 based on patient’s O2 saturation reading, complaint, and level of distress. If breathing becomes inadequate, provide positive pressure ventilation with O2. If respiratory arrest develops, perform rescue breathing CIRCULATION INTERVENTION : Control bleeding. Treat for shock, if cardiac arrest develops, perform CPR PRIORITY: An unresponsive patient is automatically a HIGH priority for IMMEDIATE transport

855
Q

You have a 41 y/o M patient, who has sustained a large laceration to his leg after falling from a tree that he was trimming. You identify a massive hemorrhage, and apply a tourniquet. The bleeding is now controlled. What is the next step that you would take? Considering that your primary assessment is going to always involve ABCs, but does not have to always be a straight down the line. In this case, the C was done first, because you had to handle the Circulation portion first.

A

Assess the patients airway would be the next step you would take. You may always want to conduct Airway, Breathing and Circulation. In this scenario, you handled Circulation, so as the scenario is happening - you are doing CAB

856
Q

You arrive on the scene of a MVA. You find a 40 y/o Male who was riding a motorcycle and crashed. Your first general impression identified that your patient is unconscious, has blood spurting out of his leg, and has gurgling respirations. What should you do FIRST

A

Apply direct pressure to the bleeding wound While your patient is presenting with gurgling respirations, his hemorrhage is at his Femoral artery, he will bleed out from this in potentially 2-3 minutes. This must be addressed FIRST

857
Q

When you decided to use a number system to assign an assisted breathing condition 1-4, with 1being the most severe and 4 being the least; how would that look?

A

1 - Respiratory arrest with a pulse - requires rescue breathing 2 - Patient is not alert and breathing is inadequate (with an insufficient minute volume because of decreased rate or depth, or both) 3 - Patient has some level of alertness and the patients breathing is inadequate 4 - Patients breathing is inadequate but there are signs suggesting respiratory distress or hypoxia

858
Q

Vital SX

A

Outward sx of what is going on inside the body, including respiration; pulse; skin color; temperature and condition (plus capillary refill in infants and children); pupils; and blood pressure

859
Q

Tachycardia

A

A rapid pulse; any resting pulse rate above 100 BPM in an adult

860
Q

Bradycardia

A

A slow pulse; any pulse rate below 60 BPM

861
Q

NORMAL PULSE RATES (BPM AT REST)

A

Adult : 60-100 Adolescent (11-18) : 60-100 School Age (6-10) : 65-120 (awake; slightly lower when asleep) Preschoolers : 70-120 (awake; slightly lower when asleep) Toddler (1-3) : 80-140 (awake; slightly lower when sleep) Infant (0-12 months) : 100-170 (awake; slightly lower when asleep)

862
Q

PULSE QUALITY/SIGNIFICANCE POSSIBLE CAUSES

A
  • RAPID, REGULAR, and FULL / Exertion, fright, fever, Hypertension, first stage of Hypovolemia - RAPID. REGULAR and THREADY / Shock, later stages of shock IRREGULAR / Abnormal electrical activity in the heart SLOW / head injury, drugs some poisons, some heart problems, alack of O2 in children NO PULSE / Cardiac arrest (clinical death) **Note - If patient is awake and talking, but has no carotid pulses, ask if the patient has a ventricular assist device
863
Q

Pulse quality

A

The rhythm (regular or irregular) and force (strong or weak) of the the pulse

864
Q

Radial Pulse

A

The pulse felt at the wrist

865
Q

Brachial Pulse

A

The pulse felt in the upper arm

866
Q

Carotid Pulse

A

The pulse felt along the large carotid artery on either side of the neck

867
Q

Respiration

A

The act of breathing in and breathing out

868
Q

Respiratory rate

A

The number of breaths taken in one minute

869
Q

Vital SX

A

Outward sx of what is going on inside the body, including respiration; pulse; skin color; temperature and condition (plus capillary refill in infants and children); pupils; and blood pressure

870
Q

Tachycardia

A

A rapid pulse; any resting pulse rate above 100 BPM in an adult

871
Q

Bradycardia

A

A slow pulse; any pulse rate below 60 BPM

872
Q

NORMAL PULSE RATES (BPM AT REST)

A

Adult : 60-100 Adolescent (11-18) : 60-100 School Age (6-10) : 65-120 (awake; slightly lower when asleep) Preschoolers : 70-120 (awake; slightly lower when asleep) Toddler (1-3) : 80-140 (awake; slightly lower when sleep) Infant (0-12 months) : 100-170 (awake; slightly lower when asleep)

873
Q

PULSE QUALITY/SIGNIFICANCE POSSIBLE CAUSES

A
  • RAPID, REGULAR, and FULL / Exertion, fright, fever, Hypertension, first stage of Hypovolemia - RAPID. REGULAR and THREADY / Shock, later stages of shock IRREGULAR / Abnormal electrical activity in the heart SLOW / head injury, drugs some poisons, some heart problems, alack of O2 in children NO PULSE / Cardiac arrest (clinical death) **Note - If patient is awake and talking, but has no carotid pulses, ask if the patient has a ventricular assist device
874
Q

Pulse quality

A

The rhythm (regular or irregular) and force (strong or weak) of the the pulse

875
Q

Radial Pulse

A

The pulse felt at the wrist

876
Q

Brachial Pulse

A

The pulse felt in the upper arm

877
Q

Carotid Pulse

A

The pulse felt along the large carotid artery on either side of the neck

878
Q

Respiration

A

The act of breathing in and breathing out

879
Q

Respiratory rate

A

The number of breaths taken in one minute

880
Q

NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATES (Breaths per minute, at rest)

A

Adult - 12-20 Above 24 : Serious Below 10 : Serious Adolescent (13-18 Years) - 12-20 School Age (6-12 Years) - 18-30 Preschooler (3-5 Years) - 22-34 Toddler (1-3 Years) - 24-40 Infant (0-6 months) - 30-60 (6-12 months) - 24-30 Newborn - 30-60 ( >60 considered Tachypnea)

881
Q

RESPIRATORY SOUNDS/POSSIBLE CAUSES/INTERVENTIONS

A

* SNORING Possible Causes Airway blocked; Open patient’s airway; INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT * WHEEZING Possible Causes: Medical problem such as asthma/assist patient in taking prescribed medications; INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT * GURGLING - Possible Causes - Fluids in Airway - INTERVENTION : SUCTION AIRWAY; PROMPT TRANSPORT * CROWING - Possible Causes : Medical problems that cannot be treated on scene - INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT

882
Q

Respiratory Quality

A

The normal or abnormal (shallow, labored or noisy) character of breathing

883
Q

Respiratory Rhythm

A

The regular or irregular spacing of breaths

884
Q

SKIN COLOR SIGNIFICANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** PINK - Normal in light-skinned patients; normal at inner eyelids, lips and nail beds of dark skinned patients ** PALE - Constricted blood vessels, possibly resulting from blood loss, shock, hypotension, emotional distress ** CYANTOIC (Blue - Gray) - Lack of O2 in blood cells and tissues resulting from inadequate breathing or heart function ** FLUSHED (red) - Exposure to heat, emotional excitement ** JAUNDICED (Yellow) - Abnormalities of the liver ** MOTTLED (Blotchy) - Occasionally in patients with shock

885
Q

SKIN TEMPERATURE/CONDITION SIGNIFCANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** COOL, CLAMMY - Sign of shock, anxiety ** COLD, MOIST - Body is losing heat ** COLD, DRY - Exposure to cold ** HOT, DRY - High fever, heat exposure ** HOT, MOIST - High fever, heat exposure *** “GOOSE PIMPLES” ACCOMPANIED BY SHIVERING, CHATTERING TEETH, BLUE LIPS AND PALE SKIN - Chills, communicable disease, exposure to cold, pain or fear

886
Q

Pupil

A

The black center of the eye

887
Q

Dilate

A

Get larger

888
Q

Constrict

A

Get smaller

889
Q

Reactivity

A

In the pupils of the eyes, reacting to light by changing size

890
Q

PUPIL APPEARANCE SIGNIFICANCE POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** DILATED (larger than normal) - Fright, blood loss, drugs, prescription eye drops ** CONSTRICTED (smaller than normal) - Drugs (narcotics), prescription eye drops ** UNEQUAL - Stroke, head injury, eye injury, artificial eye, prescription eye drops ** LACK OF REACTIVITY - Drugs, lack of O2 to the brain

891
Q

Blood pressure

A

The force of blood against the walls of the blood vessels

892
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure created when the heart contracts and forces blood out into the arteries

893
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is relaxed and refilling

894
Q

BLOOD PRESSURE NORMAL RANGES - SYSTOLIC

A

** ADULT - Less than or equal to 120 ** ADOLESCENT - About 107-117 ** AGES 1-10 - Mean systolic pressure is 90+(age in years x 2) Example: Mean systolic pressure for 2 y/o is 90 + 2 x 2 = 4 = 94 ***Note - this formula is an average, and individual pressures ** INFANT - ******* Day 0 - Day 10 - 50-70 ********At Day 10 - 90 *******Day 10 - 12 months - 90

895
Q

BLOOD PRESSURE – SIGNIFICANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE – Medical condition, exertion, fright, emotional distress, excitement ** LOW BLOOD PRESSURE – Athlete or other person with normally low blood pressure; blood loss; late sx of shock ** NO BLOOD PRESSURE – Patient with Ventricular Assist Device in Chest; Cardiac Arrest

896
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

The cuff and the gauge used to measure blood pressure

897
Q

Brachial

A

The major artery in the arm

898
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening. A stethoscope is used to auscultate for characteristic sounds

899
Q

Palpation

A

Touching or feeling. A pulse or blood pressure may be palpated with the fingertips

900
Q

Blood Pressure Monitor

A

A machine that automatically inflates a blood pressure cuff and measures blood pressure

901
Q

Steps to measuring a BP by Palpation Recorded as XXX/Palp

A
  1. Position the cuff and find the radial pulse 2. Inflate the cuff 3. Deflate the cuff, when you feel the radial pulse return that is your Systolic pressure 4. Record the pressure as XXX/Palp (can also be XXX/P)
902
Q

Pulse Oximeter

A

An electronic device for determining the amount of O2 carried in the blood, known as the O2 saturation or SpO2

903
Q

Oxygen Saturation

A

The ratio of the amount of O2 present in the blood to the amount that could be carried expressed as a percentage

904
Q

How do you record the Pulse Oxygenation? What is it a measurement of/expressed as?

A

SpO2 It is expressed as a percentage (a patients SpO2 is 97%)

905
Q

What are the two (2) factors which determine the pulse QUALITY?

A
  1. rhythm and 2. force
906
Q

What is referred to when speaking about the pulse RHYTHM?

A

Reflects the regularity of the pulse that you are palpating

907
Q

What is referred to when speaking about the pulse FORCE?

A

This refers to the pressure of the pulse wave as it expands the artery that you are palpating

908
Q

In palpation of a pulse, you are ______ the pulse with your _____

A

feeling, fingertips

909
Q

What are the areas that you will palpate a pulse?

A
  1. Radial 2. Brachial 3. Femoral 4. Carotid 5. Dorsalis Pedis
910
Q

What vital sign is expressed as a percentage?

A

SpO2 (Oxygen Saturation)

911
Q

Which of the following can best help evaluate the extent of hypoxia in a patient (**ALL tools available) 1. Pulse Oximetry 2. Skin Condition 3. Skin Color 4. Pulse Quality

A
  1. Pulse oximetry Is a useful adjunct to determine the extent of hypoxia in a patient. Although skin color and pulse quality can also be affected by hypoxia, they are less specific than pulse oximetry
912
Q

You have a 59 y/o patient who suffered a sudden cardiac arrest. CPR was immediately started, and was successful in restoring breathing, as well as a pulse. Your patient presents a strong carotid pulse in addition to breathing, but the patient remains unconscious. You are expediting transport, in addition to this, you should also: 1. check vital signs again in 5 minutes 2. check the pulse oximetry every 3 minutes 3. continue with chest compressions for 1 minute 4. reassess vital sx after 10 minutes

A
  1. check vital sx again in 5 minutes Reassessing a trauma patient, or an unstable patient’s vital sx every 5 minutes is the standard of care. In this case, another arrest is LIKLEY, so blood pressure and pulse are especially important to check again in 5 minutes along with other vital sx. Ten minutes is too long Pulse oximetry is important but not more important than checking other vital sx the standard is not to check this every 3 minutes Chest compressions are no longer necessary
913
Q

At what intervals should subsequent vital sign assessments be conducted for the responsive, stable medical patient 1. Once during transport 2. Every 5 minutes 3. Every 15 minutes 4. Only if the patient’s mental status changes

A
  1. Every 15 minutes Conduct your reassessment every 15 minutes for stable patients This can be a longer interval for unstable patients because VS are far less likely to change in a stable patient
914
Q

The best sites to assess skin color in adults are in the mucous membranes of the mouth, eyelids and: 1. in the nose 2. in the nailbeds 3. in the ears 4. on the chest

A
  1. in the nailbeds The mucous membranes located in the mouth and eyelids and the nailbeds are the best sites on adult patients to assess skin color and perfusion. Although skin color CAN be assessed in other areas, these specific sites are the most useful
915
Q

Which of the following methods of obtaining a temperature would be most appropriate for use in an ambulance? 1. Rectal measurement 2. Electronic measurement 3. Axial measurement 4. Tympanic measurement

A
  1. Electronic Measurement This is the safest and most hygienic means of measuring temperature in an ambulance. Although axial and rectal temperature measurement can be utilized, electronic measurement would be preferred over these methods. Tympanic measurement is not typically accurate enough for use in the ambulance
916
Q

Your patient is a 26 y/o F who is complaining of respiratory distress. You have completed your primary assessment, obtained a baseline set of VS, and been ordered by medical control to assist the patient with her bronchodilator inhaler. After administering the medication, you should next: 1. complete a detailed physical examination 2. reassess VS 3. ask the patient if she has any allergies 4. continue on the patients hx

A
  1. reassess VS You should repeat VS after EVERY medical intervention. HX and a detailed physical examination can be completed after you reassess VS. You must inquire about allergies before administering a medication
917
Q

APGAR

A

A - Activity (muscle tone) P - Pulse G - Grimace (reflex irritability) A - Appearance (skin color) R - Respiration

918
Q

What are the scores used in the APGAR chart?

A

A - Activity (muscle tone) - Absent = 0; Flexed Limbs = 1 point; Active = 2 PT P - Pulse - Absent = 0; <100BPM = 1 PT; >100 BPM = 2 PT G - Grimace (reflex irritability) - Floppy = 0 ; Minimal response to stimuli = 1 PT; Prompt response to stimulation = 2 PT A - Appearance (skin color) - Blue/Pale = 0; Pink Body, blue extremities = 1 PT; Pink = 2 PT R - Respiration - Absent = 0; Slow/Irregular = 1PT; Vigorous Cry = 2 PT

919
Q

Your patient, a 29 y/o F, delivered a healthy baby. You are enroute to the hospital, and have just completed your second round of APGAR of the child, when the mother starts to have a seizure. You should: 1. stop the ambulance and have your partner care for the baby while you repeat the primary assessment on the mother 2. continue your care of the baby, and call to intercept with another unit, so that they can care for the mother 3. call for law enforcement to provide an escort to the ED and escalate to priority transport 4. place the baby on the mothers chest while you complete a primary assessment on the mother

A
  1. stop the ambulance and have your partner care for the baby while you repeat the primary assessment on the mother Because of the change in the mothers condition, you MUST repeat the primary assessment. However, care for the newborn must ALSO continue. You CANNOT wait for another unit as life threatening conditions may be present right now. You also cannot stop the care of the newborn Although priority transport is indicated, a primary assessment/reassessment must occur immediately
920
Q

Capnography

A

A testing method that tells indirectly how well the tissues are using O2. It measures the amount of CO2 (ETCO2) that patient is exhaling

921
Q

How is CO2 abbreviated. What is a normal amount?

A

ETCO2 and is measured in mmHg The normal ETCO2 is 35-45mmHg

922
Q

In a spontaneously breathing patient, capnography is usually performed using: 1. a special nasal cannula 2. a pulse oximeter 3. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” 4. a pocket face mask

A
  1. a special nasal cannula The reason for this being that your patient is still spontaneously breathing, therefore no need to use a BVM
923
Q

In a patient where you are ventilating the patient, capnography is performed using: 1. a special nasal cannula 2. a pulse oximeter 3. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” 4. a pocket face mask

A
  1. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” A pulse oximeter does not give you a ETCO2 reading A special nasal cannula is for those who are “spontaneously breathing” A pocket face mask has no attachments for this measurement
924
Q

At what age do you start measuring blood pressure?

A

Age 3 and older. Blood pressures are difficult to obtain with any accuracy on infants and children younger than 3 Blood pressure on children under the age of 3 have LITTLE BEARING on the patients field management On a patient under the age of three (3), you get more useful information about the condition of an infant, or very young child by observing conditions such as a “sick appearance”, respiratory distress, or unconsciousness

925
Q

What are the six (6) Vital Sx (VS)? What are you looking for in each of these?

A
  1. Pulse - Presence - Strength - Regularity Two main areas you want to palpate for this is: - Carotid - Radial 2. Blood Pressure (BP) - Systolic (Top number/when Ventricle pumps to body) - Diastolic (Bottom number/When the heart is at rest) - Palpation - SYSTOLIC ONLY 3. Skin - Color - Temperature - Condition 4. Respirations - Rate - Depth 5. Pupils - Size - Reactivity 6. Pulse Oximetry
926
Q

When obtaining a BP by Palpation, where are you measuring it? 1. Pedal 2. Carotid 3. Radial 4. Femoral

A
  1. Radial 1. Pump the cuff until you do not have a pulse in the radial 2. Release the cuff 3. While watching the sphygmomanometer dial, you feel for the pulse to return 4. When you feel the pulse return, this is the number of your BP/Palp (ONLY able to get SYSTOLIC Pressure in this manner)
927
Q

Arterial pressure is exerted by the blood when the left ventricle contracts and is detected: 1. when sounds of the pulse disappear during the deflation of the BP cuff 2. by the stethoscope 3. by the rhythm 4. as the first sounds heard when the BP cuff is slowly released

A
  1. as the first sounds heard when the BP cuff is slowly released
928
Q

You are treating a pediatric patient. You are reaching for the Pediatric BP cuff, when you notice that your 9 y/o patient is becoming cyanotic. What should you do? 1. Repeat the primary assessment 2. Check the patients temperature 3. Administer O2 4. Check the BP

A
  1. Repeat the primary assessment Obviously, somewhere earlier in the assessment, there was not an issue, but your patient has taken a turn for the worse, causing the need for you to perform a reassessment of your patient.
929
Q

In adults, direct assessment of the circulatory status of the body can be performed by measuring the blood pressure and the: 1. pulse 2. respiratory rate 3. temperature 4. pulse oximeter

A
  1. pulse
930
Q

Which of the following is an outward sign of what is going on inside of the body? 1. Nausea 2. Vertigo 3. Blood Pressure 4. Headache

A
  1. Blood Pressure
931
Q

Cool skin that is moist is referred to as “cool and clammy.” It is often related to: 1. dehydration 2. frostbite or hypothermia 3. sweating from heat exposure 4. shock or anxiety

A
  1. shock or anxiety
932
Q

A patient’s family member tells you that your patient has diabetes, and the patient is presenting with symptoms that are likely due to hypoglycemia. You decide you need to measure the patient’s blood glucose level. Name the steps of performing the glucose check

A
  1. Prepare your device 2. Prepare your lancet and test strip, cotton swab, tape, and band aid 3. Place your test strip in your monitor 4. Get an alcohol pad ready 5. “Milk” the patient’s finger 6. Clean the patient’s finger with the alcohol 7. Let the alcohol dry 8. Ensure that the meter is on prior to moving to next steps 9. Use the lancet to “prick” the patient’s finger. 10. Wipe away the first drop of blood with your cotton swab 11. Put the second drop of blood onto the test strip in the machine 12. Put the ban aid/cotton swab/whatever you are using to cover the pin prick, tape if needed
933
Q

What is the normal Blood Glucose Reading of a patient?

A

70-100 mg/dl (milligrams per deciliter)

934
Q

When talking about a “normal blood glucose reading”, we are talking about in normal bodies. What should you ask a diabetic patient/family members

A

“What is normal Blood Glucose reading for him/her? Gives a good indication as to what the reading will tell you The “Normal” that is cited is talking about an overall normal, but when diabetics, it is not abnormal for their numbers to differ from those numbers cited

935
Q

The FIRST set of VS obtained are known as what?

A

Baseline VS

936
Q

Where do baseline VS fit into the sequence of patient assessment?

A

Secondary Assessment

937
Q

Vital SX are rechecked every _______ minutes on a stable patient, and every _________ minutes on an unstable patient

A

15, 5

938
Q

Recording and documenting your patient’s first set of VS is very important because, when combined with the follow-on reassessments, it allows for 1. fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form 2. compare your patient’s condition with other patient’s conditions 3. make an accurate diagnosis of the patient’s illness 4. discover trends and changes in the patient’s condition

A
  1. Discovering trends and changes in the patients condition
939
Q

You have been called to an 82 y/o patient who has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your reading that you get on the pulse oximeter shows her SpO2 at 82%, but she is presenting with adequate breathing. In order to get an adequate reading you should

A

warm the patient’s hands and try again

940
Q

What three (3) things are you looking for when checking pupils?

A
  1. Size 2. Reactivity 3. Equality
941
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause for unequal pupils? 1. stroke 2. artificial eye 3. fright 4. eye injury

A
  1. fright unequal pupil possible causes can be: stroke, head injury, eye injury, artificial eye, prescription eye drops
942
Q

The abbreviation mmHG indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? 1. Milligrams per deciliter 2. Millimeters per deciliter 3. Beats per minute 4. Atmospheric pressure

A
  1. Millimeters of mercury
943
Q

You are called to the scene of a child who has had an accident. Upon arrival, you find the child presents with pale skin with dark spots of cyanosis. How would you report this skin color? 1. jaundiced 2. flushed 3. cyanotic 4. mottling

A
  1. Mottling
944
Q

You are assessing a 48 y/o M who is unconscious. The scene is safe and your patient is gurgling. What is your next action? 1. open the airway with a head tilt 2. insert an airway adjunct 3. suction the airway 4. quickly check the pulse

A
  1. suction the airway
945
Q

A(n) __________ set of vital sx is important for critical decision making for the EMT 1. repeated 2. unbiased 3. accurate 4. complete

A
  1. accurate
946
Q

NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATES (Breaths per minute, at rest)

A

Adult - 12-20 Above 24 : Serious Below 10 : Serious Adolescent (13-18 Years) - 12-20 School Age (6-12 Years) - 18-30 Preschooler (3-5 Years) - 22-34 Toddler (1-3 Years) - 24-40 Infant (0-6 months) - 30-60 (6-12 months) - 24-30 Newborn - 30-60 ( >60 considered Tachypnea)

947
Q

A(n) __________ set of vital sx is important for critical decision making for the EMT 1. repeated 2. unbiased 3. accurate 4. complete

A
  1. accurate
948
Q

You are assessing a 48 y/o M who is unconscious. The scene is safe and your patient is gurgling. What is your next action? 1. open the airway with a head tilt 2. insert an airway adjunct 3. suction the airway 4. quickly check the pulse

A
  1. suction the airway
949
Q

You are called to the scene of a child who has had an accident. Upon arrival, you find the child presents with pale skin with dark spots of cyanosis. How would you report this skin color? 1. jaundiced 2. flushed 3. cyanotic 4. mottling

A
  1. Mottling
950
Q

The abbreviation mmHG indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? 1. Milligrams per deciliter 2. Millimeters per deciliter 3. Beats per minute 4. Atmospheric pressure

A
  1. Millimeters of mercury
951
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause for unequal pupils? 1. stroke 2. artificial eye 3. fright 4. eye injury

A
  1. fright unequal pupil possible causes can be: stroke, head injury, eye injury, artificial eye, prescription eye drops
952
Q

What three (3) things are you looking for when checking pupils?

A
  1. Size 2. Reactivity 3. Equality
953
Q

You have been called to an 82 y/o patient who has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your reading that you get on the pulse oximeter shows her SpO2 at 82%, but she is presenting with adequate breathing. In order to get an adequate reading you should

A

warm the patient’s hands and try again

954
Q

Recording and documenting your patient’s first set of VS is very important because, when combined with the follow-on reassessments, it allows for 1. fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form 2. compare your patient’s condition with other patient’s conditions 3. make an accurate diagnosis of the patient’s illness 4. discover trends and changes in the patient’s condition

A
  1. Discovering trends and changes in the patients condition
955
Q

Vital SX are rechecked every _______ minutes on a stable patient, and every _________ minutes on an unstable patient

A

15, 5

956
Q

Where do baseline VS fit into the sequence of patient assessment?

A

Secondary Assessment

957
Q

The FIRST set of VS obtained are known as what?

A

Baseline VS

958
Q

When talking about a “normal blood glucose reading”, we are talking about in normal bodies. What should you ask a diabetic patient/family members

A

“What is normal Blood Glucose reading for him/her? Gives a good indication as to what the reading will tell you The “Normal” that is cited is talking about an overall normal, but when diabetics, it is not abnormal for their numbers to differ from those numbers cited

959
Q

What is the normal Blood Glucose Reading of a patient?

A

70-100 mg/dl (milligrams per deciliter)

960
Q

A patient’s family member tells you that your patient has diabetes, and the patient is presenting with symptoms that are likely due to hypoglycemia. You decide you need to measure the patient’s blood glucose level. Name the steps of performing the glucose check

A
  1. Prepare your device 2. Prepare your lancet and test strip, cotton swab, tape, and band aid 3. Place your test strip in your monitor 4. Get an alcohol pad ready 5. “Milk” the patient’s finger 6. Clean the patient’s finger with the alcohol 7. Let the alcohol dry 8. Ensure that the meter is on prior to moving to next steps 9. Use the lancet to “prick” the patient’s finger. 10. Wipe away the first drop of blood with your cotton swab 11. Put the second drop of blood onto the test strip in the machine 12. Put the ban aid/cotton swab/whatever you are using to cover the pin prick, tape if needed
961
Q

Cool skin that is moist is referred to as “cool and clammy.” It is often related to: 1. dehydration 2. frostbite or hypothermia 3. sweating from heat exposure 4. shock or anxiety

A
  1. shock or anxiety
962
Q

Which of the following is an outward sign of what is going on inside of the body? 1. Nausea 2. Vertigo 3. Blood Pressure 4. Headache

A
  1. Blood Pressure
963
Q

In adults, direct assessment of the circulatory status of the body can be performed by measuring the blood pressure and the: 1. pulse 2. respiratory rate 3. temperature 4. pulse oximeter

A
  1. pulse
964
Q

You are treating a pediatric patient. You are reaching for the Pediatric BP cuff, when you notice that your 9 y/o patient is becoming cyanotic. What should you do? 1. Repeat the primary assessment 2. Check the patients temperature 3. Administer O2 4. Check the BP

A
  1. Repeat the primary assessment Obviously, somewhere earlier in the assessment, there was not an issue, but your patient has taken a turn for the worse, causing the need for you to perform a reassessment of your patient.
965
Q

Arterial pressure is exerted by the blood when the left ventricle contracts and is detected: 1. when sounds of the pulse disappear during the deflation of the BP cuff 2. by the stethoscope 3. by the rhythm 4. as the first sounds heard when the BP cuff is slowly released

A
  1. as the first sounds heard when the BP cuff is slowly released
966
Q

When obtaining a BP by Palpation, where are you measuring it? 1. Pedal 2. Carotid 3. Radial 4. Femoral

A
  1. Radial 1. Pump the cuff until you do not have a pulse in the radial 2. Release the cuff 3. While watching the sphygmomanometer dial, you feel for the pulse to return 4. When you feel the pulse return, this is the number of your BP/Palp (ONLY able to get SYSTOLIC Pressure in this manner)
967
Q

What are the six (6) Vital Sx (VS)? What are you looking for in each of these?

A
  1. Pulse - Presence - Strength - Regularity Two main areas you want to palpate for this is: - Carotid - Radial 2. Blood Pressure (BP) - Systolic (Top number/when Ventricle pumps to body) - Diastolic (Bottom number/When the heart is at rest) - Palpation - SYSTOLIC ONLY 3. Skin - Color - Temperature - Condition 4. Respirations - Rate - Depth 5. Pupils - Size - Reactivity 6. Pulse Oximetry
968
Q

At what age do you start measuring blood pressure?

A

Age 3 and older. Blood pressures are difficult to obtain with any accuracy on infants and children younger than 3 Blood pressure on children under the age of 3 have LITTLE BEARING on the patients field management On a patient under the age of three (3), you get more useful information about the condition of an infant, or very young child by observing conditions such as a “sick appearance”, respiratory distress, or unconsciousness

969
Q

In a patient where you are ventilating the patient, capnography is performed using: 1. a special nasal cannula 2. a pulse oximeter 3. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” 4. a pocket face mask

A
  1. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” A pulse oximeter does not give you a ETCO2 reading A special nasal cannula is for those who are “spontaneously breathing” A pocket face mask has no attachments for this measurement
970
Q

In a spontaneously breathing patient, capnography is usually performed using: 1. a special nasal cannula 2. a pulse oximeter 3. a bag valve mask with a plastic “collar” 4. a pocket face mask

A
  1. a special nasal cannula The reason for this being that your patient is still spontaneously breathing, therefore no need to use a BVM
971
Q

How is CO2 abbreviated. What is a normal amount?

A

ETCO2 and is measured in mmHg The normal ETCO2 is 35-45mmHg

972
Q

Capnography

A

A testing method that tells indirectly how well the tissues are using O2. It measures the amount of CO2 (ETCO2) that patient is exhaling

973
Q

Your patient, a 29 y/o F, delivered a healthy baby. You are enroute to the hospital, and have just completed your second round of APGAR of the child, when the mother starts to have a seizure. You should: 1. stop the ambulance and have your partner care for the baby while you repeat the primary assessment on the mother 2. continue your care of the baby, and call to intercept with another unit, so that they can care for the mother 3. call for law enforcement to provide an escort to the ED and escalate to priority transport 4. place the baby on the mothers chest while you complete a primary assessment on the mother

A
  1. stop the ambulance and have your partner care for the baby while you repeat the primary assessment on the mother Because of the change in the mothers condition, you MUST repeat the primary assessment. However, care for the newborn must ALSO continue. You CANNOT wait for another unit as life threatening conditions may be present right now. You also cannot stop the care of the newborn Although priority transport is indicated, a primary assessment/reassessment must occur immediately
974
Q

What are the scores used in the APGAR chart?

A

A - Activity (muscle tone) - Absent = 0; Flexed Limbs = 1 point; Active = 2 PT P - Pulse - Absent = 0; <100BPM = 1 PT; >100 BPM = 2 PT G - Grimace (reflex irritability) - Floppy = 0 ; Minimal response to stimuli = 1 PT; Prompt response to stimulation = 2 PT A - Appearance (skin color) - Blue/Pale = 0; Pink Body, blue extremities = 1 PT; Pink = 2 PT R - Respiration - Absent = 0; Slow/Irregular = 1PT; Vigorous Cry = 2 PT

975
Q

APGAR

A

A - Activity (muscle tone) P - Pulse G - Grimace (reflex irritability) A - Appearance (skin color) R - Respiration

976
Q

Your patient is a 26 y/o F who is complaining of respiratory distress. You have completed your primary assessment, obtained a baseline set of VS, and been ordered by medical control to assist the patient with her bronchodilator inhaler. After administering the medication, you should next: 1. complete a detailed physical examination 2. reassess VS 3. ask the patient if she has any allergies 4. continue on the patients hx

A
  1. reassess VS You should repeat VS after EVERY medical intervention. HX and a detailed physical examination can be completed after you reassess VS. You must inquire about allergies before administering a medication
977
Q

Which of the following methods of obtaining a temperature would be most appropriate for use in an ambulance? 1. Rectal measurement 2. Electronic measurement 3. Axial measurement 4. Tympanic measurement

A
  1. Electronic Measurement This is the safest and most hygienic means of measuring temperature in an ambulance. Although axial and rectal temperature measurement can be utilized, electronic measurement would be preferred over these methods. Tympanic measurement is not typically accurate enough for use in the ambulance
978
Q

The best sites to assess skin color in adults are in the mucous membranes of the mouth, eyelids and: 1. in the nose 2. in the nailbeds 3. in the ears 4. on the chest

A
  1. in the nailbeds The mucous membranes located in the mouth and eyelids and the nailbeds are the best sites on adult patients to assess skin color and perfusion. Although skin color CAN be assessed in other areas, these specific sites are the most useful
979
Q

At what intervals should subsequent vital sign assessments be conducted for the responsive, stable medical patient 1. Once during transport 2. Every 5 minutes 3. Every 15 minutes 4. Only if the patient’s mental status changes

A
  1. Every 15 minutes Conduct your reassessment every 15 minutes for stable patients This can be a longer interval for unstable patients because VS are far less likely to change in a stable patient
980
Q

You have a 59 y/o patient who suffered a sudden cardiac arrest. CPR was immediately started, and was successful in restoring breathing, as well as a pulse. Your patient presents a strong carotid pulse in addition to breathing, but the patient remains unconscious. You are expediting transport, in addition to this, you should also: 1. check vital signs again in 5 minutes 2. check the pulse oximetry every 3 minutes 3. continue with chest compressions for 1 minute 4. reassess vital sx after 10 minutes

A
  1. check vital sx again in 5 minutes Reassessing a trauma patient, or an unstable patient’s vital sx every 5 minutes is the standard of care. In this case, another arrest is LIKLEY, so blood pressure and pulse are especially important to check again in 5 minutes along with other vital sx. Ten minutes is too long Pulse oximetry is important but not more important than checking other vital sx the standard is not to check this every 3 minutes Chest compressions are no longer necessary
981
Q

Which of the following can best help evaluate the extent of hypoxia in a patient (**ALL tools available) 1. Pulse Oximetry 2. Skin Condition 3. Skin Color 4. Pulse Quality

A
  1. Pulse oximetry Is a useful adjunct to determine the extent of hypoxia in a patient. Although skin color and pulse quality can also be affected by hypoxia, they are less specific than pulse oximetry
982
Q

What vital sign is expressed as a percentage?

A

SpO2 (Oxygen Saturation)

983
Q

What are the areas that you will palpate a pulse?

A
  1. Radial 2. Brachial 3. Femoral 4. Carotid 5. Dorsalis Pedis
984
Q

In palpation of a pulse, you are ______ the pulse with your _____

A

feeling, fingertips

985
Q

What is referred to when speaking about the pulse FORCE?

A

This refers to the pressure of the pulse wave as it expands the artery that you are palpating

986
Q

What is referred to when speaking about the pulse RHYTHM?

A

Reflects the regularity of the pulse that you are palpating

987
Q

What are the two (2) factors which determine the pulse QUALITY?

A
  1. rhythm and 2. force
988
Q

How do you record the Pulse Oxygenation? What is it a measurement of/expressed as?

A

SpO2 It is expressed as a percentage (a patients SpO2 is 97%)

989
Q

Oxygen Saturation

A

The ratio of the amount of O2 present in the blood to the amount that could be carried expressed as a percentage

990
Q

Pulse Oximeter

A

An electronic device for determining the amount of O2 carried in the blood, known as the O2 saturation or SpO2

991
Q

Steps to measuring a BP by Palpation Recorded as XXX/Palp

A
  1. Position the cuff and find the radial pulse 2. Inflate the cuff 3. Deflate the cuff, when you feel the radial pulse return that is your Systolic pressure 4. Record the pressure as XXX/Palp (can also be XXX/P)
992
Q

Blood Pressure Monitor

A

A machine that automatically inflates a blood pressure cuff and measures blood pressure

993
Q

Palpation

A

Touching or feeling. A pulse or blood pressure may be palpated with the fingertips

994
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening. A stethoscope is used to auscultate for characteristic sounds

995
Q

Brachial

A

The major artery in the arm

996
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

The cuff and the gauge used to measure blood pressure

997
Q

BLOOD PRESSURE – SIGNIFICANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE – Medical condition, exertion, fright, emotional distress, excitement ** LOW BLOOD PRESSURE – Athlete or other person with normally low blood pressure; blood loss; late sx of shock ** NO BLOOD PRESSURE – Patient with Ventricular Assist Device in Chest; Cardiac Arrest

998
Q

BLOOD PRESSURE NORMAL RANGES - SYSTOLIC

A

** ADULT - Less than or equal to 120 ** ADOLESCENT - About 107-117 ** AGES 1-10 - Mean systolic pressure is 90+(age in years x 2) Example: Mean systolic pressure for 2 y/o is 90 + 2 x 2 = 4 = 94 ***Note - this formula is an average, and individual pressures ** INFANT - ******* Day 0 - Day 10 - 50-70 ********At Day 10 - 90 *******Day 10 - 12 months - 90

999
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is relaxed and refilling

1000
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure

A

The pressure created when the heart contracts and forces blood out into the arteries

1001
Q

Blood pressure

A

The force of blood against the walls of the blood vessels

1002
Q

PUPIL APPEARANCE SIGNIFICANCE POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** DILATED (larger than normal) - Fright, blood loss, drugs, prescription eye drops ** CONSTRICTED (smaller than normal) - Drugs (narcotics), prescription eye drops ** UNEQUAL - Stroke, head injury, eye injury, artificial eye, prescription eye drops ** LACK OF REACTIVITY - Drugs, lack of O2 to the brain

1003
Q

Reactivity

A

In the pupils of the eyes, reacting to light by changing size

1004
Q

Constrict

A

Get smaller

1005
Q

Dilate

A

Get larger

1006
Q

Pupil

A

The black center of the eye

1007
Q

SKIN TEMPERATURE/CONDITION SIGNIFCANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** COOL, CLAMMY - Sign of shock, anxiety ** COLD, MOIST - Body is losing heat ** COLD, DRY - Exposure to cold ** HOT, DRY - High fever, heat exposure ** HOT, MOIST - High fever, heat exposure *** “GOOSE PIMPLES” ACCOMPANIED BY SHIVERING, CHATTERING TEETH, BLUE LIPS AND PALE SKIN - Chills, communicable disease, exposure to cold, pain or fear

1008
Q

SKIN COLOR SIGNIFICANCE/POSSIBLE CAUSES

A

** PINK - Normal in light-skinned patients; normal at inner eyelids, lips and nail beds of dark skinned patients ** PALE - Constricted blood vessels, possibly resulting from blood loss, shock, hypotension, emotional distress ** CYANTOIC (Blue - Gray) - Lack of O2 in blood cells and tissues resulting from inadequate breathing or heart function ** FLUSHED (red) - Exposure to heat, emotional excitement ** JAUNDICED (Yellow) - Abnormalities of the liver ** MOTTLED (Blotchy) - Occasionally in patients with shock

1009
Q

Respiratory Rhythm

A

The regular or irregular spacing of breaths

1010
Q

Respiratory Quality

A

The normal or abnormal (shallow, labored or noisy) character of breathing

1011
Q

RESPIRATORY SOUNDS/POSSIBLE CAUSES/INTERVENTIONS

A

* SNORING Possible Causes Airway blocked; Open patient’s airway; INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT * WHEEZING Possible Causes: Medical problem such as asthma/assist patient in taking prescribed medications; INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT * GURGLING - Possible Causes - Fluids in Airway - INTERVENTION : SUCTION AIRWAY; PROMPT TRANSPORT * CROWING - Possible Causes : Medical problems that cannot be treated on scene - INTERVENTION : PROMPT TRANSPORT

1012
Q

Past Medical History (PMH)

A

Information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

1013
Q

Open-ended questions

A

A question requiring more than just a “yes” or “no” answer

1014
Q

Close Ended questions

A

A question requiring only a “yes” or “no” answer (can also be just a one way or the other answer, other than a yes or no)

1015
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The patient’s statement that describes the symptoms or concerns associated with the primary problem the patient is having

1016
Q

HX of Present Illness/Injury (HPI)

A

The events and or mechanism leading up to the patient’s current problem

1017
Q

OPQRST

A

A memory aid in which the letters stand for questions asked to get a description of the present illness: onset, provocation, quality, region/radiation, severity, time

1018
Q

You are beginning to start your patient. When you start the assessment process, you have decided to use the OPQRST. When you use the acronym, what does the “O” stand for?

A

Onset - What were you doing when the pain or problem began

1019
Q

You then move to P

A

Provocation - Does anything seem to trigger the pain or problem? Does anything make it better?

1020
Q

You move on to the Q

A

Quality - Can you describe the pain for me?

1021
Q

You move to the R

A

Region/Radiation - Where is the pain, can you point to it? Does it seem to shoot or spread anywhere else than where you showed me?

1022
Q

You move to the S

A

Severity - How bad is the pain or problem? If Zero (0) is NO PAIN, and (10) is the worst pain you have EVER felt, what is your level of pain?

1023
Q

You have come to the last part of the assessment memory aid (OPQRST) what does the T mean?

A

Time - When did the pain start? Has it changed at all since it first started? Was the pain a sudden onset or did it come on gradually?

1024
Q

SAMPLE

A

A memory aid in which the letters stand for elements of the past medical hx; sx of allergies, medications, , pertinent past hx, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness

1025
Q

You are still with your patient, and you have performed the OPQRST. You are now using the SAMPLE to determine the patients past hx You start with the S

A

Signs and Symptoms What’s wrong (you have found out this information as part of your OPQRST)

1026
Q

You are now moving to the A

A

Allergies - is your patient allergic to any medications or foods, does your patient have any food allergies?

1027
Q

You are moving onto the M

A

Medications - What medications is your patient currently taking? What medications did the patient STOP taking recently. Does the patient take any over the counter (OTC) medications? Do they take any other drugs (legal or illegal), we are not law enforcement, however, we need to know the medications or drugs that the patient has taken to be able to convey that information to the receiving personnel as it can/will affect the treatment of the patient.

1028
Q

You now move onto P

A

Pertinent past HX - Has your patient been experiencing any medical problems? Has the patient recently been to the doctor. Has there been any medication changes?

1029
Q

You now move onto L

A

Last oral intake - When was the last time that your patient had anything to eat or drink? What WAS the last thing that your patient ate and drank?

1030
Q

Your final thing to address is the E (this is something that you addressed in the OPQRST)

A

Events leading up to the injury (this is something that you addressed in the OPQRST) What sequence of events led to today’s problem? (example: the patient passed out, then got into a car crash versus got into a car crash, then passed out, versus, passed out while driving and then got into a car crash)

1031
Q

Jugular Vein Distension

A

Bulging of the neck veins

1032
Q

Crepitation

A

The grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together

1033
Q

Differential Diagnosis

A

A list of potential diagnosis compiled early in the assessment of the patient

1034
Q

You are interviewing your patient and you ask, “What does your discomfort in your chest feel like?” This would be an example of: 1. a heuristic 2. an open-ended question 3. a closed-ended question 4. differential diagnosis

A
  1. an open-ended question It allows the patient to explain themselves. It forces the patient to describe their situation in their own words. A closed-ended question only has two (2) options (example would be a “yes or no question.” A heuristic question is a “rule of thumb” Differential diagnosis would involve you compiling multiple possibilities in the interest of narrowing down a single diagnosis
1035
Q

The purpose of a good hx question is to 1. rule out life threats 2. get the hx completed as soon as possible 3. identify new questions to ask 4. determine the patient’s reliability as a source of information

A
  1. identify new questions to to ask The response to a good hx question will lead you to new questions (two more). The ultimate goal is to get the most relevant information to help direct your care
1036
Q

What process would you use to discover the circumstances surrounding the chef complain of the responsive medical patient? 1. AVPU 2. OPQRST 3. PERRL 4. SAMPLE

A
  1. OPQRST This stands for Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time This will ensure that you address all critical aspects of the chief complaint SAMPLE primarily involves the past medical hx PERRL is what you use to assess pupils AVPU assess consciousness
1037
Q

PERRL - (Used for eye assessment)

A

P - Pupils E - Equal R - Round R - Reactive L - Light

1038
Q

Thinking about the memory aids that we have, in what order would the memory aids be used?

A

AVPU - (In order to assess alertness of the patient) OPQRST - (In order to determine the medical condition of the patient PERRL - when you are assessing the patients pupils SAMPLE - getting to know their past hx This will get you through your assessment steps

1039
Q

You arrive on the scene of a 34 y/o male complaining of severe abdominal pain that started about two (2) hours prior to your being called, and has persisted for the last two (2) hours. On arrival, during your assessment, when you ask him to rate his pain on a 0-10 scale, what part of the OPQRST are you at?

A

Severity The severity refers to us having them rate it as a 0 fir no pain, and 10 being the worst pain they have even been in their entire life.

1040
Q

Your patient tells you that he had a heart valve replaced two (2) years ago. This is considered: 1. pertinent past medical hx 2. a chief complaint 3. a part of the cardiovascular body system examination 4. hx of present illness

A
  1. pertinent past medical hx In SAMPLE, the “P” is pertinent past medical hx (here, his previous heart valve surgery). Him advising you of this would be definitely be considered pertinent past medical hx
1041
Q

Your patient is a 12 y/o M, who recently had a seizure. By the time that you arrive, he is alert and tells you that his back hurts. You ask his mother who is there what medications he is on. What element of the SAMPLE layout are you using? 1. M 2. A 3. S 4. P

A
  1. M This refers to medication, and asking what medications that the patient is on, relates to this part of the interview. The patient advising how he feels at the moment relates to S or Sx or Symptoms. His complaint of back pain could be interpreted as his chief complaint A refers to allergies O refers to pertinent past medical hx
1042
Q

Past Medical History (PMH)

A

Information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

1043
Q

Open-ended questions

A

A question requiring more than just a “yes” or “no” answer

1044
Q

Close Ended questions

A

A question requiring only a “yes” or “no” answer (can also be just a one way or the other answer, other than a yes or no)

1045
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The patient’s statement that describes the symptoms or concerns associated with the primary problem the patient is having

1046
Q

HX of Present Illness/Injury (HPI)

A

The events and or mechanism leading up to the patient’s current problem

1047
Q

OPQRST

A

A memory aid in which the letters stand for questions asked to get a description of the present illness: onset, provocation, quality, region/radiation, severity, time

1048
Q

You are beginning to start your patient. When you start the assessment process, you have decided to use the OPQRST. When you use the acronym, what does the “O” stand for?

A

Onset - What were you doing when the pain or problem began

1049
Q

You then move to P

A

Provocation - Does anything seem to trigger the pain or problem? Does anything make it better?

1050
Q

You move on to the Q

A

Quality - Can you describe the pain for me?

1051
Q

You move to the R

A

Region/Radiation - Where is the pain, can you point to it? Does it seem to shoot or spread anywhere else than where you showed me?

1052
Q

You move to the S

A

Severity - How bad is the pain or problem? If Zero (0) is NO PAIN, and (10) is the worst pain you have EVER felt, what is your level of pain?

1053
Q

You have come to the last part of the assessment memory aid (OPQRST) what does the T mean?

A

Time - When did the pain start? Has it changed at all since it first started? Was the pain a sudden onset or did it come on gradually?

1054
Q

SAMPLE

A

A memory aid in which the letters stand for elements of the past medical hx; sx of allergies, medications, , pertinent past hx, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness

1055
Q

You are still with your patient, and you have performed the OPQRST. You are now using the SAMPLE to determine the patients past hx You start with the S

A

Signs and Symptoms What’s wrong (you have found out this information as part of your OPQRST)

1056
Q

You are now moving to the A

A

Allergies - is your patient allergic to any medications or foods, does your patient have any food allergies?

1057
Q

You are moving onto the M

A

Medications - What medications is your patient currently taking? What medications did the patient STOP taking recently. Does the patient take any over the counter (OTC) medications? Do they take any other drugs (legal or illegal), we are not law enforcement, however, we need to know the medications or drugs that the patient has taken to be able to convey that information to the receiving personnel as it can/will affect the treatment of the patient.

1058
Q

You now move onto P

A

Pertinent past HX - Has your patient been experiencing any medical problems? Has the patient recently been to the doctor. Has there been any medication changes?

1059
Q

You now move onto L

A

Last oral intake - When was the last time that your patient had anything to eat or drink? What WAS the last thing that your patient ate and drank?

1060
Q

Your final thing to address is the E (this is something that you addressed in the OPQRST)

A

Events leading up to the injury (this is something that you addressed in the OPQRST) What sequence of events led to today’s problem? (example: the patient passed out, then got into a car crash versus got into a car crash, then passed out, versus, passed out while driving and then got into a car crash)

1061
Q

Jugular Vein Distension

A

Bulging of the neck veins

1062
Q

Crepitation

A

The grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together

1063
Q

Differential Diagnosis

A

A list of potential diagnosis compiled early in the assessment of the patient

1064
Q

You are interviewing your patient and you ask, “What does your discomfort in your chest feel like?” This would be an example of: 1. a heuristic 2. an open-ended question 3. a closed-ended question 4. differential diagnosis

A
  1. an open-ended question It allows the patient to explain themselves. It forces the patient to describe their situation in their own words. A closed-ended question only has two (2) options (example would be a “yes or no question.” A heuristic question is a “rule of thumb” Differential diagnosis would involve you compiling multiple possibilities in the interest of narrowing down a single diagnosis
1065
Q

The purpose of a good hx question is to 1. rule out life threats 2. get the hx completed as soon as possible 3. identify new questions to ask 4. determine the patient’s reliability as a source of information

A
  1. identify new questions to to ask The response to a good hx question will lead you to new questions (two more). The ultimate goal is to get the most relevant information to help direct your care
1066
Q

What process would you use to discover the circumstances surrounding the chef complain of the responsive medical patient? 1. AVPU 2. OPQRST 3. PERRL 4. SAMPLE

A
  1. OPQRST This stands for Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time This will ensure that you address all critical aspects of the chief complaint SAMPLE primarily involves the past medical hx PERRL is what you use to assess pupils AVPU assess consciousness
1067
Q

PERRL - (Used for eye assessment)

A

P - Pupils E - Equal R - Round R - Reactive L - Light

1068
Q

Thinking about the memory aids that we have, in what order would the memory aids be used?

A

AVPU - (In order to assess alertness of the patient) OPQRST - (In order to determine the medical condition of the patient PERRL - when you are assessing the patients pupils SAMPLE - getting to know their past hx This will get you through your assessment steps

1069
Q

You arrive on the scene of a 34 y/o male complaining of severe abdominal pain that started about two (2) hours prior to your being called, and has persisted for the last two (2) hours. On arrival, during your assessment, when you ask him to rate his pain on a 0-10 scale, what part of the OPQRST are you at?

A

Severity The severity refers to us having them rate it as a 0 fir no pain, and 10 being the worst pain they have even been in their entire life.

1070
Q

Your patient tells you that he had a heart valve replaced two (2) years ago. This is considered: 1. pertinent past medical hx 2. a chief complaint 3. a part of the cardiovascular body system examination 4. hx of present illness

A
  1. pertinent past medical hx In SAMPLE, the “P” is pertinent past medical hx (here, his previous heart valve surgery). Him advising you of this would be definitely be considered pertinent past medical hx
1071
Q

Your patient is a 12 y/o M, who recently had a seizure. By the time that you arrive, he is alert and tells you that his back hurts. You ask his mother who is there what medications he is on. What element of the SAMPLE layout are you using? 1. M 2. A 3. S 4. P

A
  1. M This refers to medication, and asking what medications that the patient is on, relates to this part of the interview. The patient advising how he feels at the moment relates to S or Sx or Symptoms. His complaint of back pain could be interpreted as his chief complaint A refers to allergies O refers to pertinent past medical hx
1072
Q

Which of the following would you assess during the physical examination of the respiratory system? 1. Unusual breath odors 2. Ankle edema 3. Use of nitroglycerine 4. Palpation of the abdomen

A
  1. Ankle Edema During the respiration assessment you would observe edema, which could be dependent edema in the ankles
1073
Q

You have asked the patient about recent oral intake. This helps you assess recent oral intake. This helps you assess which body system? 1. Respiratory system 2. Gastrointestinal system 3. Endocrine system 4. Cardiovascular system

A
  1. Gastrointestinal system
1074
Q

Which of the following diagnostic shortcuts would make the EMT say “this patient has the same thing my last patient had?” 1. illusory correlation 2. overconfidence 3. confirmation bias 4. availability

A
  1. Availability This would cause the EMT to recall a recent diagnosis and apply it to a current patient.
1075
Q

You are examining a patient with abdominal problems and think that you’ve traced the problem to something that the patient ate last night. You IMMEDIATELY stop asking questsions about the present illness and proceed to the past medical hx. This best fis which heuristic (rule of thumb)? 1. Represntativeness 2. Confirmation bias 3. Search Satisfying 4. Availability

A
  1. Search Satisfying
1076
Q

You are called to a college party, where you find an unresponsive 19 y/o F. There is much evidence of alcohol consumption at the party. Which of the following behaviors are you demonstrating if you rapidly conclude that the patient is intoxicated? 1. Search satisfying 2. Anchoring 3. Overconfidence 4. Confirmation Bias

A
  1. Anchoring
1077
Q

On a call to a crime-ridden area where drug abuse is common, you are SURE that the current call for a patient with altered mental status and difficulty breathing will involve drugs. When you arrive on scene, you look for anything that confirms this hypothesis and ignore anything that does NOT point to drug abuse. This is: 1. anchoring 2. illusionary correlation 3. confirmation bias 4. availabilty

A
  1. confirmation bias
1078
Q

Representativeness

A

When you encounter a patient with a certain grup of signs and symptoms that resemble a certain condition, you assume that the patient has that condition. Representativeness is at the heart of pattern recognition and is an important heuristic. DISADVANTAGE: Patients do not always present with the typical signs and symptoms of a condition. As a result, when a patient does not fit the classic pattern, it is easy for the health care provider to mistakenly conclude the patient doesn’t have that condition.

1079
Q

Availability

A

The urge to think of things because they are more easily recalled, often because of a recent exposure. If an EMT has a patient with chest pain who is diagnosed with a dissecting thoracic aneurysm , the next time there is a patient with CP, the EMT is more likely to think of dissecting thoracic aneuryism as a possibility, even though the condition is much less common than angina and myocardial infarction. This is simply due to the recent exposure to this condition Easiest way to avoid this is to reflect on how common a condition actually IS (i.e. MI vs dissecting thoracic anuerysm)

1080
Q

Overconfidence

A

Being an EMT requires a significant degree of confidence. OVER confidence though can lead to problems. Can lead to tendencies to thinking that you know more than you actually do about a subject/condition than you do. Avoid this by remaining open-minded/objective as possible when evaluating how much eidence has been gathered and whether it has been gathered in a logical and thorough fashion

1081
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

This happens when looking primarily for evidence which supports a belief or diagnosis that we already have in mind, so looking to actually get a confirmation of our belief

1082
Q

Illusionary correlation

A

Seems that one event leads to another. Be skeptical about an event that conveinently leads to another. Do NOT jump to conclusions about an incident or finding or diagnosis. It may stop your from doing an in-depth assessment, so make sure that you do not allow this to happen.

1083
Q

Anchoring and Adjustment

A

May consider a particular condition to be likely, and later thinking is anchored to that hypothesis. The EMT may adjust in time, but sometimes not as much as neccessary because of the starting point. An EMT may initially think that an unconscious person is “just dunk” and when information appears that she may have had head trauma, the EMT may cling to that hypothesis that they originally had anchored.

1084
Q

Search Satisfying

A

You can be very satisfied when finally finding the cause of the problem. HOWEVER, once this HAPPENS, you can actually find yourself just STOPPING there, you may not look for any other problems. You need to continue your assessment and keep an open mind, and be satisfied about finding the one cause, but understand that there may be more than one thing wrong with any patient you are dealing with

1085
Q

You and your partner are discussing a call you previously had. The EMT said the patient presented with classic MI sx. That is how you treated the patient. The patient was discharged 2 hours after you delivered him to the hospital. You are concerned that your assessment skills may be criticized and be viewed as not being as good as they should be, and the ED Physician will no longer trust your judgement. What should you think about when regarding your actions taken on this call? 1. Your misdiagnosis is a result of limited information 2. Your misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias 3. Your misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation 4. Your misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring

A
  1. Your misdiagnosis is a result of limited information
1086
Q

You have a patient you is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule out trauma as a cause of your patients unresponsiveness? 1. Check the patients blood glucose in order to rule out hypoglycemia 2. Perform a stroke scale on the patient 3. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident 4. Examine the patient for signs of trauma

A
  1. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident
1087
Q

You respond to a patient with SOB, He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the day up until he finally called for you (over the last few hours). You ask if he has taken anything to help with his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as: 1. results of a physical exam 2. the hx of present illness 3. relevant past medical hx 4. part of the SAMPLE hx

A
  1. The hx of present illness
1088
Q

An EMT’s assessment differs from an assessment made in the ED in which way? 1. The ED Physician 2. The EMT is working with limited resources 3. An EMT’s focus on life threats first 4. Time is available in the ED to make a diagnosis

A
  1. The EMT is working with limited resources
1089
Q

You are attending to an elderly patient who reports of having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and has not eaten for several hours. Which of the following is most important to your assessment of this patient? 1. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements 2. asking him if he is able to walk 3. determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed 4. Finding out if he has any chest pain

A
  1. Ask if he has been having regular bowel movements
1090
Q

A description of a patients condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and tx is known as which of the following? 1. Clinical decision 2. Red Flag 3. Diagnosis 4. Critical Thinking

A
  1. Diagnosis
1091
Q

Past Medical History (PMH)

A

Information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

1092
Q

Which of the following would you assess during the physical examination of the respiratory system? 1. Unusual breath odors 2. Ankle edema 3. Use of nitroglycerine 4. Palpation of the abdomen

A
  1. Ankle Edema During the respiration assessment you would observe edema, which could be dependent edema in the ankles
1093
Q

A description of a patients condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and tx is known as which of the following? 1. Clinical decision 2. Red Flag 3. Diagnosis 4. Critical Thinking

A
  1. Diagnosis
1094
Q

You are attending to an elderly patient who reports of having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and has not eaten for several hours. Which of the following is most important to your assessment of this patient? 1. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements 2. asking him if he is able to walk 3. determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed 4. Finding out if he has any chest pain

A
  1. Ask if he has been having regular bowel movements
1095
Q

An EMT’s assessment differs from an assessment made in the ED in which way? 1. The ED Physician 2. The EMT is working with limited resources 3. An EMT’s focus on life threats first 4. Time is available in the ED to make a diagnosis

A
  1. The EMT is working with limited resources
1096
Q

You respond to a patient with SOB, He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the day up until he finally called for you (over the last few hours). You ask if he has taken anything to help with his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as: 1. results of a physical exam 2. the hx of present illness 3. relevant past medical hx 4. part of the SAMPLE hx

A
  1. The hx of present illness
1097
Q

You have a patient you is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule out trauma as a cause of your patients unresponsiveness? 1. Check the patients blood glucose in order to rule out hypoglycemia 2. Perform a stroke scale on the patient 3. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident 4. Examine the patient for signs of trauma

A
  1. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident
1098
Q

You and your partner are discussing a call you previously had. The EMT said the patient presented with classic MI sx. That is how you treated the patient. The patient was discharged 2 hours after you delivered him to the hospital. You are concerned that your assessment skills may be criticized and be viewed as not being as good as they should be, and the ED Physician will no longer trust your judgement. What should you think about when regarding your actions taken on this call? 1. Your misdiagnosis is a result of limited information 2. Your misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias 3. Your misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation 4. Your misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring

A
  1. Your misdiagnosis is a result of limited information
1099
Q

Search Satisfying

A

You can be very satisfied when finally finding the cause of the problem. HOWEVER, once this HAPPENS, you can actually find yourself just STOPPING there, you may not look for any other problems. You need to continue your assessment and keep an open mind, and be satisfied about finding the one cause, but understand that there may be more than one thing wrong with any patient you are dealing with

1100
Q

Anchoring and Adjustment

A

May consider a particular condition to be likely, and later thinking is anchored to that hypothesis. The EMT may adjust in time, but sometimes not as much as neccessary because of the starting point. An EMT may initially think that an unconscious person is “just dunk” and when information appears that she may have had head trauma, the EMT may cling to that hypothesis that they originally had anchored.

1101
Q

Illusionary correlation

A

Seems that one event leads to another. Be skeptical about an event that conveinently leads to another. Do NOT jump to conclusions about an incident or finding or diagnosis. It may stop your from doing an in-depth assessment, so make sure that you do not allow this to happen.

1102
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

This happens when looking primarily for evidence which supports a belief or diagnosis that we already have in mind, so looking to actually get a confirmation of our belief

1103
Q

You are called to a college party, where you find an unresponsive 19 y/o F. There is much evidence of alcohol consumption at the party. Which of the following behaviors are you demonstrating if you rapidly conclude that the patient is intoxicated? 1. Search satisfying 2. Anchoring 3. Overconfidence 4. Confirmation Bias

A
  1. Anchoring
1104
Q

Overconfidence

A

Being an EMT requires a significant degree of confidence. OVER confidence though can lead to problems. Can lead to tendencies to thinking that you know more than you actually do about a subject/condition than you do. Avoid this by remaining open-minded/objective as possible when evaluating how much eidence has been gathered and whether it has been gathered in a logical and thorough fashion

1105
Q

Availability

A

The urge to think of things because they are more easily recalled, often because of a recent exposure. If an EMT has a patient with chest pain who is diagnosed with a dissecting thoracic aneurysm , the next time there is a patient with CP, the EMT is more likely to think of dissecting thoracic aneuryism as a possibility, even though the condition is much less common than angina and myocardial infarction. This is simply due to the recent exposure to this condition Easiest way to avoid this is to reflect on how common a condition actually IS (i.e. MI vs dissecting thoracic anuerysm)

1106
Q

Representativeness

A

When you encounter a patient with a certain grup of signs and symptoms that resemble a certain condition, you assume that the patient has that condition. Representativeness is at the heart of pattern recognition and is an important heuristic. DISADVANTAGE: Patients do not always present with the typical signs and symptoms of a condition. As a result, when a patient does not fit the classic pattern, it is easy for the health care provider to mistakenly conclude the patient doesn’t have that condition.

1107
Q

On a call to a crime-ridden area where drug abuse is common, you are SURE that the current call for a patient with altered mental status and difficulty breathing will involve drugs. When you arrive on scene, you look for anything that confirms this hypothesis and ignore anything that does NOT point to drug abuse. This is: 1. anchoring 2. illusionary correlation 3. confirmation bias 4. availabilty

A
  1. confirmation bias
1108
Q

You are examining a patient with abdominal problems and think that you’ve traced the problem to something that the patient ate last night. You IMMEDIATELY stop asking questsions about the present illness and proceed to the past medical hx. This best fis which heuristic (rule of thumb)? 1. Represntativeness 2. Confirmation bias 3. Search Satisfying 4. Availability

A
  1. Search Satisfying
1109
Q

Which of the following diagnostic shortcuts would make the EMT say “this patient has the same thing my last patient had?” 1. illusory correlation 2. overconfidence 3. confirmation bias 4. availability

A
  1. Availability This would cause the EMT to recall a recent diagnosis and apply it to a current patient.
1110
Q

You have asked the patient about recent oral intake. This helps you assess recent oral intake. This helps you assess which body system? 1. Respiratory system 2. Gastrointestinal system 3. Endocrine system 4. Cardiovascular system

A
  1. Gastrointestinal system
1111
Q

What does DCAP-BTLS Stand for?
When it is used?

A

D - Deformities - parts of the body that no longer have the normal shape
C - Contusions - Bruising
A - Abrasions - Abrasions and Scrapes are some of the most common injuries you will see
P - Punctures or Penetrations - Holes in the body, gunshot, stabbing wounds
B - Burns - Are they reddened, blistered, charred looking?
T - Tenderness - an area that hurts when you palpate it (Pain and tenderness frequently, but not always go together. Additionally, Pain can be present without palpation)
L - Lacerations - cuts - open wounds, that sometimes cause significant blood loss
S - Swelling - Very common result of injured capillaries bleeding under the skin

Used for trauma patient

1112
Q

Hazards of O2 Therapy

02 Toxxicity oir Air Sac Collapse

A

This problem is caused in some patients whose lungs react unfavorably to the presence of O2, and also may result from too high a concentration of O2 for too long a period of time. The body reacts to a sensed “overload” of O2 with reduced lung activity and air sac collapse. This is extremely rare in the field

1113
Q

Hazards of O2 Therapy

Infant Eye Damage

A

This condition may occur when premature infants are given too much O2 over a long period of time (days). These infants may develop scar tissue on the retina of the eye. O2 by itself does not cause this condition, which is the result of many factors. O2 should never be withheld from an infant with sx of inadequate breathing

1114
Q

Hazards of O2 Therapy

Respiratory Depression or Respiratory Arrest

A

Over time, patients in the end stage of COPD may lose the NORMAL ability to use the body’s blood CO2 levels as a stimulus to breathe. When this occurs, the COPD patient’s body may use low body O2 as the factor that stimulates breathing. Because of this so-called hypoxic drive, EMT’s for years have been trained to administer only low concentrations of O2 to these patients for fear of increasing blood O2 levels and wiping out their “drive to breathe.” As with all patients, make decisions on oxygenation based on the patients presented level of distress and SpO2. Do not withhold O2 from any patient in distress

1115
Q

Hazards of O2 Therapy

Exacerbation of Underlying Conditions

A

As previously stated, O2 has been demonstrated to contributed to reperfusion injury. Conditions such as MI and CVA are subject to those risks. The risks of prolonged hyperpoxia are are still unclear. In some animal models, hyperpoxiahas been linked with accelerated cell death and vasoconstriction. These risks have not been well demonstrated in human testing. However, if those risks are real, providing unneccessary O2 is simply contributing to a problem. It is reasonable. It is reasonable to assume that patients with reliable, normal O2 saturations and no sx of hypoxia do not require additional O2 therapy

1116
Q
A
1117
Q

Medical Patient

A

A patient with one or more medical diseases or conditions

1118
Q

Trauma Patient

A

A patient suffering from one or more physical injuries

1119
Q

History of Present Illness or Injury (HPI)

A

Information gathered regarding the symptoms and nature of patient’s current concern

1120
Q

Past Medical History

A

Information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

1121
Q

Symptom

A

Something regarding the patient’s condition that the patient tells you

1122
Q

Reassessment

A

A procedure for detecting changes in a patient’s condition. It involves four steps; 1. Repeating the primary assessment 2. Repeating and recording VS 3. Repeating the physical exam 4. Checking interventions

1123
Q

Rapid Trauma Assessment

A

A rapid assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury

1124
Q

Stoma

A

A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

1125
Q

Tracheostomy

A

A surgical incision held open by a metal or plastic tube

1126
Q

Paradoxical Motion

A

Movement of a part of the chest in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration

1127
Q

Distention

A

A condition of being stretched, inflated, or larger than normal

1128
Q

Priapism

A

Persistent erection of the penis that may result from spinal injury and some medical problems

1129
Q

Detailed Physical Exam

A

An assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury. It differs from the Rapid Trauma Assessment only in that it also includes examination of the face, ears, eyes, nose, and mouth during the examination of the head

1130
Q

The history will provide the most relevant information for: 1. a responsive medical patient 2. an unresponsive trauma patient 3. an unresponsive medical patient 4. a responsive trauma patient

A
  1. a responsive medical patient The history requires a patient to be responsive with an unaltered mental status. If a patient is a trauma patient, while their medical history is important later on, right now, you have been called out there due to a traumatic condition, so medical hx generally does not have a bearing on it One medical hx that COULD affect the trauma patient, is a medical patient who is on blood thinners. Since this will create issues with controlling their external bleeding and can lead to internal hemorrhaging. So, it is important to get this information, however, the most RELEVANT information is gathered in the hx on a medical patient.
1131
Q

For critical patients, the secondary assessment will often be conducted: 1. before transport 2. at the scene 3. in the ambulance 4. at the hospital

A
  1. in the ambulance The reason that this is the case, is that you have labeled them as a priority transport, have initiated the transport and then you are actually enroute when you start the secondary assessment
1132
Q

Your patient is unresponsive, has an unusual odor on his breath, and is incontinent of urine. You should suspect: 1. an endocrine emergency 2. a neurological emergency 3. a cardiac emergency 4. a respiratory emergency

A
  1. an endocrine emergency Altered mental status, unusual breath odor, incontinence, excessive hunger, excessive thirst, urination indicate a diabetic emergency. Insulin is produce in the pancreas which is part of the Endocrine system. This COULD be a cardiac complaint This COULD be a neurologic complaint However, what pushes you more to the Diabetic/Endocrine emergency is the unusual order on breath. That is a tell-tale sx of a diabetic emergency None of the sx point to a respiratory emergency
1133
Q

For a responsive medical patient, the hx indicates 1. whether to check VS 2. which medications to prescribe 3. which body systems to examine 4. whether to perform a reassessment

A
  1. which body systems to examine For the responsive medical patient, the hx indicates which body systems are relevant to examine. An EMT does not prescribe medications Reassessing the patient at certain intervals as well as Taking VS are routine parts of assessing a patient
1134
Q

What are the the categorization types based on the nature of the patients underlying complaint?

A
  1. Medical patient - a patient with one or more medical diseases or conditions 2. Trauma patient - a patient suffering from one or more physical injuries 3. Unknown Patient - A patient with a problem of an undetermined nature
1135
Q

FAST

A

Face Arm Speech Test

1136
Q

For which type of of complaint should you conduct a FAST physical examination? 1. Mental status changes or neurologic complaints 2. Shortness of breath 3. Chest Pain or discomfort 4. Altered mental status with a diabetic hx

A
  1. Mental status changes or neurologic complaints A Face-Arm-Speech Test (FAST) would be appropriate for patients with complaints of mental status changes or neurologic complaints
1137
Q

Which of the following additional hx components would best assist you in the evaluation of a conscious medical patient with SOB from an allergic reaction? 1. Time of exposure to the allergen 2. Cough 3. Dyspnea on exertion 4. Excessive hunger or thirst

A
  1. Time of exposure to the allergen For an allergic reaction, inquiring about exposure to an allergen would be most appropriate Dyspnea on exertion typically associated with cardiovascular complaints Cough typically associated with cardiovascular complaints Hunger and Thirst are generally associated with endocrine emergencies
1138
Q

For an unresponsive medical patient 1. speak to family members of the patient or bystanders to gather the hx before conducting any physical examination 2. it is not necessary to attempt to gather the patients hx 3. you should gather as much of the patients hx as you can 4. ignore any information regarding the patient that does not come from a close family member

A
  1. You should gather as much of the patients hx as you can For an unresponsive medical patient, you should gather as much of the patient’s hx as you can by speaking to any family members or bystanders who may be able to provide pertinent information. Taking this hx should follow a rapid physical examination
1139
Q

Which of the following should you do first when examining an unresponsive medical patient? 1. obtain a past medical hx 2. perform a rapid physical examination 3. assess baseline VS 4. transport

A
  1. perform a rapid physical examination The rapid physical examination would be most important because with an unresponsive medical patient, communication will be impossible. VS will be important, but the physical examination will help you differentiate the patient into the proper category immediately. Transport will also be important, but not more important than a rapid physical examination. Past medical hx may be impossible to obtain.
1140
Q

Which of the following questions might you ask a bystander when you are attempting to obtain the hx of an unresponsive patient? 1. What interventions have you performed if any? 2. How long have you been on scene? 3. What is the patients name? 4. What were you doing when the the incident occured?

A
  1. What is the patients name? Bystanders may not know the patients name, but asking them is they know it, is pertinent to obtaining the hx of an unresponsive patient. The other questions are irrelevant to obtaining the patients HX
1141
Q

Which of the following is a term that means rapid assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect sx of the injury? 1. HX of present illness 2. Pas medical HX 3. Rapid trauma assessment 4. SAMPLE

A
  1. Rapid trauma assessment
1142
Q

A 14 y/o F is complaining of knee pain after a fall on the playground. Witnesses state that she had no unconsciousness and stood immediately after falling. She is now alert and complaining of no other pain or injury. After completing a primary assessment, you should next: 1. assess the patients knee and leg 2. obtain a SAMPLE hx 3. apply a C-collar 4. complete a rapid trauma assessment

A
  1. assess the patients knee and leg This patient likely has only an isolated traumatic injury. She does not have a significant MOI and has no sx of spinal involvement. Therefore, you should next assess her knee and leg, performing a physical exam based on the CC and MOI. Mobilization of the neck with a C-Collar would not be necessary based on the MOI. A rapid trauma assessment would be reserved for a severe trauma patient. The SAMPLE hx would be obtained after assessment of the likely injury
1143
Q

Your patient fell from the roof of a house. What action would you take before assessing the ABCs? 1. take baseline VS 2. perform a rapid trauma assessment 3. obtain a past medical hx 4. manually stabilize the head and neck

A
  1. manually stabilize the head and neck On the basis of the MOI, you should provide manual C-Spine stabilization before assessing the ABCs and -before taking baseline VS -before obtaining a past medical hx -before performing a rapid trauma assessment All of the above ARE parts of the secondary assessment you would perform after assessing the ABCs for this patient
1144
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the rapid trauma assessment 1. the rapid trauma assessment should be performed at the scene 2. the rapid trauma assessment is for patients without a significant MOI 3. do not delay transport to conduct the rapid trauma assessment 4. limit the rapid trauma assessment to a visual inspection only

A
  1. the rapid trauma assessment should be performed at the scene The rapid trauma assessment is for patients with a significant MOI. It only takes a few moments, includes inspection and palpation, and should be conducted before transport
1145
Q

When assessing the head during a rapid trauma assessment, you would check for wounds, tenderness, deformities and what else? 1. Distention 2. Paradoxical motion 3. Crepitation 4. Tenderness

A
  1. Crepitation When assessing the head during a rapid trauma assessment, you would check for wounds, tenderness, deformities, and crepitation, which is grating sound or a feeling of bones being rubbed together. Distention is assessed in the neck and abdomen Tenderness is assessed in the pelvis Paradoxical motion is assessed in the chest
1146
Q

Which of the following patients has a significant MOI and would therefore be considered unstable? 1. Patient who fell from <6 feet 2. Pedestrian hit by an automobile 3. Patient who fell from a bicycle 4. Patient with superficial burns over 2% of the body

A
  1. Pedestrian hit by an automobile There is a significant MOI. The other MOI’s would be minor MOI In the case of the falls, there may be no injury at all
1147
Q

An assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of an injury is a: 1. detailed physical exam 2. past medical hx 3. differential diagnosis 4. reassessment

A
  1. Detailed physical exam
1148
Q

During which of the following would EMTs rely most on their own physical senses? 1. Past medical hx 2. Interviewing bystanders for additional information 3. Detailed physical examination 4. HX of the present illness

A
  1. Detailed physical examination This is where you will use your senses to examine the patient. You may feel (palpate) for injuries, listen (auscultate) for abnormal breathing sounds, and look for swelling. It is important to use your senses to their fullest to get the most relevant information. When interviewing bystanders or conducting a hx of the present illness or a past medical hx, the physical senses would be involved but not as completely, and the EMT would be asking numerous questions and assessing the answers to them, which isn’t primarily a physical exercise
1149
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL - Step 1

A
  1. Gather the chief complaint and the hx of the present illness using a body system approach. Use mnemonics such as OPQRST to help get detailed information from the patient
1150
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - OPQRST - DEFINED

A

O - Onset - When did this start? P - Provocation - What makes it worse, what makes it better? Q - Quality - Can you DESCRIBE the pain for me? (do not give them suggestions, we tend to want to say, does it feel like an Elephant sitting on your chest? Because this is what we have heard for years and years when we have dealt with cardiac patients. We have then done a reverse Confirmation Bias, or we have convinced THEM to HELP OUR confirmation bias R - Radiation (Region) - Is the pain anywhere else? Does it stay where you are feeling it? Again, do not SUGGEST anything, we will tend to steer them to does it go down your arm, leg, into your back etc. Let THEM answer your question. S - Severity - 0-10 (O being NO pain, and 10 being the worst pain you have ever felt. Rate you pain for me) T - Time - When did this pain start?

1151
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 2

A

Gather a past medical hx from the patient. Use SAMPLE to ensure a comprehensive hx

1152
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 2 - SAMPLE Defined

A

S - Signs and Symptoms - What’s wrong? This is something that you have most likely already have attained in the OPQRST or SHOULD HAVE. If not, this is your back-up A - Allergies - Are they allergic to any medications? They may tell you that they are allergic to shrimp and strawberries. OK, take it, do not tell them that you do not care about it. Just say, ok cool, what about medications? Give examples, Penicillin, that is the biggest usual one. M - Medications - What medications are they on? What medications are they SUPPOSED to be on and maybe have not taken? Are they supposed to be on Warfarin, are they supposed to be on Levetiracetam? Those two will tell you that they have some kind of cardiac issues (Warfarin - blood thinner) or they have a seizure disorder (Levetiracetam - anti-seizure medication). If they ARE on medications, you want to know the last time that they took them. P - Past medical hx - You want to know what medical hx that they have had. If they tell you about all kinds of hx that have NOTHING to do with current situation, then ask them if they have ever experienced the current situation before. Do NOT dismiss their PMH. L - Last Oral Intake - When was the last time that they had anything to eat or drink E - Events leading up to the injury or illness - What were they doing prior to the chest pains (CP)? Were they sleeping? Were they arguing with their significant other (maybe it is a stress related incident, maybe it is legitimate cardiac), Were they running 10 miles in 90 degree weather with 97% humidity?

1153
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 3

A

Conduct a physical exam (focusing on the area the patient is complaining about, and the related body systems)

1154
Q

Secondary Assessment - RESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 4

A

Obtain Baseline Vital Sx: Respirations Pulse Skin Temperature, Color, Dry/Moist Pupils Blood Pressure SpO2 (Blood Oxygen Saturation)

1155
Q

Secondary Assessment - UNRESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL - Step 1

A

Conduct a rapid physical exam. Focus on body systems and areas related to the suspected condition (if known) Head Neck Chest Abdomen Pelvis Extremities Posterior

1156
Q

Secondary Assessment - UNRESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 2

A

Obtain baseline Vital Sx Respirations Pulse Skin Pupils Blood Pressure SpO2 (Blood O2 Saturation)

1157
Q

Secondary Assessment - UNRESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 3

A

Gather the hx of the present illness (OPQRST) from family or bystanders: O - Onset - Do they know when it started prior to when the patient went unresponsive? P - Provocation - Did they mention anything that made it worse or better? Q - Quality - Did they tell the family or bystanders what the pain felt like? R - Radiation - Did they mention if the pain stayed in one place or if it went anywhere else? S - Severity - Did they mention how bad the pain was? T - Time - When did the illness start?

1158
Q

Secondary Assessment - UNRESPONSIVE PATIENT - MEDICAL PATIENT - Step 4

A

Gather a past medical hx (SAMPLE) from bystanders or family if possible: S - Signs and Symptoms - Again this is your fail safe to remember to get the “what’s wrong” with the patient (besides them being unresponsive. What LEAD UP TO them being unresponsive? A - Allergies - Do they know if the patient is allergic to any medications? M - Medications - What medications is the patient on? P - Past Medical Hx - Is there any relevant past medical hx? Hs anything like this happened before? L - Last oral intake - Do they know when the patient ate or drank anything? E - Events leading to the illness - Do they know what the patient was doing PRIOR to the onset of the illness?

1159
Q

Specific Medical Complaints: Shortness of Breath Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional HX: - Cough - Fever or Chills - Dyspnea on exertion - Weight gain (indicates fluid) - Has prescribed bronchodilator? Physical Exam - Lung Sounds (presence and equality) - Wheezing - Work of breathing and positioning (Tripod example) - SpO2 (Oxygen Saturation) - Pedal or sacral edema

1160
Q

Specific Medical Complaints Chest Pain or Discomfort Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional Hx - Has prescribed nitroglycerin? - Taking aspirin Physical Exam - Skin color, temperature, and condition - Blood pressure - Pulse (including strength and regularity)

1161
Q

Specific Medical Complaints: Mental Status Changes or Neurologic Complaints Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional Hx - Headache - Seizure Physical Exam - FAST - (Face - Arm - Speech - Time) - Face - Does one side of the face droop? Ask patient to smile - Is the smile “normal” looking? Does one side of the smile look like a smile, and the other side stay straight (equates to a droop) Arms - Can Pt hold arms in front on them (does one arm droop?) If the patient has an unequal smile, and they have an arms that they cannot lift the Arms the same (it SHOULD be on the same side) S - Speech - Is their speech clear and understandable? T - Time - Time is critical, need to make sure that you get them to the hospital, get them packaged and to advanced care ASAP

1162
Q

Specific Medical Complaints Allergic (involved components of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems) Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional Hx - Time of Exposure - Time of symptoms onset Physical Exam - Stinger present? - Rash/hives (urticaria) - Lung Sounds (present and equal)? - Face and Neck Edema - SpO2 - Oxygen Saturation

1163
Q

Specific Medical Complaints Abdominal Pain Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional Hx - Fever - Nausea and Vomiting - Diarrhea or Constipation - Blood in Vomit or Feces; may be bright red (fresh) or dark (digested) Menstrual Hx Physical Exam Inspect and palpate all four quadrants of the abdomen

1164
Q

Specific Medical Complaints Altered Mental Status with a Diabetic Hx Additional Hx Physical Exam

A

Additional Hx - Oral intake - Medication Hx - Hx of recent illness - Excessive hunger, thirst, urination

1165
Q

Secondary Assessment - TRAUMA NOT SERIOUSLY INJURED 1. AFTER SCENE SIZE UP 2. AFTER PRIMARY ASSESSMENT

A
  1. Determine the CC and elicit information about how the patient was injured (hx of the present injury) 2. Perform the physical exam based on the chief complaint and MOI 3. Assess baseline VS 4. Obtain a past medical HX
1166
Q

Secondary Assessment - TRAUMA SERIOUSLY INJURED 1. AFTER SCENE SIZE UP 2. AFTER PRIMARY ASSESSMENT

A
  1. Determine the chief complaint and rapidly elicit information about how the patient was injured (hx of the present injury) 2. Continue spinal precautions if indicated 3. Consider requesting ALS 4. Perform rapid trauma assessment 5. Assess baseline VA 6. Obtain a patient hx
1167
Q

Trauma Patient Assessment

A
  1. Scene Size-Up - Provide c-spine stabilization based on severity of injury or MOI and/or complaints of pain 2. Primary Assessment - Massive hemorrhage - Airway - Breathing - Circulation * Maintain patent airway * Assess for injuries that could affect breathing; * Listen for and compare lung sounds bilaterally * Check for sx of shock 3. Priority Determination - Does my patient have serious injury requiring prompt transport from the scene? OR Does patient have minor and/or isolated non-life-threatening injury? 4. On scene Examination ** Serious or multiple injuries - Rapid head-ti-toe exam; - head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, posterior ***Minor or Isolated Injury - Slower, focused exam 5. Transport 6. Perform detailed Assessment and reassessments enroute (remember if unstable patient, reassessments are every 5 minutes) 7. Notify receiving hospital
1168
Q

C - Collar Sizing

A

Using your fingers, measure from the tip of the patient’s chin to the top of the sternum Then you will take that measurement and compare it to your C-Collars that you have.

1169
Q

When applying the C-Collar what should you be careful about?

A

Ensure that the collar is not too small or big. Too small and the collar can create a danger to the patient by prohibiting the patient’s breathing. If too big, then the patients chin can actually slip down inside the collar and the collar is not maintaining the stabilization

1170
Q

Steps to applying a C-Collar to a seated patient

A
  1. Stabilize the head and neck from the rear 2. Size the C-Collar for correct fit of the collar 3. Properly angle the collar for placement 4. Position the collar 5. Begin to secure the collar 6. Complete securing the collar 7. Maintain manual stabilization of the head and neck ****NOTE - ensure that the patient does not have jewelry on, make sure that the patient does not have hair that is getting in the way of the Velcro fasteners****
1171
Q

Steps to applying a C-Collar to a Supine Patient

A
  1. Kneel at the patients head to get manual stabilization. 2. Measure the patient for the correct collar selection 3. Set the collar in place 4. Secure the collar 5. Continue to manually stabilize the head and neck ***NOTE - Ensure that there is no jewelry on the patient (around the neck). Ensure that the patient’s hair does not get in the way of the Velcro fasteners
1172
Q

Guidelines for Field Triage of Injured Patients -Transport to a hospital that provides trauma care if any of the following are identified

A

* Falls - Adults with a fall of > 20 feet - Children age < 15 y/o: falls > 10 feet, or 2-3 times the child’s height * High Risk Auto Crash - Intrusion: > 12” to the occupant side, or > 18” to any site - Ejection (partial or complete from automobile - Death of someone else in the same passenger compartment - Vehicle telemetry data consistent with high risk of injury - Auto versus pedestrian/bicyclist thrown, run over, or with significant ( > 20 mph), impact or motorcycle crash (> 20 mph)

1173
Q

Physical Examination of the Trauma Patient - Steps STEP 1

A
  1. Reassess the MOI and actual injury. If the MOI is not significant (i.e. patient has a cut on their finger), focus the examination on only the injured part. If the MOI is significant: - Continue spinal precautions - Consider requesting ALS intercept (if not on ALS truck) - Reconsider transport decision (Ground vs Air) - Reassess mental status - Perform a rapid trauma assessment
1174
Q

Physical Examination of the Trauma Patient - Steps STEP 2

A
  1. Hx of the present illness Rapid determination of what happened to the patient to cause the injury
1175
Q

Physical Examination of the Trauma Patient - Steps STEP 3 RAPID TRAUMA ASSESSMENT

A
  1. Rapidly assess each part of the body HEAD : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities plus crepitation FACE : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities EARS : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus drainage of blood or clear fluid EYES : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus discoloration, unequal pupils, foreign bodies, and blood in the anterior chamber NOSE : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus drainage of blood or clear fluid MOUTH : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus loose or broken teeth, objects that can cause obstruction, swelling, or laceration of the tongue; unusual breath odor, or discoloration NECK : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus JVD and crepitation APPLICATION OF COLLAR : Once the neck has been examined, apply the C-Collar CHEST : Inspect and palpate for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus crepitation and paradoxical motion CHEST : Auscultate for breath sounds (presence, absence, equality) ABDOMEN : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, plus firm, soft, and distended areas PELVIS : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities using gentle compression for tenderness and gentle motion UPPER EXTREMITIES : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities Check for circulation, sensation and motor function LOWER EXTREMTIES : Check for wounds, tenderness, and deformities Check for circulation, sensation, and motor function POSTERIOR : Check for wounds, tenderness and deformities (Need to log roll patient, maintaining C-Spine control throughout)
1176
Q

Physical Examination of the Trauma Patient - Steps STEP 4 - VS Patient Hx Interventions and Transport

A

Vital Sx Assess the patient’s baseline VS - Respirations - Pulse - Skin color, temperature, condition (capillary refill in infants and children) - Pupils - Blood Pressure SpO2 Obtain Patient Hx (if Possible) Interview patient if possible. If patient is unresponsive, interview family and bystanders to gain as much information as possible about the patient’s problem (SAMPLE) - Signs and Symptoms - Allergies - Medications - Pertinent past hx - Last oral intake - Events leading to the problem Interventions and Transport - Contact on-line medical direction, and perform interventions as needed - Package and transport the patient

1177
Q

When you are looking for a sign, you would: 1. examine the patient 2. ask the patient about allergies and past illnesses 3. ask the patient about the symptoms the patient is experiencing 4. ask the patient about the onset of the present illness

A
  1. Examine the patient - A sign is something that you can SEE vs A symptom which is something the patient TELLS you
1178
Q

An 81 y/o F is complaining of CP. After asking her to describe the current problem and hx of the present illness, you should next: 1. obtain baseline vital signs 2. ask the patient about her past medical history 3. perform a rapid trauma assessment 4. physically examine the patient

A
  1. ask the patient about her past medical history You have completed the OPQRST (PRESENT condition) Now you move into medical hx (SAMPLE) Then you move to assessment of the relevant body systems Then you get VS
1179
Q

The basic components of a secondary assessment are 1. scene size-up, general impression, and determination of priority for transport 2. airway, breathing, and circulation 3. physical examination, patient hx, and vital sx 4. hx of the present illness, past medical hx, and rapid trauma assessment

A
  1. physical examination, patient hx and vital sx
1180
Q

You are caring for a patient who was in a MVA and who has significant injuries to the chest, abdomen, head and lower extremities. She is unstable and requires artificial ventilation. Her VS have not yet stabilized, but you feel that her best chance of survival is rapid transport to the nearest trauma facility. While in the ambulance, you should: 1. measure VS every 15 minutes 2. perform a detailed physical examination 3. continue interventions to maintain airway, breathing and circulation 4. ask the patient for her PMH

A
  1. Continue interventions to maintain airway, breathing and circulation
1181
Q

Which of the following is done immediately after scene size-up, regardless of whether a trauma patient has a significant MOI? 1. primary assessment 2. baseline vital signs 3. secondary assessment 4. rapid trauma assessment

A
  1. primary assessment You always have Scene Size up, PPE, Primary Assessment, and General Impression to set the scene. THEN Secondary assessment is performed after this which is more tailored to the incident.
1182
Q

For the physical examination of a responsive medical patient, you would focus on: 1. the endocrine and immune systems first 2. completing a full head to toe examination 3. examining body systems related to the chief complain 4. the respiratory and cardiovascular systems first

A
  1. examining body systems related to the chief complaint
1183
Q

When questioning bystanders about an unresponsive patient’s medications, what is the best word to use when asking them? 1. substances 2. drugs 3. medicines 4. pills

A
  1. medicines The reason for this is if you use “substances, drugs, or pills”, bystanders may not answer you truthfully because they may feel that they would be getting the patient in trouble by doing so
1184
Q

Why should you check baseline VS in the unresponsive medical patient? 1. to provide a place from which to compare later VS 2. because the physical examination is unnecessary 3. because taking the patient’s hx is impossible 4. because it is local protocol

A
  1. to provide a place from which to compare later VS
1185
Q

During the rapid trauma assessment of the victim of a boating accident, you note that part of the patients chest wall is moving in the direction opposite that of the rest of the chest. What is the cause of this movement? 1. two or more ribs are broken at two or more places, causing a floating segment of ribs 2. the patient’s collarbone is broken, causing the chest to move paradoxically 3. cardiac tamponade restricts the movement of the chest 4. the patient is having severe difficulty breathing, causing retractions

A
  1. two or more ribs are broken at two or more places, causing a floating segment of ribs
1186
Q

When should you obtain a set of baseline VS on an unresponsive pediatric medical patient? 1. after assessing the past medical hx 2. during transport 3. after the rapid physical examination 4. immediately on arrival at the scene

A
  1. After a rapid physical assessment
1187
Q

Which of the following terms describes a condition of being stretched, inflated, or larger than normal? 1. Distention 2. Priapism 3. Crepitation 4. Paradoxical Motion

A
  1. Distention
1188
Q

What action should be taken immediately after determining the chief complaint and eliciting information about how the patient was injured for a trauma patient with no significant MOI? 1. Obtaining a PMH 2. Reassessment 3. Rapid Trauma Assessment 4. Physical Examination

A
  1. Physical examination Since the MOI is not significant, the patient is A&O and able to tell you what hurts, where and how bad, you can focus on that area
1189
Q

A 32 y/o M was rescued from a burning building. He was unconscious when he was rescued, and the firefighters advise you that there was evidence of illegal drugs in the room with the patient. When assessing this patient, you would assume that the patient may have: 1. medical issues only 2. neither medical nor trauma issues 3. both medical and trauma issues 4. trauma issues only

A
  1. both medical and trauma issues
1190
Q

Which of the following should you consider when deciding whether ALS personnel should be requested? 1. is the call to a rural area? 2. does a nearby clinic provide advanced care? 3. would ALS-level care benefit the patient? 4. are you in an urban or suburban area?

A
  1. would ALS-level care benefit the patient
1191
Q

Your truck is called for an assault patient. While transporting the patient to the hospital, the EMT noted that the patient’s jugular veins are flat (nondistended). Which of the following are most likely the cause of the finding> 1. Closed head injury 2. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac 3. Blood loss 4. HBP

A
  1. Blood Loss (page 437) Flat neck veins in a patient who is lying down in a horizontal position may be a sign of blood loss, because there is not enough blood to fill them
1192
Q

In medical terms, bruises are known as which of the following? 1. Contusion 2. Laceration 3. Deformity 4. Abrasion

A
  1. Contusion
1193
Q

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes? 1. Tracheostomy 2. Stoma 3. Crepitation 4. Pneumothorax

A
  1. Stoma
1194
Q

Your patient is a 14 y/o M who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid assessment, you should look for clear drainage from the patients _________ indicating a serious injury 1. mouth 2. rectum 3. eyes 4. ears

A
  1. ears Fluid coming from the ears shows a skull FX allowing CSF to leak.
1195
Q

What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breath or be placed on a ventilator 1. Priapism 2. Distension 3. Tracheostomy 4. Stoma

A
  1. Tracheostomy
1196
Q

In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information? 1. Baseline VS 2. Patient’s medical HX 3. Detailed Physical Exam 4. Focused Physical Exam

A
  1. Patient’s medical hx
1197
Q

In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal injury? 1. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down 2. A responsive patient with no hx of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain 3. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury 4. All of the above

A
  1. An unresponsive diabetic, who appears to have fallen down
1198
Q

Your patient is the 18 y/o M driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next step: 1. Perform a tertiary assessment 2. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance 3. Rule out the possibility of cervical injury before moving the patient 4. Perform a rapid trauma assessment

A
  1. Perform a rapid trauma assessment
1199
Q

You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive 30 y/o M/ As you evaluate his head, which of the follow should you check for? 1. Unequal facial muscles 2. Crepitation 3. Whether the patient can follow your finger with his eyes 4. Function of the cranial nerves

A
  1. Crepitation
1200
Q

You respond to the scene of a MVA to find a middle aged man on a long spine board being cared for by first responding firefighters. He appears to be bleeding from his head and is unconscious. You should check the car for: 1. personal items too valuable to leave on-scene 2. a bent steering wheel or starred windshield 3. Insurance information or identification 4. a deployed passenger-side air bag

A
  1. A bent steering wheel or starred windshield
1201
Q

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in hidden or unsuspected injury? 1. A vehicle without injuries 2. Seatbelt used by the vehicle occupants 3. Collisions that occur at night 4. Deformity of the interior compartment of the vehicle

A
  1. Seat belt used by the vehicle occupants
1202
Q

For which of the following is a focused physical examination appropriate 1. A 30 y/o M with a hx of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son 2. A 19 y/o F with a hx of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate 3. A 70 y/o M with deformities whose caretaker called because he “didn’t seem like himself today.” 4. A 25 y/o F with a hx of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing

A
  1. A 25 y/o F with a hx of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing
1203
Q

If a patient complains of abdominal pain localized to a specific area of the abdomen, which of the following techniques should be used to assess the abdomen 1. Palpate the area last 2. Palpate the area at the beginning and end of the exam 3. Palpate the painful area first 4. Do not palpate the painful area

A
  1. Palpate the area last
1204
Q

Your patient is a 45 y/o F who complains of “twisting her ankle” when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is NOT appropriate 1. Questioning about other complaints or areas of pain 2. Detailed physical exam 3. Providing emotional support if necessary 4. Secondary Assessment

A
  1. Detailed physical exam
1205
Q

Your patient is an unresponsive 40 y/o F. Which of the following should you do first 1. take her BP 2. perform a rapid physical exam 3. ask her husband if she has AKA 4. Immediately request ALS

A
  1. perform a rapid physical exam
1206
Q

When assessing a patient who has been stabbed, which of the following information should the EMT gain first? 1. Angle at which the knife entered the patient 2. Size and type of the knife 3. Owner of the knife 4. Make and model of the knife

A
  1. Angle at which the knife entered the patient
1207
Q

An unconscious trauma patient should always be assumed to have which of the following types of injuries 1. Cardiac 2. Spine 3. Skull 4. Abdominal

A
  1. Spine
1208
Q

When checking breath sounds in a trauma patient, what should the EMT assess for first? 1. Presence and equality 2. Rate and SpO2 3. Wheezing and Stridor 4. Edema and rhonchi

A
  1. Presence and equality
1209
Q

You are assessing a patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask him? 1. Have you been in a crash before? 2. How fast was the vehicle going? 3. Why were you in such a hurry? 4. How much fuel is in your car?

A
  1. How fast was the vehicle going?
1210
Q

You are assessing a 21 y/o F who was assaulted by an unknown person. She is complaining of abdominal pain. As you perform a rapid assessment of her abdomen, you should check for all of the following except: 1. contusions 2. firmness 3. distension 4. bowel sounds

A
  1. bowel sounds
1211
Q

You respond to a MVA and find a patient with an altered mental status and an angulated left femur. The other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do next? 1. Perform s detailed physical exam 2. Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician 3. Request ALS 4. Apply a traction splint

A
  1. Request ALS
1212
Q

When a patient describes how he feels, he is telling you which of the following; 1. His signs 2. His syndrome 3. His symptoms 4. His diagnosis

A
  1. His symptoms
1213
Q

When assessing a 14 y/o M patient that has been involved a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood come from his L forearm. This observation is known as which of the following? 1. Clue 2. Sign 3. Indication 4. Symptom

A
  1. Sign
1214
Q

You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the following 1. Perform a detailed physical exam 2. Obtain baseline VS and past medical hx 3. Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam 4. Call the ALS unit to determine their ETA before deciding their ETA before deciding your next step

A
  1. Obtain baseline VS and past medical hx
1215
Q

You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do next? 1. Try to locate all of his medication 2. Begin transport immediately 3. Ask the family what happened 4. Complete a rapid physical examination

A
  1. Complete a rapid physical examination
1216
Q

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag to collect digestive waste? 1. Stoma 2. Colostomy 3. Tracheostomy 4. Priapism

A
  1. Colostomy
1217
Q

Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin 1. tension pneumothorax 2. subcutaneous emphysema 3. distension 4. crepitation

A
  1. tension pneumothorax
1218
Q

You are assessing a 76 y/o M, patient who has fallen from a standing position. You have completed the scene size up and primary assessment. What should you do next? 1. Focused hx assessment 2. Ongoing assessment 3. Reassessment 4. Secondary assessment

A
  1. Secondary assessment
1219
Q

Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive patient, which of the following should you do next? 1. Obtain baseline VS 2. Check the scene for medications 3. Perform a focused physical exam 4. Find out who the patient’s doctor is

A
  1. Obtain baseline VS
1220
Q

You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the​ patient’s blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of​ 280/140. What should you do​ next? 1. Take a Manual BP 2. Calle immediately for ALS response 3. Begin transport immediately 4. Continue with VS assessment

A
  1. Take a Manual BP
1221
Q

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no​ complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this​ patient? 1. Notifying receiving facility of the change in mental status 2. checking the patients pupil size and reactivity to light 3. Maintaining an open airway 4. Finding out exactly what she took

A
  1. Maintaining an open airway
1222
Q

The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his​ chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following best describes this​ finding? 1. Intercostal retractions 2. Paradoxical motion 3. Flutter segment 4. Tension pneumothorax

A
  1. Paradoxical motion
1223
Q

Which of the following is another term for​ trauma? 1. Medical Problem 2. Suffering 3. Injury 4. Illness

A
  1. Injury
1224
Q

The term priapism means​ ________ and may be found in injuries of the​ ________. 1. unequal pupils; brain 2. a persistent penile; erection 3. a painful muscle spasm; spine 4. abnormal pulsation; abdomen

A
  1. a persistent penile; erection
1225
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of a rapid trauma​ assessment? 1. To assess the extent of injuries 2. To focus care on specific injuries 3. To detect injuries that may become life threatening 4. To provide a basis for care during transport

A
  1. To focus care on specific injuries
1226
Q

What does distention refer to when describing your​ patient’s abdomen? 1. Harder than normal 2. Larger than normal 3. Softer than normal 4. Having a sunken-in appearance

A
  1. Larger than normal
1227
Q

Where might you find a​ patient’s medical alert identification​ jewelry? 1. Necklace 2. Bracelet 3. Ankle bracelet 4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
1228
Q

Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and​ oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this​ situation? 1. Area exam 2. Focused exam 3. Rapid Trauma Assessment 4. Detailed physical exam

A
  1. Focused exam
1229
Q

What does DCAP-BTLS Stand for? When it is used?

A

D - Deformities - parts of the body that no longer have the normal shape C - Contusions - Bruising A - Abrasions - Abrasions and Scrapes are some of the most common injuries you will see P - Punctures or Penetrations - Holes in the body, gunshot, stabbing wounds B - Burns - Are they reddened, blistered, charred looking? T - Tenderness - an area that hurts when you palpate it (Pain and tenderness frequently, but not always go together. Additionally, Pain can be present without palpation) L - Lacerations - cuts - open wounds, that sometimes cause significant blood loss S - Swelling - Very common result of injured capillaries bleeding under the skin Used for trauma patient

1230
Q

Reassessment

A

A procedure for detecting changes in a patients condition. It involves four steps; 1. Repeating of the primary assessment 2. Repeating and recording vital sx 3. Repeating the physical exam 4. Checking interventions

1231
Q

Trending

A

Changes in a patients condition over time, such as slowing respirations or rising pulse rate, that may show improvement

1232
Q

Reassessment Step 1

A

Repeat the Primary Assessment - 1. Reassess mental status 2. Maintain an open airway 3. Monitor breathing for rate and quality 4. Reassess the pulse for rate and quality 5. Monitor skin color and temperature 6. Reestablish patient priorities

1233
Q

Reassessment Step 1 - NOTE

A

*** Life threatening problems that were not detected earlier, can start surfacing **** Interventions bringing the life threatening conditions under control may develop or redevelop before the patient reaches the hospital

1234
Q

Reassessment Step 1 - PEDIATRIC NOTE

A

* Mental status on an unresponsive child or infant can be checked by speaking loudly or flicking their foot (painful stimuli).

1235
Q

Reassessment Step 2 - Reassess and Record VS

A

** During your secondary assessment, you took the recorded the baseline VS. *** In this step you are reassessing the VS and comparing them to the baseline. Checking for improvements, or degradation of the patients condition. **** This is why the baseline is so critical. Without it, you have nothing to compare the reassessment VS to

1236
Q

Reassessment Step 3 - Repeat Pertinent Parts of Patient Hx and Physical Exam

A

* A patients CC can change over time ** One of the main things that may/will change will be the severity of the CC ***This is also your time to reassess your Physical Exam. If you found that your patient had contusions on the chest during your initial physical exam, and your reassessment shows it getting worse, or the chest wall is showing issues not detected or not present at all during the assessment, it will show you that potentially your transport priority needs to be increased

1237
Q

Reassessment - Step 4 - Check Interventions

A

This is going to be your time to check your work. Whatever interventions you initially you are checking. ** When you do this, you want to take a “fresh approach” to it. You want to ensure that your interventions that you made are actually improving your patients condition from when you first started patient care, but you also want to double check your patients condition and see if the interventions are working, or if you need to take any other interventions to assist the patient enroute to the hospital

1238
Q

Reassessment - Step 4 - Check Interventions ALWAYS DO THE FOLLOWING

A

ALWAYS DO THE FOLLOWING IN YOUR INTERVENTION CHECKS: 1. Ensure adequacy of O2 delivery and artificial ventilation 2. Ensure the management of any bleeding is effective. Did your gauze packing stop the bleed? Do you need to add more to it? If it is a puncture, do you need to feed the gauze in TO the wound? Things such as this 3. Ensure adequacy of other interventions ****Just remember that situations change

1239
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of repeating the primary assessment? 1. To conduct a rapid trauma assessment 2. To take the patient’s past medical hx 3. To recheck for ongoing life-threatening problems 4. To obtain a hx of the present illness

A
  1. To recheck for ongoing life-threatening problems The other 3 choices are components of the secondary assessment, and a rapid trauma assessment would only be performed for seriously injured patients, not all patients
1240
Q

A​ 6-year-old male has fallen on his outstretched​ arm, causing a possible fracture. His vital signs have remained essentially the same throughout transport. How would you describe his​ condition? 1. Deteriorating 2. Not possible to determine 3. Returning to normal 4. Unchanged

A
  1. Unchanged
1241
Q

Which of the following is true of a trauma patient with a significant mechanism of​ injury? 1. The​ patient’s condition should be reassessed every 5​ minutes, because the patient can be considered unstable. 2. The​ patient’s vital signs are likely impossible to determine with any certainty due to the significance of the mechanism of injury. 3. The​ patient’s trending vital signs should be assumed to remain in line with the baseline vital signs. 4. The patient should be considered to be in stable condition and does not require reassessment.

A
  1. The​ patient’s condition should be reassessed every 5​ minutes, because the patient can be considered unstable.
1242
Q

Which of the following actions should be performed for a patient who has been shot in the chest and for whom you have performed a primary and secondary​ assessment? 1. Reassess the patient every 15 minutes and anytime there is a change in condition. 2. Regardless of the​ patient’s condition, reassess the patient only at​ 5-minute intervals. 3. Reassess the patient every 5 minutes and anytime there is a change in condition. 4. Reassess the patient once after 15​ minutes; if vital signs are​ unchanged, additional reassessment is unnecessary.

A
  1. Reassess the patient every 5 minutes and anytime there is a change in condition.
1243
Q

A​ 22-year-old female was found severely hyperventilating and was visibly upset. Her initial vital signs were P​ 130, R​ 40, BP​ 190/100. With coaching and compassionate​ care, she has calmed down. Her repeat vital signs are P​ 100, R​ 28, BP​ 160/88. Which of the following would best describe this trend in vital​ signs? 1. Deteriorating 2. Unable to determine 3. Unchanged 4. Returning to normal

A
  1. Returning to normal
1244
Q

You have taken several sets of vital signs for a​ patient, whose respiratory rate has changed from 24 with shallow breaths to 20 with full​ breaths, and whose skin has remained pale and dry. You would consider this​ patient’s condition to​ be: 1. Deteriorating 2. Returning to normal 3. Undetermined 4. Remaining unchanged

A
  1. Returning to normal
1245
Q

Determining a​ patient’s stability: 1. is necessary for responsive patients 2. is primarily a question of determining 3. helps indicate the frequency with which the patient must be reassessed 4. is entirely dependent on taking the patient’s VS

A
  1. helps indicate the frequency with which the patient must be reassessed
1246
Q

While en route to the​ hospital, your​ 67-year-old male patient with chest pain breaks out in a sweat and becomes very pale. He clutches his chest. You should​ next: 1. Administer the patient’s nitro 2. reassess 3. administer O2 4. call for ALS

A
  1. reassess
1247
Q

​________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings. 1. Averaging 2. Analysis 3. Trending 4. Critical Thinking

A
  1. Trending
1248
Q

Which of the following is false regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are​ obtained? 1. Failure to record the VS immediately is considered falsifying the medical record 2. It may be difficult to recall the BS accurately later on 3. You will be able to report the VS accurately when contacting the receiving facility 4. You will be able to compare each set of VS with the previous ones to detect trends in the patients condition

A
  1. Failure to record the VS immediately is considered falsifying the medical record
1249
Q

You are transporting a​ 20-year-old soccer player who injured his ankle during a match. His injury appears to be isolated and he has no significant past medical history. How frequently should you perform a reassessment on this​ patient? 1. 10 minutes 2. 5 minutes 3. 15 minutes 4. 30 minutes

A
  1. 15 minutes
1250
Q

You are called for a​ 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital​ signs, you​ should 1. move the patient to the ambulance for transport 2. assist the patient to take his BP medication 3. begin your reassessment 4. write down the patient’s VS

A
  1. write down the patient’s VS
1251
Q

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma​ patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the​ nurse? 1. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving 2. She can critique your technique of taking VS 3. She can evaluate the quality of care you provided 4. She can determine if you understand the assessment process

A
  1. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving
1252
Q

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary​ assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your​ reassessment, you notice that the​ patient’s respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You​ should: 1. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 LPM 2. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler 3. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM 4. assist the patient’s breathing with a BVM

A
  1. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM
1253
Q

While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30​ feet, the patient​ (who had previously been responding to your​ questions) stops responding. What should you do​ next? 1. Continue the detailed physical assessment 2. Start CPR 3. Repeat the primary assessment 4. Call medical direction for orders

A
  1. Repeat the primary assessment
1254
Q

On which of the following patients should a reassessment be​ performed? 1. Patient having difficulty breathing 2. Patient with chest pain 3. patient with a GSW 4. All patients should be reassessed

A
  1. All patients should be reassessed
1255
Q

What is the first step in the reassessment​ process? 1. VS 2. Secondary Assessment 3. Focused hx and physical exam 4. Primary assessment

A
  1. Primary assessment
1256
Q

You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his​ stomach, is having respiratory​ distress, and is wheezing. After you administer​ oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to assist with administration of his EpiPen. You will monitor the success of your interventions during​ the: 1. focused exam 2. secondary assessment 3. reassessment 4. primary assessment

A
  1. reassessment
1257
Q

While transporting a patient to the​ hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this​ information, which of the following best describes your​ patient’s current​ status? 1. Poor 2. Stable 3. Not enough information was given to answer the question 4. Unstable

A
  1. Stable
1258
Q

Your patient called 911 because he was having chest pain. He states that his pain is a 7 on a​ 10-point scale. As part of your​ care, you assist him with taking his nitroglycerin per medical direction. After waiting a few minutes for the medication to take​ effect, you​ should: 1. administer another dose of nitroglycerin. 2. lay the head of the stretcher down. 3. ask him what his pain is like now. 4. call medical direction to administer another dose.

A
  1. ask him what his pain is like now.
1259
Q

You are treating a​ 15-year-old boy who apparently broke his right arm when he fell while skateboarding with his friends. You have completed your primary and secondary assessment including splinting his​ arm, but you found no other injuries or problems. Which of the following is the most important step to do during the​ reassessment? 1. Place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula. 2. Check distal circulation on his right arm 3. Recheck pupils 4. Visualize his chest for bruising

A
  1. Check distal circulation on his right arm
1260
Q

You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is​ speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You​ should: 1. immediately repeat your primary assessment. 2. get a quick set of vital signs. 3. call the hospital and report the difficulty. 4. call for ALS backup.

A
  1. immediately repeat your primary assessment.
1261
Q

Your​ patient’s initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and​ weak, a blood pressure of​ 90/50 mm​ Hg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Upon​ reassessment, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per​ minute, a blood pressure of​ 110/60 mm​ Hg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this​ information? 1. You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center 2. the baseline VS were inaccurate 3. the patients condition may be improving 4. the patient will survive

A
  1. the patients condition may be improving
1262
Q

You are transporting a victim of domestic​ violence, a​ 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the​ scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During​ transport, the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do​ next? 1. Secondary Assessment 2. VS and SAMPLE hx 3. Detailed physical exam 4. Primary Assessment

A
  1. Primary Assessment Any time that there has been a change in the patients condition, repeat at least the primary assessment (page 458/ section III text book)
1263
Q

You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the​ hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to​ obtain? 1. Patients gender 2. Pulse and respiratory rates 3. Reassessment results 4. Primary assessment

A
  1. Reassessment results
1264
Q

Your patient is an​ 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You​ should: 1. take another set of VS to see if her BP has dropped 2. ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding 3. in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do 4. wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding

A
  1. in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do
1265
Q

You are alone in the back of the ambulance where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the best way to manage the​ reassessment? 1. Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment 2. have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment 3. continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment 4. stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment

A
  1. continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment
1266
Q

You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is​ called: 1. crisis management 2. trending 3. modified secondary assessment 4. intervention check

A
  1. trending
1267
Q

Under what circumstance should a reassessment not be​ performed? 1. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required 2. the patient is being transported to a hospital close to their home 3. the patient has life threatening injuries 4. the patient does not receive a secondary assessment

A
  1. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required
1268
Q

Your​ 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her​ lungs, you hear crackles​ (rales), and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is​ 92%, so you place her on​ 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition.​ Later, as you are completing your​ reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do​ next? 1. begin ventilating her with a BVM 2. ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup 3. assist her with using metered dose inhaler 4. shake her to keep her awake

A
  1. begin ventilating her with a BVM
1269
Q

You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your​ reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you​ should: 1. call medical direction for orders 2. remove him from the long spine board 3. spinal immobilize him 4. reassess him every 5 minutes

A
  1. reassess him every 5 minutes
1270
Q

Your patient is a​ 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your​ reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this​ patient? 1. notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding 2. check the patients BP 3. place the patient in the Trendelenburg position 4. control the bleeding

A
  1. control the bleeding
1271
Q

You are transporting a​ 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a​ reassessment? 1. Every 10 minutes 2. Every 15 minutes 3. Every 5 minutes 4. Every 30 minutes

A
  1. Every 5 minutes
1272
Q

During​ reassessment, you notice that your patient is making gurgling sounds. Which of the following should you do​ immediately? 1. suction the airway 2. increase the amount of O2 being delivered to the patient 3. place the patient in the recovery position 4. assist ventilations with the BVM

A
  1. suction the airway
1273
Q

You are treating a​ 57-year-old male for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent history of the present​ illness, completed two sets of vital​ signs, talked with medical​ direction, and assisted the patient with two doses of his nitroglycerin. Determination of whether or not the nitroglycerin was effective is assessed during​ the: 1. primary and secondary assessment 2. reassessment 3. primary assessment 4. secondary assessment

A
  1. primary assessment
1274
Q

Base Station

A

Setup with two-way radios at a fixed site, such as a hospital or dispatch center

1275
Q

Mobile Radio

A

A two way radio that is used or affixed in a vehicle

1276
Q

Watt

A

The unit of measurement of the output power of a radio

1277
Q

Portable Radio

A

A handheld two-way radio

1278
Q

Repeater

A

A device that picks up signals from lower power radio units, such as mobile and portable radios, and retransmits them at a higher power. It allows low-power radio signals to be transmitted over longer distances

1279
Q

Cell Phone

A

A phone that transmits through the air instead of over wires, so the phone can be transported and used over a wide area

1280
Q

Telemetry

A

The process of sending and receiving data wirelessly

1281
Q

Drop Report (Transfer Report)

A

An abbreviated form of the PCR that an EMS crew can leave at the hospital when there is not enough time to complete the PCR before leaving

1282
Q

Which communication device has an output of 20-50 watts and a range of 10-15 miles? 1. Mobile Radio 2. Repeater 3. Portable Radio 4. Base Station

A
  1. Mobile Radio Portable radios have a smaller range Base stations and repeaters have much larger outputs and ranges
1283
Q

A radio that is located at a stationary site is called​ a: 1. Repeater 2. Base Station 3. Portable 4. Mobile

A
  1. Base Station
1284
Q

A device that receives transmissions from one​ source, boosts the signal​ power, and then rebroadcasts the transmissions is called​ a: 1. Frequency modulator 2. Repeater 3. Converter 4. Delay Circuit

A
  1. Repeater
1285
Q

Which of the following violates FCC​ regulations? 1. Saying “please” and “thank you” excessively 2. Improperly using codes 3. Using offensive language 4. Using unauthorized abbreviations

A
  1. Using offensive language
1286
Q

When communicating within the EMS​ system, you should keep your transmission brief and remember​ to: 1. Listen before transmitting 2. Begin talking as soon as you press the microphone button 3. State your ID number of the unit you are calling 4. Speak with your lips directly on the microphone

A
  1. Listen before transmitting
1287
Q

The ground rules for radio communication​ include: 1. using EMS frequencies for all radio traffic, including personal messages 2. telling the receiving hospital what you believe the patient’s diagnosis is 3. pressing your lips against the microphone for clarity while speaking 4. Pushing the “press to talk” button and waiting one second before speaking

A
  1. Pushing the “press to talk” button and waiting one second before speaking
1288
Q

Use of the phrase​ “Be advised”​ is: 1. Not necessary unless you are transmission 2. a standard way to begin each new transmission 3. to be avoided, because it is implied and serves no purpose 4. to be limited to critical information, to signal its importance

A
  1. to be avoided, because it is implied and serves no purpose
1289
Q

In radio​ communication, phrases such as​ “please” and​ “thank you”: 1. are assumed, and should not be stated on the radio 2. increase cooperation 3. are common courtesy. and should be included if time and traffic permit 4. are not allowed by the FCC

A
  1. are assumed, and should not be stated on the radio
1290
Q

When receiving orders from medical​ direction, you should do all of the following​ except: 1. refuse to follow any order that you do not immediately understand 2. repeat the order word for the word 3. avoid phrases such as “please,” “thank you,” and “you’re welcome.” 4.. ask for clarification of an order that you did not understand or feel is inappropriate

A
  1. refuse to follow any order that you do not immediately understand Instead of refusing an order because you do not understand it, you should do #4 where you are getting clarification of the order in order to gain understanding of the order
1291
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the radio medical​ report? 1. Estimated time of arrival 2. Patient name 3. Patient age and sex 4. Chief Complaint

A
  1. Patient name All of the other information would be in the report. “Enroute to you with a (#3) 47 y/o M. (#4) complaining of Chest Pain…….we will be arriving about 5 minutes (#1)
1292
Q

You may receive an order from medical direction over the radio to help a patient with the​ patient’s medication. After receiving the​ order, you should​ next: 1. confirm the order with your partner 2. administer the medication 3. repeat VS 4. repeat the order

A
  1. repeat the order Repeating the order back to online medical direction, verifies that you heard the order correctly, it also assures the physician that the order was understood
1293
Q

The physician has asked you to administer nitroglycerin to your patient.​ However, the​ patient’s blood pressure is​ 80/50. Which of the following responses is most​ appropriate? 1. “I refuse to administer nitro to this patient” 2. “Maybe I’m breaking up, doc. Did you read the blood pressure?” 3. “Sorry doc, I can’t hear you. You’re breaking up.” 4. “Received order for nitro. Did you copy that the patient’s BP was 80/50?

A
  1. “Received order for nitro. Did you copy that the patient’s BP was 80/50? While the BP does not support the order to assist in administering the nitroglycerin, you need to repeat the order that the online gave you. THEN, you repeating your information to the Doc and getting THEIR confirmation that THEY understood the contraindication that you provided. Once all parties understand, if the MD gives you the order, even after confirming that they understand, then proceed with the order.
1294
Q

The first information you give to the receiving hospital will​ be: 1. your oral report 2. the minimum data set 3. your prehospital care report 4. the patient refusal form

A
  1. your oral report The prehospital report is something that you will write later. It includes the minimum data set. If the patient refuses, then it is not part of the report, it is only used with the patient refuses care/transport
1295
Q

The first information you give to the emergency department staff when you arrive with a patient​ is: 1. written 2. communicated through dispatch 3. oral 4. form-based

A
  1. oral Your oral report is the first thing that you are giving to the ED staff. It contains information such as; Chief Complaint, patient hx, additional tx/interventions, VS (baseline and those taken enroute), allowing the ED staff to see the hx of the patient from scene to ED All of the above is communicated DIRECTLY to ED staff, NOT through dispatch It is not written, it does not use a form.
1296
Q

If you were communicating information through dispatch, what could be a problem to this?

A

It becomes like a game of “telling a secret” where you tell a short story to one person, (*whispering), then that person tells the next, so on and so forth. The story is NEVER the same exact story as it started. If you rely on someone else to transmit your oral report, you risk the information not being communicated correctly

1297
Q

A home healthcare aide is on the scene when you respond to a call for an elderly patient with respiratory difficulty. You​ should: 1. inform the aide to speak to the medical direction, not to you, about information regarding the patient 2. respectfully ask the aide to leave the scene immediately 3. respectfully ask the aide for information about the patient and the present emergency 4. request that the aide accompany you in transporting the patient

A
  1. respectfully ask the aide for information about the patient and the present emergency Although not listed as an option, you can have the aide, give information to your partner(s). This removes the aide from the situation ** Something that must be taken into consideration - Metal competency; Mental Status overall
1298
Q

Eye contact should​ be: 1. avoided 2. frequent 3. only employed if the patient demands it 4. brief

A
  1. frequent * It shows that you are interested in your patient and that you are attentive to their needs. ** If you avoid eye contact, it will create a distrust between yourself and the patient. It gives the patient non-verbal cues that you are not interested, maybe you are uncomfortable in the situation.
1299
Q

The​ gestures, mannerisms, and postures by which you communicate with others​ should: 1. convey warmth and openness 2. make it clear that you don’t intend to speak unless absolutely necessary 3. convey a strict format to discourage unnecessary conversation 4. signal your authority at all times

A
  1. convey warmth and openness * Non-verbal cues are just as powerful, and sometimes more powerful than verbal cues. ** Your position in relation to the patient is not part of the body language. However, you do want to get on their level, not hover above them, trying to establish domination, which hovering above them actually does convey to them
1300
Q

You are treating an elderly man who tells you that his name is Robert Walters. What is the most appropriate way to refer to​ him? 1. Mr. Walkers 2. Mister 3. Robert 4. Rob

A
  1. Mr. Walkers Address patients formally unless they advise you to inform them differently
1301
Q

You arrive at a​ patient’s residence and determine that the patient is from a culture that is very different from yours. It is apparent that eye contact makes the patient​ uncomfortable, and you suspect this a culturally influenced attitude. You​ should: 1. try to avoid looking at the patient at all 2. mirror the patients behavior 3. continue to make eye contact, to express friendliness

A
  1. mirror the patients behavior If your patient’s culture does not allow for eye contact, then mirror their behaviors, only look when needed
1302
Q

Which of the following is the term for an abbreviated form of the PCR that an EMS crew can leave at the hospital when there is not enough time to complete the PCR before​ leaving? 1. Patient Care Record 2. Quality Assurance Report 3. Drop Report 4. Run Data

A
  1. Drop Report This is an abbreviated form of a PCR Run data provides administrative information about a call A Patient Care Record IS the PCR Quality assurance helps make sure EMT actions are reviewed for adherence to current medical and organizational standards
1303
Q

What is a​ short-term benefit of​ documentation? 1. It becomes part of the permanent patient record 2. It helps you remember important facts during a call 3. It can be a part of research efforts to trend data 4. It can be used for quality improvement purposes

A
  1. It helps you remember important facts during a call The short term benefit is that you are able to have such items as the VS and patient hx that you gained during the course of the call. Other benefits listed are long term benefits
1304
Q

Documentation is part of​ the: 1. Patient care process 2. general impression of the patient 3. oral report to the ED staff 4. interpersonal communications with the patient

A
  1. Patient care process
1305
Q

What is the difference between the patient information section of the minimum data set and the administrative information that is included on the minimum data​ set? 1. the patient information is the CC, and the administrative information is the EMS arrival time 2. the patient information includes the specifc assessment findings, and the administrative information includes the trip times 3. the patient infromation includes the patient assessment information, and the administrative section is the name and address of the EMS system 4. the patient information includes the patient’s address only, and the administrative section includes the trip times

A
  1. the patient information includes the specifc assessment findings, and the administrative information includes the trip times The patient information includes specific but comprehensive patient assessment​ information, whereas the administrative information includes the times that were pertinent to the EMS call itself.
1306
Q

Administrative information in the Department of​ Transportation’s minimum data set includes the time when​ the: 1. unit left the hospital after tansferring care 2. EMT radioed the patient report to the hospital 3. unit was enroute to the call 4. incident was reported

A
  1. incident was reported The information to be included in the administrative information section includes the time the incident was​ reported, the time the unit was​ notified, the time of arrival of the​ patient, the time the unit left the​ scene, the time the unit arrived at its destination​ (e.g., the​ hospital), and the time of transfer of care. (Box 17-2 page 479)
1307
Q

Documenting pertinent negatives means​ documenting: 1. examination findings that are negative but important to note 2. your actions when a patient refuses care 3. any time the patient said “no” 4. anything you decided not to do

A
  1. examination findings that are negative but important to note Pertinent negatives are examination findings that are negative​ (things that are not​ true) but are important to note. For​ example, if a patient has chest​ pain, you will ask that patient if he has difficulty breathing. If the patient says he does not have difficulty in​ breathing, that statement is an important piece of negative information. On your prehospital care​ report, you would​ note, “The patient denies difficulty​ breathing.”
1308
Q

Which of the following sections is used by the EMT to add more detailed information to a​ PCR? 1. treatment section 2. demographic section 3. administrative section 4. patient narrative section

A
  1. patient narrative section The portion of the PCR that allows the EMT to provide more detailed information is the patient narrative section. This section allows for more information about the patient and the​ patient’s problem than is allowed for in check​ boxes, drop-down​ menus, or limited data fields. This critical information sets the tone for the entire course of​ assessment, treatment, and documentation that will follow.
1309
Q

Another name for an abbreviated​ transfer-of-care form​ is: 1. Drop report 2. condensed report 3. incomplete report 4. short report

A
  1. Drop report Since it is not always possible to complete the PCR before a crew has to​ leave, many EMS agencies using electronic data collection employ a drop report. This is an abbreviated report containing the minimum data set.
1310
Q

A triage tag is affixed to the patient and​ records: 1. the patient’s name, address, and date of birth 2. the patient’s transport priority on a scale of 1-10, with a 1 being the highest priority 3. the patient’s chief complaint and injuries, VS and tx given 4. a narrative hx of the patient that paints a picture of the patient’s condition

A
  1. the patient’s chief complaint and injuries, VS and tx given A triage tag is affixed to the patient and records the​ patient’s chief complaint and​ injuries, vital​ signs, and treatments given. This can keep critical information with the patient as the patient moves through the system. At a point later in the​ emergency, the tag will be used to complete a traditional prehospital care report. (page 487)
1311
Q

To whom information about a patient may be distributed is dictated​ by: 1. medical direction 2. the patient’s family 3. an attorney for the receiving hospital 4. HIPAA, state, and local regulations

A
  1. HIPAA, state, and local regulations
1312
Q

A​ refusal-of-care form: 1. takes place of a prehospital care report 2. must include the NHSTA minimum data set 3. must be witnesses by an attorney when signed 4. should be read and signed by the patient

A
  1. should be read and signed by the patient Most EMS agencies have a​ refusal-of-care form to use in the event that you have done your best to persuade the patient to accept care or transport and the patient still refuses. This form may be either part of the prehospital care report or a separate document. You should make sure the patient reads and signs this form.
1313
Q

To avoid falsifications in your prehospital care​ report, follow this​ rule: 1. write a disclaimer at the top of the report that inaccuraccies are simple errors 2. avoid writing anything about the patient that could be construed as subjective 3. write everything important that did happen and nothing that did not 4. only write down objective, measurable data concerning the patient

A
  1. write everything important that did happen and nothing that did not You will avoid falsifications if you follow this​ rule: Write everything important that did happen and nothing that​ didn’t. You should try to avoid any inaccuracies and should not write disclaimers regarding inaccuracies. You need to include both pertinent subjective and objective information in your report.
1314
Q

Your activities as an EMT may take you to some unusual​ situations, such as exposure to infectious​ disease, that will require documentation on a form other than a prehospital care report. Such forms are usually specific to a local agency rather than mandated statewide. They are​ called: 1. special incident reports 2. drop reports 3. supplemental forms 4. refusal information sheets

A
  1. special incident reports Refusal information sheets document patient refusals of care or​ transport, drop reports are abbreviated versions of the PCR that EMTs can drop at the​ hospital, and supplemental forms augment the PCR to document calls involving Advanced Life Support or that were otherwise complex or involved.
1315
Q

You were on a call involving ALS. It is likely that you will have to fill out which type of form to add to the​ PCR? 1. patient refusal 2. supplemental 3. special incident 4. triage

A
  1. supplemental Many states use a supplemental form for Advanced Life Support​ (ALS) calls, or additional documentation for calls that were complex or involved. For a call involving​ ALS, it is likely that you will have to fill out this​ form, but not a patient refusal form unless a patient refused care or​ transport, and not a special incident report unless situations that occurred are covered by such reports. There​ isn’t a triage form.
1316
Q

The prehospital care report​ is: 1. delivered to the patient’s family 2. puublicly available information 3. proofread by an attorney for the hospital 4. completely confidential information

A
  1. completely confidential information The PCR itself and all the information it contains are strictly confidential. The information must not be discussed with or distributed to unauthorized persons.​ Typically, only those needing to know the information in the report to treat the patient​ properly, such as staff at the receiving​ hospital, are authorized to have access to it.
1317
Q

If a patient refusing care or transport also refuses to sign a​ refusal-of-care form, then you​ must: 1. document this refusal as well 2. fill out a special situation report 3. report the patient to the police 4. request medical direction to advise

A
  1. document this refusal as well It is rare that a patient will refuse to sign the form. If he​ does, be sure to document this as well and note the names of witnesses to the refusal. If​ possible, when a patient refuses to sign the​ form, get the witnesses to sign a statement confirming that the patient has refused care or transport. You would not report this patient to police. You should consult medical direction whenever a patient refuses care or​ transport, but this particular situation requires​ documentation, not medical advice. A special situation report would not cover this situation.
1318
Q

Which of the following terms describes inaccurate information that has been documented on a PCR and may lead to revocation of EMT​ certification? 1. falsified 2. incomplete 3. confidential 4. inaccurate

A
  1. falsified The PCR documents the nature and extent of emergency medical care an EMT provides. It is meant to be a thorough and accurate record. Any mistake in care must be highlighted on the PCR. In such a​ situation, the EMT might be tempted to falsify the PCR. Falsification of information on a PCR should never occur. False information may lead to suspension or revocation of EMT certification or license. It also can lead to poor patient​ care, because the facts​ weren’t documented.
1319
Q

Which of the following best describes the manner in which an EMT should correct a known error on a written patient care​ report? 1. circle the word and write the correct one beside it 2. draw a single horizontal line through the error and write the correction beside it 3. scribble out the word and write the correct one beside it 4. erase the error and write the correction over the erasure

A
  1. draw a single horizontal line through the error and write the correction beside it Even the most careful EMT will occasionally make errors in filling out the PCR. When such an error is discovered while a paper report is being​ written, draw a single horizontal line through the​ error, initial​ it, and write the correct information beside it.
1320
Q

Which type of radio may be carried by the​ EMT? 1. mobile 2. repeater 3. base 4. portable

A
  1. portable
1321
Q

Your EMS system covers a large area. For reliable transmission between mobile and portable​ radios, which of the following is​ essential? 1. repeaters 2. digital radios 3. microwave radios 4. cell phones

A
  1. repeaters
1322
Q

Errors in prehospital care​ reports: 1. are evidence of criminal negligence 2. must be corrected 3. cannot be corrected once the report has left the EMT’s hands 4. are fine if they clearly just a reflection of difficult circumstances

A
  1. must be corrected
1323
Q

Written documentation​ should: 1. describe everything that the EMT observed on the call 2. suggest potential diagnosis for the patient’s condition 3. avoid radio codes and nonstandard abbreviations 4. describe every statement the EMT made during the call

A
  1. avoid radio codes and nonstandard abbreviations
1324
Q

You have just received a medication order from your medical director over the radio. You should​ immediately: 1. direct the physician to repeat the order 2. administer the drug 3. repeat the order 4. notify the patient

A
  1. repeat the order
1325
Q

What type of special reporting situation typically employs the use of triage​ tags? 1. crime scenes 2. pediatric arrest scenes 3. multiple casualty incidents 4. sporting event scenes

A
  1. multiple casualty incidents
1326
Q

Which EMS systems should be collecting the minimum data set on all emergency​ runs? 1. fire-based EMS systems 2. third service public EMS systems 3. privae EMS systems 4. all EMS systems

A
  1. all EMS systems
1327
Q

Which of the following is typically NOT included in the patient information section of the minimum data​ set? 1. chief complaint 2. breath sounds 3. respiratory rate and effort 4. skin color and temperature

A
  1. breath sounds
1328
Q

Which of the following should be used instead of​ “yes” over the​ radio? 1. negative 2. copy 3. affirmative 4. roger that

A
  1. affirmative
1329
Q

When you encounter a patient who refuses​ treatment, you​ should: 1. simply leave the scene 2. forcibly treat the patient 3. tell the patient that the patient will die 4. inform the patient of the consequences of that decision

A
  1. inform the patient of the consequences of that decision
1330
Q

One of the EMTs at the station has been cited by the medical director for his​ sloppy, incomplete, and sometimes inaccurate patient care documentation. What is the most important reason documentation must be clear and​ accurate? 1. the service cannot bill for sloppy report forms 2. poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors 3. patient care documentation may be used late as legal evidence 4. failure to document properly will make it easier for the EMS system to be successfully sued

A
  1. poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors
1331
Q

If a patient seemed reluctant to​ speak, what would your next step​ be? 1. rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties 2. assume that pathology is not the cause 3. decide whether the patient is hiding something 4. treat the patient as uncooperative

A
  1. rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties
1332
Q

Which of the following is not one of the roles of the Federal Communications​ Commission? 1. assigning radio frequencies 2. licensing users 3. overseeing radio communications 4. developing standardized 10 codes

A
  1. developing standardized 10 codes
1333
Q

While reviewing a written PCR for your QI​ committee, you come across a word that was misspelled. There was a single line drawn through​ it, and the correctly spelled word was next to it. Characterize how well the EMT corrected this mistake. 1. the EMT forgot to initial the mistake after striking out the word and writing in the correct one 2. the EMT corrected the mistake correctly 3. the EMT was supposed to circle the incorrect word, write the cord beside it, then initial the change 4. the EMT should have scribbled out the word to make it illegible and then written in the correct word

A
  1. the EMT forgot to initial the mistake after striking out the word and writing in the correct one Page 487
1334
Q

Which of the following components of an EMS communication system would most likely provide the farthest transmission of​ voice? 1. a 50 watt mobile radio 2. portable handheld radio 3. portable ambulance-mounted radio 4. base station with a repeater

A
  1. base station with a repeater
1335
Q

You arrive at the scene to find a​ 55-year-old female who first stated that she hurts all over but now refuses to talk. Her friend volunteers that the​ patient’s husband recently passed away and the patient is becoming increasingly despondent. You would use this information​ to: 1. establish depression as the patient’s chief complaint 2. avoid speaking to the patient 3. authoritatively direct the patient to answer your questions 4. watch the patient’s body language for clues

A
  1. watch the patient’s body language for clues
1336
Q

In the event that a patient refuses care or​ transport, you will have to make notes​ on: 1. the patient’s capacity 2. the patient’s probable motivations for refusal 3. the patient’s physical appearance 4. whether the patient has committed a crime

A
  1. the patient’s capacity
1337
Q

In some​ cultures, prolonged eye contact is​ considered: 1. rude 2. compassionate 3. passive 4. caring

A
  1. rude
1338
Q

The narrative section or sections of a prehospital care​ report, compared with the​ fill-in or​ check-box sections,​ are: 1. strictly objective 2. strictly subjective 3. more structured 4. less structured

A
  1. less structured
1339
Q

You have just transported a patient to the emergency department at your local hospital. What additional information that is not typically included in the radio report should be shared with the ED​ staff? 1. baseline VS 2. pertinent medical hx 3. the CC 4. additional VS that were taken enroute

A
  1. additional VS that were taken enroute
1340
Q

Arrival and transport times fall under which component of the prehospital care​ report? 1. narrative section 2. tx area 3. administrative information 4. subjective field

A
  1. administrative information
1341
Q

If a base station​ fails, then: 1. EMT’s should consider themselves to be off duty until the base station returns to full service 2. EMT’s should use only mobile radios until further notice 3. EMT’s should use only portable radios until futher notice 4. it is likely that a backup will be put into service

A
  1. it is likely that a backup will be put into service
1342
Q

The patient denying respiratory difficulty is an example​ of: 1. an irrelevant detail 2. a CC 3. a subjective judgement 4. a pertinent negative

A
  1. a pertinent negative
1343
Q

Medical direction has asked you to give the patient three nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following responses to medical control is​ best? 1. the physician has ordered three nitroglycerine tablets. Roger that 2. Nitroglycerine sublinguial, repeat in 5 minutes, up to three, correct? 3. 10-4, will do 4. copy that. three nitros.

A
  1. Nitroglycerine sublinguial, repeat in 5 minutes, up to three, correct?
1344
Q

What are all the types of communication an EMT is likely to employ on a typical​ call? 1. oral and written 2. body language and written 3. oral, body language, written 4. oral and body language

A
  1. oral, body language, written
1345
Q

Which of the following would generally lead to poor communication with a patient in the prehospital​ environment? 1. speaking clearly, slowly, and distinctly, using language the patient understands 2. choosing the most soothing answer to any question 3. using the patients name throughout the contact 4. being aware of how your body language may send messages to the patient

A
  1. choosing the most soothing answer to any question
1346
Q

Which of the following is the term for the unit of measurement of the output power of a​ radio? 1. watt 2. ampere 3. joule 4. volt

A
  1. watt
1347
Q

You document that a patient was administered​ oxygen, which you know did not happen. The failure to administer oxygen​ is: 1. a pertinent negative 2. an error of omission 3. an error of comission 4. a falsification

A
  1. an error of omission Page 486
1348
Q

When speaking during a radio​ transmission, you​ should: 1. Use slang you know the dispatcher will understand 2. say “yes” and “no”, not “affirmative” and “negative” 3. give a nonstop commentary on everything you do during transport 4. use pronouns such as “we” instead of “I”

A
  1. use pronouns such as “we” instead of “I” Box 17-1 page 466
1349
Q

Which of the following is the federal agency that assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies? 1. FAA 2. NHTSA 3. FCC 4. DOT

A
  1. FCC
1350
Q

When making a radio​ report, which details are​ relevant? 1. Pertinent facts 2. Diagnostic criteria 3. Only the ETA 4. Any level of detail

A
  1. Pertinent facts
1351
Q

The patient hand-off is: 1. an oral transfer-of-care report 2. a drop-off form for patient transfers 3. the arrival at the ED 4. verified delivery of the patient’s personal effect’s

A
  1. an oral transfer-of-care report
1352
Q

1). The QI manager calls your partner into his office after your shift. The QI managers pulls out your​ partner’s EMS report on a call he ran last month on a​ 45-year-old driver of a​ single-vehicle motor vehicle collision. There were several empty beer cans in the​ patient’s vehicle, and your partner detected an odor of alcoholic beverages on the​ patient’s breath. The QI​ manager, however, critiques your partner about calling the patient an alcoholic and giving opinions in the report. He tells your partner to never write opinions in the EMS report. Your partner is confused because he is sure the patient was​ drunk, and he was actually arrested for suspicion of driving while intoxicated. Your partner believes his assessment is supported by facts and not just his opinion. How can you help your partner understand the QI​ manager’s concerns? 1. The QI manager is afraid the patient will sue the EMS service for libel 2. Documenting that the patient is an alcoholic is an unverifiable opinion of the patient that is not supported by available facts and could negatively influence other medical providers 3. Calling the patient an alcoholic is not polite, even if it is true 4. The patient is assumed to be innocent until proven guilty. He is not an alcoholic until he is convicted of drinking and driving by a court of law.

A
  1. Documenting that the patient is an alcoholic is an unverifiable opinion of the patient that is not supported by available facts and could negatively influence other medical providers
1353
Q

2). Two EMTs are on the scene of a behavioral call at a psychiatric facility. The medical personnel state that the patient had a psychotic episode and slashed his wrists. During the​ call, the patient claims to hear the voice of God and says that the voice is hurting his ears. The patient refuses to be transported to the emergency​ department, becomes​ combative, and bites one of the EMTs. Which of the following should not be documented on the EMS​ report? 1. the fact that the patient slashed his wrists 2. the fact that the patient was violent and bit the EMT 3. the fact that the EMT had an exposure incident 4. the fact that the patient hears voices

A
  1. the fact that the EMT had an exposure incident
1354
Q

3). Which of the following best describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a​ chair? 1. stand behind the patient’s chair 2. sit or kneel at the same level as the patient 3. stand next to the chair 4. sit on the floor at the patient’s feet

A
  1. sit or kneel at the same level as the patient
1355
Q

4). Which of the following should not be included in a patient care​ report? 1. radio codes 2. CC 3. patient’s subjective statements 4. pertinent negative findings

A
  1. radio codes
1356
Q

5). Which of the following is one the most common situations in which an EMT may be​ liable? 1. failing to get the receiving physician’s signature on the PCR 2. failure to document all of a patient’s medications on the PCR 3. patient refusal of tx and transport 4. inaccurate recording of times and mileage

A
  1. patient refusal of tx and transport
1357
Q

6). Which of the following best describes a base​ station? 1. a device used to receive and then amplify transmission that must be carried over long distances 2. a two-way radio mounted in a vehicle 3. a two-way radio that can be carried on a belt-clip 4. a two-way radio at a fixed site

A
  1. a two-way radio at a fixed site
1358
Q

7). Which of the following is not appropriate to document on your patient care​ report? 1. patient’s attitude 2. patient’s race 3. patient’s mental status 4. all should be documented

A
  1. patient’s attitude
1359
Q

8). When giving a radio report to the​ hospital, which of the following would be the first​ patient-specific information​ provided? 1. the patient has taken nitro 2. the patient is having a heart attack 3. the patient is complaining of CP 4. the patient is a 55 y/o M

A
  1. the patient is a 55 y/o M
1360
Q

9) You are responding to a nursing home for an​ 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this​ patient? 1. P/U the patient’s wrist and begin taking her pulse 2. sit on the foot of the bed and ask the patient what’s up 3. stand near the head of the bed and shout to make sure the patient can hear you 4. place yourself at eye level, identify yourself, and ask the patient for her name

A
  1. place yourself at eye level, identify yourself, and ask the patient for her name
1361
Q

10) Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be​ concise? 1. you want to appear professional 2. you want to make sure the doctor approves your medical order request 3. you do not want to bore the nurse receiving your report 4. the ED needs to know quickly and accurately the patients condition

A
  1. the ED needs to know quickly and accurately the patients condition
1362
Q

11). Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief​ complaint? 1. the patient was confused 2. the patient had a respiratory rate of 44 3. the patient was found sitting in the driver’s seat on a full-sized sedan 4. the patient stated that she felt sick

A
  1. the patient stated that she felt sick
1363
Q

12). Which of the following best describes a portable​ radio? 1. a device that receives and amplifies signals that must be send over long distances 2. a two-way radio that radio at a fixed site 3. a two-way radio at a fixed site 4. a two-way radio that can carried on a clip

A
  1. a two-way radio that can carried on a clip
1364
Q

13). Which of the following is not an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care​ report? 1. the patient has a hx of asthma 2. the patient had wheezes that were audible 3. the patient was having an asthma attack 4. Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do​next

A
  1. the patient was having an asthma attack
1365
Q

14). Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do​ next? 1. Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly 2. Document the order in writing before carrying it out 3. Prepare the medication and then call the hospital back to verify the order 4. Administer the medication order without delay

A
  1. Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly
1366
Q

15). You are on the scene of an unresponsive adult female patient. You find an empty pill bottle lying next to her bed. You look up the medication in your field guide and discover the medication is a powerful sedative. The prescription on the bottle is for the​ patient’s husband, who is not present to answer questions about the medication. What should you​ do? 1. Document the empty pill bottle. It is obvious that she took the pills 2. Do not document the empty pill bottle. You cannot prove that she took the pills and could lead the doctor to make a false diagnosis 3. Do not document the empty pill bottle. It does not belong to the patient 4. Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the patient’s condition

A
  1. Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the patient’s condition
1367
Q

16). You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? 1. Tell the patient the mask is for his benefit, and you will restrain him if necessary to place it on him 2. Explain the importance of O2, and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but assure him that if he cannot tolerate it, you can try another method 3. Document that the patient was uncooperative an refused the O2 3. Tell the patient he will soon become unconscious without the mask, and then you will be able to place it on him

A
  1. Explain the importance of O2, and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but assure him that if he cannot tolerate it, you can try another method
1368
Q

17). Which of the following is not part of a medical radio​ report? 1. Estimated time of arrival 2. Patient’s response to medical care provided 3. Unit Identification 4. Address at which the patient was located

A
  1. Address at which the patient was located
1369
Q

18). Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient​ information? 1. Vital Sx 2. Symptoms 3. Descriptions of surroundings 4. Medications

A
  1. Symptoms
1370
Q

19). You suspect that a​ 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the​ stepmother’s statements. How should you document this situation in the patient​ report? 1. Document who you suspect caused the injuries in the narrative so that law enforcement has a record of the incident 2. Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and the child exactly in quotations 3. Document what was said was well as your opinion that the child was too afraid to tell the truth 4. Document only the actual exam findings. Do not document anything that was said

A
  1. Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and the child exactly in quotations
1371
Q

20). You are en route to the hospital with a​ 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most​ privacy? 1. Using the handheld radio 2. Using the ambulance radio, but not using the patient’s name 3. using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury 4. providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone

A
  1. providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
1372
Q

21). During your radio report to the​ hospital, which of the following pieces of information should not be​ relayed? 1. Patient’s name 2. Patient’s mental status 3. Patient’s age 4. Baseline VS

A
  1. Patient’s name
1373
Q

22). Which of the following information does not need to be provided to the​ dispatcher? 1. Which hospital you are transporting to 2. When you arrive at the hospital 3. ETA at the hospital 4. When you depart from the hospital

A
  1. ETA at the hospital
1374
Q

23). You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is​ swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per​ minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should not be included in the radio​ report? 1. The appearance of the shoulder 2. Notification that security is needed for a VIP 3. VS 4. How the injury occurred

A
  1. Notification that security is needed for a VIP
1375
Q

24). Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is not​ true? 1. Failure to make eye contact may signal uneasiness to the patient 2. It shows you are attentive 3. Eye contact is always appropriate 4. It shows you are interested in the patient

A
  1. Eye contact is always appropriate
1376
Q

25). While on the scene with an elderly chest pain​ call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the​ patient? 1. The EMT is kneeling to protect himself 2. The EMT can examine the patient’s chest better 3. The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient 4. The younger EMT is acknowledging that the older patient is his elder

A
  1. The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient
1377
Q

26). In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented prehospital care report not​ necessary? 1. Multiple patient’s come from an office building evacuation 2. A patient says that someone else called EMS and does not want any assistance 3. A patient is treated but not transported 4. A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above

A
  1. Multiple patient’s come from an office building evacuation
1378
Q

27). Patient information includes all of the following except​ the: 1. time the unit was notified of the the call 2. patient’s medications 3. mechanism of injury 4. patient’s chief complaint

A
  1. time the unit was notified of the the call
1379
Q

28). Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care​ report? 1. Loss of credibility 2. Negative impact on patient care 3. Embarrassment 4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
1380
Q

29). Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration​ (NHTSA) for purposes of data collection in conducting​ research? 1. Patient’s name 2. Time of arrival at the patient’s location 3. Patient’s insurance coverage 4. Amount charged for ambulance services

A
  1. Time of arrival at the patient’s location
1381
Q

30). Which of the following is not appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving​ hospital? 1. Name of the patient’s health insurance provider 2. Major past illness of the patient 3. Pertinent physical exam findings 4. Pertinent past illness

A
  1. Name of the patient’s health insurance provider
1382
Q

31). Which of the following describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal​ report? 1. Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided 2. Patient tx can be based on this information 3. Changes in patients condition can be communicated 4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
1383
Q

32). Which of the following is not an appropriate use of prehospital care report​ (PCR) information? 1. For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services 2. For billing and insurance purposes 3. To provide EMS personnel with education and quality assurance 4. To conduct research

A
  1. For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services
1384
Q

33). An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria except which​ one? 1. Verifiable 2. Biased 3. Observable 4. Measurable

A
  1. Biased
1385
Q

34). Which of the following information on a patient care report is not considered run​ data? 1. Time of the incident report 2. CC 3. Time unit left the scene 4. Time of arrival at the receiving facility

A
  1. CC
1386
Q

35). Which of the following best describes a mobile​ radio? 1. A two-way radio at a fixed site 2. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip 3. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle 4. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance

A
  1. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle
1387
Q

36). You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate​ this? 1. Use the phrase, “Attention, attention, I have priority traffic,” 2. Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission 3. Interrupt less-urgent radio traffic to get your message across 4. Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message

A
  1. Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission
1388
Q

37). Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient care​ report? 1. CC 2. Patient’s expressed consent 3. List of patient’s medications 4. MOI

A
  1. CC
1389
Q

38). What is the best way to communicate with a young pediatric​ patient? 1. Tell the child the procedure will hurt much more than it actually will so that he or she will be pleasantly surprised when the procedure is over 2. Sit at the level of the child, if possible, and always be honest 3. Only talk with the parents. The child is too young to know his or her medical hx 4. Do not tell the child that a procedure will hurt beforehand because the child will become terrified

A
  1. Sit at the level of the child, if possible, and always be honest
1390
Q

39). Which of the following is not considered a principle of proper radio usage in​ EMS? 1. Make sure the radio is on before speaking 2. Speak with your lips 2-3” from the microphone 3. Speak as quickly as possible 4. Use plain English

A
  1. Speak as quickly as possible
1391
Q

40). Which of the following does not need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of​ treatment? 1. Any insulting remarks the patient has made to you 2. That you advised the patient to call back if he changed his mind 3. That you informed the patient of the consequences of refusing care 4. Patient’s mental status

A
  1. Any insulting remarks the patient has made to you
1392
Q

41). You have received the following order from medical​ control: “Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the​ patient’s tongue.” Which of the following is the best​ response? 1. “Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient’s tongue.” 2. “Roger, order received.” 3. “Clear. Will advise of any changes in patient’s condition.” 4. “Copy. Administering medication now.”

A
  1. “Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient’s tongue.”
1393
Q

42). The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the​ patient’s presentation, assessment​ findings, treatment, and transport information is called​ the: 1. deposition 2. narrative 3. data set 4. text

A
  1. narrative
1394
Q

43). Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies? 1. Federal Trade Commission 2. Federal Communications Commission 3. United States Department of Transportation 4. Transportation Security Administration

A
  1. Federal Communications Commission
1395
Q

44). You have responded to a call at a government office building. One of the office workers became very upset during a fire drill and experienced an episode of difficulty breathing. As your partner is speaking with the​ patient, who is not sure she wants to be​ transported, an individual wearing civilian clothes approaches you and states she is a security guard in the building. She asks you for the​ “yellow copy” of your prehospital care report. Which of the following should you​ do? 1. Provide the documentation if the individual shows proper identification 2. Ask the patient if it is alright with her if you provide the individual with a copy of the PCR 3. State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality 4. Get permission from medical control

A
  1. State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality
1396
Q

45). Which of the following is the correct manner for making a correction on a paper copy of a patient care​ report? 1. Draw a single line through the error and initial it 2. Blacken out the entire error and draw an arrow to correct information 3. Get a credible witness to co-sign your patient care report 4. Use typing correction fluid to cover up the error and write over it

A
  1. Draw a single line through the error and initial it
1397
Q

46). The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act​ (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following except​: 1. report child abuse 2. place patient care reports in a locked box 3. safeguard patient confidentiality 4. All of the above are required by HIPAA

A
  1. report child abuse This should fall under mandated reporter requirements, not HIPAA
1398
Q

47). Which of the following is not an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you​ do? 1. Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions 2. Contact dispatch for assistance in finding a translator 3. Use a manual that provides translation 4. Use an interpreter

A
  1. Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions
1399
Q

48). Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient​ information? 1. Patient’s complaint of nausea 2. Patient’s age 3. Patient’s BP 4. Position in which the patient was found

A
  1. Patient’s complaint of nausea
1400
Q

49). You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the​ patient’s leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the best​ response? 1. “I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on. 2. “If you’re stressed out like this, it’s going to hurt a lot more.” 3. “Relax, this is not a painful procedure.” 4. “It doesn’t matter, we have to do it anyway.”

A
  1. “I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on.
1401
Q

50). You are on a call of a minor vehicle accident. Your patient is a​ 22-year-old male who was the driver of a moderate​ T-bone collision. The patient was not wearing a seat​ belt, and there was spidering of the windshield. The patient complains of neck pain and has a scalp laceration. After performing the primary​ assessment, you take vital signs and bandage the​ patient’s scalp. When you tell him you need to backboard​ him, he refuses care and ambulance transport. Because the person is alert and oriented to​ time, place, and​ person, you have the patient sign the separate patient refusal form provided by your service. How should you document this incident in your EMS​ report? 1. You should document everything including all patient care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal 2. You should document your patient care and then simply document that the patient was informed of the risks prior to his refusal. Anything extra is unnecessary and wastes time 3. No report is needed because the patient refused transport and signed the refusal 4. You should only document what tx you performed before the patient refused tx

A
  1. You should document everything including all patient care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal
1402
Q

51). You are treating a​ 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the best way to communicate with this​ patient? 1. Speak very loudly in case he has a little hearing 2. Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak 3. Use hand gestures to act out what you are trying to say 4. Call for an interpreter to meet you at the hospital

A
  1. Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak
1403
Q

52). When you arrive at the receiving​ facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the​ patient’s condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route.​ Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both​ reports? 1. The nurse may not have heard the first radio report 2. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report 3. The patient’s condition may have changed since the first radio report 4. The nurse may be too busy to read the written report

A
  1. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report
1404
Q

53). 3. The patient’s condition may have changed since the first radio report 1. 5 2. 10 3. 12 4. 8

A
  1. 12
1405
Q

54). our elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the best way to address​ him? 1. Joe 2. Smitty 3. Sir 4. Mr. Smith

A
  1. Mr. Smith
1406
Q

55). Which of the following is not a reason for routine review of prehospital care reports in a quality improvement​ program? 1. Assess conformity to patient care standards 2. Reveal excellent patient care 3. Review poor patient care 4. Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor

A
  1. Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor
1407
Q

56). Which of the following best describes a​ repeater? 1. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle 2. A two-way radio at a fixed site 3. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances 4. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

A
  1. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances
1408
Q

57). You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you​ do? 1. Carry out the order but document that you disagree with it 2. Call a different hospital for orders 3. Politely question the physician 4. Contact your supervisor for advice

A
  1. Politely question the physician
1409
Q

H1). Naloxone​ is: 1. An antidote for narcotic overdoses 2. A vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator 3. an atomizer 4. a medication used during asthma attacks

A
  1. An antidote for narcotic overdoses Naloxone is an antidote for narcotic overdoes. It is administered through an atomizer but is not itself an atomizer.
1410
Q

H2). When a cardiac patient is given​ aspirin, the route of administration should​ be: 1. in a gel that is wiped onto the gums 2. oral, and the aspirin should be chewed 3. by auto-injector in the thigh muscle 4. in a mist that is inhaled

A
  1. oral, and the aspirin should be chewed ​Aspirin, when administered to a patient who is complaining of​ cardiac-like chest​ pain, should be taken orally and chewed.
1411
Q

H3). ​Which of the following would be considered a side effect of the drug​ aspirin? 1. Aspirin treats fever 2. Aspirin relieves pain 3. Aspirin worsens gastrointestinal bleeding 4. Aspirin prevents the formation of harmful clots

A
  1. Aspirin worsens gastrointestinal bleeding ​Aspirin’s worsening gastrointestinal bleeding is a side effect and an untoward​ one, because it is harmful. The other effects correspond to indications for when aspirin should be administered​ (pain, fever, heart​ attack), and are not side effects.
1412
Q

H4). As an​ EMT, you are allowed to administer or assist with the administration of some prescribed medications. These​ include: 1. An albuterol inhaler 2. Prozac 3. any medication authorized by medical direction 4. insulin

A
  1. An albuterol inhaler Albuterol is a​ beta-2-specific medication that is used to promote bronchodilation in a patient with respiratory distress. The EMT does not carry this​ medication; however, if it is prescribed to the​ patient, the EMT can assist with the medication. Medical direction cannot authorize a medication that is outside the​ EMT’s scope of practice.
1413
Q

H5). Which of the following medications is prescribed for breathing​ difficulty, and is administered by an​ inhaler? 1. Adrenalin 2. Actidose 3. Nitrostat 4. Ventolin

A
  1. Ventolin Ventolin is a medication that is used to promote bronchodilation in a patient with respiratory distress. Although the EMT does not carry this​ medication, the EMT is allowed to assist with the medication if the patient has it and it is prescribed to the patient.
1414
Q

H6). When nitroglycerin is administered to a patient who is complaining of chest​ pain, the desired actions​ include: 1. hypotension 2. dilation of coronary vessels 3. peripheral vasoconstriction 4. headache

A
  1. dilation of coronary vessels Dilation of the coronary arteries is a desired effect of nitroglycerin. Headache and hypotension are side​ effects, not desired effects. Nitroglycerin also causes peripheral​ vasodilation, which may be useful in taking some of the workload off the heart.
1415
Q

H7). Which of the following would be the most appropriate site for the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector? 1. beneath the skin of the calf 2. into the vein of the upper arm 3. into the trachea 4. in the muscle of the thigh

A
  1. in the muscle of the thigh The epinephrine​ auto-injector is most commonly administered in the muscle of the​ thigh, to promote rapid absorption and circulation of the medication. Its route of administration is​ intramuscular, and it would not be injected into a vein or the trachea or subcutaneously.
1416
Q

H8). Why is it advisable to assist a patient with using a bronchodilator when the patient has obvious signs and symptoms of lower airway obstruction due to​ emphysema? 1. The medication will slow the patients heart rate and improve circulation 2. The drug will make it easier to breath by enlarging bronchial tubes 3. the medication will increase the patient’s heart rate and blood flow 4. the medication will help decrease the dead space in patient’s airway

A
  1. The drug will make it easier to breath by enlarging bronchial tubes The patient with a history of emphysema who is having symptoms of lower airway obstruction should benefit from using a bronchodilator. The drug will relax the bronchioles and drop airway resistance. Although the medication will increase the​ patient’s heart​ rate, that is not the reason for​ administration, and is considered a side effect.
1417
Q

H9). Your patient is on several bronchodilator inhalers. You should suspect a history​ of: 1. respiratory problems 2. allergy problems 3. diabetic problems 4. cardiac problems

A
  1. respiratory problems Bronchodilator inhalers are used by patients with respiratory​ problems, such as asthma or emphysema. Although people with allergies may also use an​ inhaler, respiratory problems are a far more common reason for inhaler use.
1418
Q

H10). Which of the following is a device that is attached to the end of a syringe to turn a medication into very fine​ droplets? 1. an atomizer 2. an inhaler 3. an auto-injector 4. a small-volume nebulizer

A
  1. an atomizer (Page 500) An atomizer is attached to the end of a syringe to turn a medication into very fine droplets. Inhalers and​ small-volume nebulizers also form​ droplets, but are not attached to syringes. An​ auto-injector is a​ syringe, but does not turn a medication into small droplets.
1419
Q

H11). Your patient requires​ nitroglycerin, but you cannot give it because the​ patient’s blood pressure is too low. This would be known​ as: 1. a contraindication 2. an administration 3. an indication 4. an action

A
  1. a contraindication Contraindications are situations in which the drug should not be​ administered, because of the potential harm that could be caused to the patient. Low blood pressure is a contraindication for the use of nitroglycerin because nitroglycerin will lower the blood​ pressure, possibly causing already low blood pressure to become dangerously low.
1420
Q

H12). Before administering a​ medication, the EMT should be careful​ to: 1. ensure that the patient has a valid prescription for the medication 2. understand the likely effect on the patient under the current, specific circumstances 3. ensure the medication has no side effects or contraindications 4. have received special additional education and testing in administration of the medication

A
  1. understand the likely effect on the patient under the current, specific circumstances Before administering a​ medication, the EMT should be careful to understand the likely effect on the patient under the​ current, specific circumstances. Not all medications an EMT administers will be prescription​ medications, not all medications require special additional education and testing to​ administer, and medications typically have side effects and contraindications.
1421
Q

H13). You pick up a bottle of a​ patient’s prescribed nitroglycerin pills to help administer the medication to that patient. Before​ administration, you notice that although most of the pills in the bottle are a particular size and​ color, many of the pills are different sizes and colors. You​ aren’t sure the pills are correct. Your concern relates​ to: 1. right medication 2. right patient 3. right time 4. right dose

A
  1. right medication In this​ case, the differently sized pills in the bottle should raise suspicion as to whether the medication is correct. There would also be dosage​ concerns, given the different​ sizes, but the more immediate concern you have is whether the medication is right at​ all, regardless of dosage.
1422
Q

H14). If you are unsure about the pediatric dose of a​ medication, you​ should: 1. postpone administration until you arrive at the ED 2. consult medical direction 3. discuss the dose with the child’s parent 4. call your dispatcher

A
  1. consult medical direction You may consult with medical direction if you have questions about patient care. You should not postpone a therapy.
1423
Q

H15). Which of the following is a way in which you may receive orders to administer a medication to your​ patient? 1. from off-line medical direction 2. by consulting a paramedic 3. by checking reliable internet sources 4. by contacting the patient’s physician

A
  1. from off-line medical direction You may receive orders through​ off-line medical​ direction, including​ protocols, or standing orders.​ Patients’ physicians and paramedics are generally not appropriate sources of medical​ direction; nor is the Internet.
1424
Q

H16). Your patient with chest pain has nitroglycerin paste in place and nitroglycerin spray in his pocket. What should you do if you are unsure whether you should assist the patient with his​ spray, given that the paste is already in​ place? 1. contact on-line medical direction 2. look up in your protocol book 3. look it up on the internet using your smart phone 4. ask your dispatcher for help

A
  1. contact on-line medical direction Any questions about patient care should be addressed to​ on-line medical direction.
1425
Q

H17). Your patient with chest pain had a dental procedure 6 weeks ago. You are unsure whether this is a contraindication to giving her aspirin. You​ consult: 1. a healthcare website 2. your protocol handbook 3. on-line medical control 4. off-line medical control

A
  1. on-line medical control Any questions about patient care should be addressed to​ on-line medical direction. Although protocols and retrospective review​ (off-line medical​ direction) are​ important, on-line medical direction would be more appropriate in this situation
1426
Q

H18). Your patient is having an asthma attack. She has her prescribed medication with​ her, and you have a protocol that authorizes you to assist her in taking her medication. Which of the following would be the most likely route of administration for this​ medication? 1. Oral dose 2. Sublingual 3. Small-Volume Nebulizer 4. Auto-injector device

A
  1. Small-Volume Nebulizer A nebulizer is a device that uses a compressed​ gas, typically​ oxygen, that is forced into a chamber containing medication. The gas mixes with the liquid medication and forms an aerosol. The patient inhales the​ aerosol, either through a mouthpiece or through a face​ mask, and the medication is deposited directly on the mucosal lining deep in the respiratory tract.
1427
Q

H19). You are treating a patient who is complaining of substernal chest pain for the past 20 minutes. The route of administration of the medication with which you are most likely to assist​ him, following your treatment​ protocols, is: 1. auto-injector 2. sublingual 3. intravenous 4. nasal

A
  1. sublingual Patients who are complaining of substernal chest pain and happen to be carrying their own nitroglycerin will most likely be administered the nitroglycerin by the sublingual route per your local protocol.
1428
Q

H20). Which of the following patients would likely have the most difficulty eliminating medications from the​ body? 1. 44 y/o F 2. 6 y/o M 3. 84 y/o M 4. 15 y/o F

A
  1. 84 y/o M An elderly patient will have more difficulty eliminating medications from the body. As a patient grows​ older, issues such as liver and kidney function can play a role in medication elimination.
1429
Q

H21). Which of the following patients will require a smaller dose of a medication to achieve the same​ effect? 1. 13 y/o F who weighs 164 lbs 2. 84 y/o M who weighs 165 lbs 3. 74 y/o F who weighs 214 lbs 4. 14 y/o F who weighs 84 lbs

A
  1. 14 y/o F who weighs 84 lbs The​ lighter-weight patient will often require a smaller dose of medication to achieve the same effect. Smaller body mass typically indicates a smaller dose.
1430
Q

H22). Which of the following is of least importance in documenting administration of a drug on the​ PCR? 1. Dose administered 2. Drug Manufacturer 3. Route of Administration 4. Time the drug was given

A
  1. Drug Manufacturer Once you have administered the​ medication, you must document the​ drug, dose,​ route, and time the medication was administered. You do not have to report the​ drug’s manufacturer.
1431
Q

H23). You have administered a drug to the patient. En route to the​ hospital, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive. You do not believe that the drug was related to the unresponsiveness. How do you document this on the​ PCR? 1. Simply document what you did for the patient, including the drug therapy, and document how the patient’s condition changed enroute 2. Document that you gave the drug, but do not document the dose or the time given, so that there is no appearance that the drug is associated with the change in the patients condition 3. Do not document the drug at all, because it is not related to the change in the patient’s condition 4. Document that you gave the drug, but also document that you do not think that it cause the change in the pts condition

A
  1. Simply document what you did for the patient, including the drug therapy, and document how the patient’s condition changed enroute Part of good documentation on any PCR will include what you learned about the patient​ (your assessment), what you did for the patient​ (your treatment and drug​ therapy), and how the patient responded​ (your reassessment). You must always be truthful and accurate. You should not document opinions but rather should be objective and report only your findings.
1432
Q

H24). Your patient tells you that he has taken Advil for pain. What is the generic name for this​ medication? 1. Ibuprofen 2. Acetaminophen 3. Nalbuphine 4. Phenytoin

A
  1. Ibuprofen Ibuprofen is a generic name for Advil. Acetaminophen is otherwise known as Tylenol. Nalbuphine is a narcotic pain reliever. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant.
1433
Q

H25). Your patient tells you that she takes Humulin. What is the generic name for this​ medicine? 1. Insulin 2. Metaproterenol 3. Amoxapine 4. Glucose

A
  1. Insulin Humulin is a trade name for insulin. Glucose is simple sugar. Metaproterenol is a type of bronchodilator. Amoxapine is an antidepressant.
1434
Q

H26). You have extricated a patient from a motor vehicle collision. Your partner started an IV while the patient was still​ trapped, and has infused 500 ml. As you load the patient into the​ ambulance, you see that the line is no longer running. Which of the following is a common problem of maintaining an IV that is the most likely cause​ here? 1. the patients BP is elevated 2. the vein is clotted 3. the constricting band is still in place 4. the tubing is kinked or caught under the backboard

A
  1. the tubing is kinked or caught under the backboard Because the line initially did​ run, the most likely problem is tubing that is kinked or caught under the backboard.
1435
Q

H27). Which of the following statements about selecting an IV fluid is​ true? 1. An expired fluid is okay to use in the field 2. The correct fluid is not important at this point, as it is easy to change once IV access is made 3. Be sure to select the correct fluid with a valid expiration date that is clear and free from particles, and whose bag has no leaks 4. The fluid may be a little cloudy, depending on the type of fluid

A
  1. Be sure to select the correct fluid with a valid expiration date that is clear and free from particles, and whose bag has no leaks
1436
Q

PT1). In its pure​ form, what element is used as a drug to treat any patient whose medical or traumatic condition may cause the patient to be​ hypoxic? 1. O2 2. Helium 3. Hydrogen 4. Carbon

A
  1. O2
1437
Q

2). After administration of​ nitroglycerin, your patient develops​ hypotension, a drop in blood pressure. This is​ called: 1. a desired effect 2. a mechanism of action 3. an indication 4. a side effect

A
  1. a side effect
1438
Q

3). The​ patient’s IV is not running properly. Which of the following would be a likely​ cause? 1. constricting band removed 2. regulator opened 3. clamp on tubing closed 4. too large an IV catheter

A
  1. clamp on tubing closed
1439
Q

4). Which of the following would be considered one of the​ “five rights” of medication​ administration? 1. right contraindication 2. right weight 3. right dose 4. right mechanism of action

A
  1. right dose
1440
Q

5). Which of the following is the definition of contraindications​? 1. any actions of a medication other than those desired 2. circumstances under which is not appropriate to administer a medication to a patient 3. therapeutic effects of a medication 4. circumstances under which it is appropriate to administer a medication to a patient

A
  1. circumstances under which is not appropriate to administer a medication to a patient
1441
Q

6). An EMT is ordered by medical direction to administer nitroglycerin sublingually to a patient with chest pain. The EMT places the nitroglycerin tablet on the​ patient’s tongue and tells her to chew and swallow the medication. The EMT has failed in which of the​ “five rights” of medication​ administration? 1. Right patient 2. Right Medication 3. Right Route of Administration 4. Right time

A
  1. Right Route of Administration
1442
Q

7). Which of the following must be included on your PCR after administration of a medication to your​ patient? 1. The drug’s chemical name 2. The drugs’ manufacturer 3. The drug’s expiration date 4. The effects of the drug

A
  1. The effects of the drug
1443
Q

8). ​Epinephrine, which is administered for severe allergic​ reactions, helps to reverse the effects of the allergic reaction​ by: 1. decreasing the heart rate 2. constricting the bronchioles 3. dilating the blood vessels 4. relaxing airway passages

A
  1. relaxing airway passages (page 501)
1444
Q

9). Which of the following is an antidysrhythmic​ agent? 1. Volmax 2. Calan 3. Nubain 4. Elavil

A
  1. Calan Verapamil (Calan, Calan SR, Isoptin, Isoptin SR, Verelan)
1445
Q

10). Which of the following shows the best documentation of a dose of nitroglycerin that was given to a​ patient? 1. “We gave nitro x 1 with (+) relief of CP at 7:45pm” 2. “Nitro 0.4mg spray was administered sublingual at 1730 hrs with relief of CP” 3. “One spray of nitro was administered with improvement noted in the patient” 4. “Nitro was given in one-tablet dose at 1730hrs”

A
  1. “Nitro 0.4mg spray was administered sublingual at 1730 hrs with relief of CP”
1446
Q

11). An example of a suspension administered by EMTs​ is: 1. Nitro 2. Oral glucose 3. Aspirin 4. Activated Charcoal

A
  1. Activated Charcoal
1447
Q

12). Which of the following drugs comes in two different medication​ forms? 1. Nitro 2. O2 3. Oral Glucose 4. Activated Charcoal

A
  1. Nitro
1448
Q

13). Which of the following medications is typically administered by EMTs to patients who are suffering severe allergic​ reactions? 1. Liqui-char 2. Elavil 3. Glucose 4. Epinephrine

A
  1. Epinephrine
1449
Q

14). Your patient is having chest​ pain, and has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin.​ However, the expiration date has worn off the​ bottle, and the patient does not know how old the medication is. What is your best course of​ action? 1. Contact medical direction for advice 2. Don’t administer the medication, and don’t allow the patient to take it 3. Flush the tablets down the toilet, so that they cannot be used 4. Go ahead and give the medication, because being out of date will not hurt anything

A
  1. Contact medical direction for advice
1450
Q

15). Which of the following is the appropriate route for sublingual nitroglycerin administration by the​ EMT? 1. Under the tongue 2. Ingested 3. Inhaled 4. Injected

A
  1. Under the tongue
1451
Q

16). What is the best way to ensure that you understood the orders given by​ on-line medical​ direction? 1. Ask your partner to listen to the orders 2. Repeat the orders back to the physician 3. Ask the ED to text the orders to you 4. Check the orders with another physician

A
  1. Repeat the orders back to the physician
1452
Q

17). Which of the following statements is​ correct? 1. Patient weight has no effect on drug dosage 2. The pediatric drug dosage for most medications is half the adult dosage 3. Smaller patients often require smaller doses to achieve the desired effect 4. Smaller patients always receive a smaller dose than larger patients

A
  1. Smaller patients often require smaller doses to achieve the desired effect
1453
Q

18). Your patient has taken an unknown quantity of amitriptyline. Which class of medication is​ this? 1. Antihypertensive 2. Anticonvulsant 3. Antidepressant 4. Analgesic

A
  1. Antidepressant
1454
Q

19). The route describes how the medication is actually given to or taken by the patient. Which of the following is true of medication​ routes? 1. All tablets are administered by the oral route 2. Most medications administered by the EMT are administered by injection 3. Drugs administered by the sublingual route have a relatively show absorption rate 4. The route that is chosen controls how fast the medication is absorbed by the body

A
  1. The route that is chosen controls how fast the medication is absorbed by the body
1455
Q

20). How would your knowledge of pharmacodynamics affect the way you administered a medication to a​ 4-year-old patient? 1. Pediatric patients should be given half the regular adult dose for most medication 2. Pediatric patients always require the same dose as adults 3. Pediatric patients often require smaller doses than do adults 4. Pediatric patients usually require larger doses than do adults

A
  1. Pediatric patients often require smaller doses than do adults
1456
Q

21). How would your knowledge of pharmacodynamics affect the way you administered a medication to a​ 4-year-old patient? 1. Pediatric patient’s should be given half the regular adult dose 2. Pediatric patients should be given half the regular adult dose for most medications 3. Pediatric patients often require smaller doses than do adults 4. Pediatric patients usually require larger doses than do adults

A
  1. Pediatric patients often require smaller doses than do adults
1457
Q

22). Which of the following medications is used to correct hypoxia> 1. O2 2. Nitro 3. Tylenol 4. Glucose

A

1.) O2

1458
Q

23). Which of the following statements about medication administration is​ correct? 1. Once the medication has been administered, you cannot take it back 2. EMT’s should multitask 3. EMT’s carry antidotes for most medications that they administer 4. Typically there is not enough time to look up medications with which you are not familiar

A
  1. Once the medication has been administered, you cannot take it back
1459
Q

24). Which of the following components is not typically readied in setting up an IV administration​ set? 1. Drip chamber 2. drug or needle port 3. flow regulator 4. IV Needle

A
  1. IV Needle
1460
Q

25). If a medication has an intranasal route of​ administration, it is administered via​ the: 1. veins 2. muscles 3. skin 4. nose

A
  1. nose
1461
Q

CT1). You are called to an elementary school for an​ 8-year-old female patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. The school nurse states the patient has an epinephrine​ auto-injector for a possible anaphylactic reaction to bee stings. The patient also has an albuterol inhaler for​ exercise-induced asthma. The patient is breathing 30 times a​ minute, is in the tripod​ position, and is speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences. The nurse states the patient was playing basketball in the gym when she started having difficulty breathing. The patient has wheezing in all lung fields. An ALS unit is en route but it is 10 minutes away. You are 20 minutes away from the nearest hospital. After placing the patient on​ oxygen, your next intervention should be​ to: 1. Cancel the ALS unit and call medical control to assist with the albuterol administration while enroute to the hospital 2. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her albuterol 3. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her epi 4. provide supportive care until ALS unit arrives

A
  1. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her albuterol
1462
Q

2). Your patient is a​ 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per​ protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be​ documented? 1. Expiration date of the medication 2. Chemical name of the medication 3. Patient’s response to the medication 4. All of the above

A
  1. Patient’s response to the medication
1463
Q

3). What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia​? 1. Trade, Brand, and Generic 2. Manufacturer, general and governmental 3. Official, chemical, and generic 4). Trade, chemical and generic

A

4). Trade, chemical and generic

1464
Q

4). If an EMT is enlisted to help set up the IV administration​ set, the first step is​ to: 1. make sure the flow regulator is closed 2. take out and inspect the fluid bag 3. connect the extension set to the administration set 4. select the proper administration set

A
  1. take out and inspect the fluid bag
1465
Q

5). You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness. His wife states he has an albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina. What is the most important drug you can administer to the​ patient? 1. O2 by bag-valve mask 2. O2 by non-rebreather mask 3. Albuterol 4. Nitroglycerin

A
  1. O2 by bag-valve mask
1466
Q

6). How does nitroglycerin decrease the level of chest pain that a patient​ experiences? 1. It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood flow to wash away the toxic lactic acid 2. It constricts the blood vessels, forcing more blood into the heart muscle 3. It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood enter the heart muscle 4. It constricts the blood vessels, forcing the toxic lactic acid out of the heart

A
  1. It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood enter the heart muscle
1467
Q

7). Which of the following is the commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical​ Director? 1. Prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, prescribed​ nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine​ auto-injectors 2. Aspirin, oral​ glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, nitroglycerin, epinephrine​ auto-injectors, and naloxone 3. ​Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral​ glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine​ auto-injectors 4. Any​ over-the-counter medication, oral​ glucose, and oxygen

A
  1. Aspirin, oral​ glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, nitroglycerin, epinephrine​ auto-injectors, and naloxone
1468
Q

8). Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication​ administration? 1. The medication is swallowed whole, not chewed 2. The medication is placed under the tongue 3. The medication is injected under the skin 4. The medication is breathed into the lungs, such as from an inhaler

A
  1. The medication is placed under the tongue
1469
Q

9). Which of the following is an example of a​ medication’s trade​ name? 1. 4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate 2. Nitrostat 3. Oxygen 4. Epinephrine

A
  1. Nitrostat
1470
Q

10). Which of the following best describes a contraindication to a​ medication? 1. An unstable action of the drug 2. A reason why you should give a medication to a patient 3. The way in which a drug causes its effects 4. A reason why you should not give a medication to a patient

A
  1. A reason why you should not give a medication to a patient
1471
Q

11). What is the reason for giving an epinephrine​ auto-injector in a​ life-threatening allergic​ reaction? 1. It will help raise the​ patient’s blood pressure and slow the heart rate. 2. It will constrict the​ patient’s airway passages and blood vessels. 3. It will help constrict the​ patient’s blood vessels and relax the airway passages. 4. It will help dilate the​ patient’s blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

A
  1. It will help constrict the​ patient’s blood vessels and relax the airway passages.
1472
Q

12). How does aspirin actually reduce the chances that a patient suffering a heart attack will​ die? 1. It reduces the amount of pain in the heart. 2. It prevents a deadly fever from developing 3. It reduces the inflammation in the heart 4. It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots

A
  1. It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots
1473
Q

13). Nitroglycerin is given via the​ ________ route. 1. oral 2. enteral 3. parenteral 4. sublingual

A
  1. sublingual
1474
Q

14). Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by​ auto-injector? 1. Dilation of coronary arteries 2. Constriction of blood vessels 3. Decrease in blood pressure 4. Decrease perfusion of tissue

A
  1. Constriction of blood vessels
1475
Q

15). You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a​ 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are​ stable, and he takes medications for​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on​ oxygen, you contact medical control and​ request: 1. to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient. 2. to administer aspirin to the patient. 3. to administer nitroglycerin to the patient 4. no orders

A
  1. to administer aspirin to the patient.
1476
Q

16). Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb.​ However, albuterol is administered only for​ asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why is​ epinephrine, and not​ Albuterol, the first choice for​ anaphylaxis? 1. Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much 2. Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor 3. Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low 4. Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much

A
  1. Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor
1477
Q

17). The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are​ called: 1. side effects 2. untoward effects 3. contraindications 4. indications

A
  1. indications
1478
Q

18). The​ EMT, after administering any​ medication, must do which of the​ following? 1. Document the​ route, dose, and​ time; reassess the​ patient; and​ re-administer the medication. 2. Reconsider the five​ rights, reassess the​ patient, and contact medical control. 3. Wait 5​ minutes, repeat the medication if​ needed, and reassess the​ patient’s vitals. 4. Reassess the​ patient, document the​ medication, and report to the receiving facility.

A
  1. Reassess the​ patient, document the​ medication, and report to the receiving facility.
1479
Q

19). The epinephrine​ auto-injector is given via the​ ________ route. 1. parental 2. oral 3. digestive 4. enteral

A
  1. parental
1480
Q

20). You are on the scene of a​ 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing your physical​ examination, you contact medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Five minutes after taking his​ nitroglycerin, the patient complains of being dizzy and having a headache. You lie the patient down on the stretcher and reassess his vital signs. He is now hypotensive. The patient is suffering from​ a(n): 1. untoward reaction to nitroglycerin. 2. anaphylactic reaction to nitroglycerin. 3. allergic reaction to nitroglycerin 4. side effect of nitroglycerin

A
  1. side effect of nitroglycerin
1481
Q

21). A contraindication for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what​ medications? 1. Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction 2. Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine 3. Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine 4. Oral​ glucose, activated​ charcoal, and aspirin

A
  1. Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction
1482
Q

22). You are called to assist a​ 25-year-old female patient who is in profound respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma and a severe allergy to peanuts. She has a prescribed albuterol inhaler and an epinephrine​ auto-injector. The patient states she was working in her garden when she accidentally stirred up a​ hornets’ nest and was stung multiple times. The patient has wheezing in all​ fields, and is breathing at 28 times per minute. She states that she triggered her asthma by running across the yard to the safety of her home. As you apply​ oxygen, you notice that she is now speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences, her skin has​ splotches, and her tongue and neck appear to be swelling. Your next action is to call medical control and then do​ what? 1. Request to assist the patient with her albuterol for anaphylaxis 2. Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis 3. Request to assist the patient with her albuterol inhaler for her asthma 4. Do not request to give epinephrine. It was prescribed for a peanut​ reaction, not for hornet stings

A
  1. Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis
1483
Q

23). You respond to a medical call for a​ 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short​ 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on​ nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the​ medication, and​ why? 1. ​Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood​ flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process 2. No, any delay will cause the patient more​ stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility 3. No, any delay will cause the patient more heart​ damage; each delay weakens the myocardium 4. Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood​ flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain

A
  1. ​Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood​ flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process
1484
Q

24). Why should EMTs study​ pharmacology? 1. As an​ EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency​ situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope 2. An EMT must know the​ sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe 3. As an​ EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency​ situations; many of these may be​ lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm 4. An EMT must know the​ manufacturer, sources,​ characteristics, and effects of every medication that the patient may use

A
  1. As an​ EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency​ situations; many of these may be​ lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm
1485
Q

25). Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side​ effects, which​ include: 1. decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate. 2. bronchodilation and decreased heart rate. 3. jitteriness and increased heart rate. 4. vasoconstriction and increased heart rate.

A
  1. jitteriness and increased heart rate.
1486
Q

26). A​ drug’s form refers to which of the​ following? 1. The type of container it comes in 2. Its physical​ state, such as​ powder, liquid, or gas 3. The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug 4. The way in which it is administered

A
  1. Its physical​ state, such as​ powder, liquid, or gas
1487
Q

27). The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to​ patient-specific factors such as age and weight is​ called: 1. pharmacology 2. pharmacodynamics 3. reassessment. 4. measurement and documentation

A
  1. pharmacodynamics
1488
Q

28). You are on the scene of a​ 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the​ medication? 1. Activated charcoal will inactivate the​ patient’s stomach acid 2. Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication 3. Activated charcoal will bind to the​ medication, reducing absorption 4. Activated charcoal will coat the​ intestines, preventing absorption

A
  1. Activated charcoal will bind to the​ medication, reducing absorption
1489
Q

29). Which of the following statements concerning oxygen is true​? 1. Only withhold oxygen from anyone who is allergic to it 2. Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient 3. Never give oxygen to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) 4. Never withhold oxygen from any patient who needs it

A
  1. Never withhold oxygen from any patient who needs it
1490
Q

30). Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols. 1. Written 2. On-line 3. Off-line 4. Verbal

A
  1. Off-line
1491
Q

31). Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding intravenous​ (IV) administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and​ is: 1. given in the field only with respect to blood transfusions. 2. used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated 3. typically only performed in the prehospital environment. 4. beyond the scope of the EMT level.

A
  1. beyond the scope of the EMT level.
1492
Q

32). What is the first step in administering a prescribed aerosol​ medication? 1. Make sure the patient is suffering from​ asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis. 2. Check to make sure the medication is correct 3. Determine that the dose is correct 4. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient

A
  1. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient
1493
Q

33). Nitroglycerin​ (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two​ forms? 1. Aerosol and spray 2. Pills and injectable 3. Ointment and pills 4. Pills and spray

A
  1. Pills and spray
1494
Q

34). Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom you are about to assist with administering​ epinephrine? 1. I am going to inject medication into your thigh 2. Insert the mouthpiece and inhale deeply as you depress the canister 3. Open your mouth and lift your tongue so I can spray this medication under your tongue 4. This is not pleasant​ tasting, but it is important that you drink all of it

A
  1. I am going to inject medication into your thigh
1495
Q

35). Which of the following best describes the five​ rights? 1. Right​ patient, right​ medication, right​ time, right​ dose, right route 2. Right​ patient, right​ medication, in​ date, right​ dose, right route 3. Right​ decision, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right place 4. In​ date, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right time

A
  1. Right​ patient, right​ medication, right​ time, right​ dose, right route
1496
Q

36). You have just administered nitroglycerin to a​ 68-year-old patient. Within a few​ minutes, she complains of feeling faint and​ lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the best sequence of​ actions? 1. Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin 2. Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin 3. Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the​ patient’s blood pressure 4. Lower the head of the stretcher and take the​ patient’s blood pressure

A
  1. Lower the head of the stretcher and take the​ patient’s blood pressure
1497
Q

37). When is a heparin or saline lock used in IV​ administration? 1. When a traditional IV bag is used 2. When medication or IV access might be needed later on 3. When fluid is likely to be administered 4. When IV administration will not involve a vein

A
  1. When medication or IV access might be needed later on
1498
Q

38). Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart​ condition? 1. Ventolin 2. Nitroglycerin 3. Non-aspirin pain relievers such as Tylenol 4. Epinephrine​ auto-injector

A
  1. Nitroglycerin
1499
Q

39). What is the first medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty​ breathing? 1. Oxygen 2. Aspirin 3. Nitroglycerin 4. Albuterol

A
  1. Oxygen
1500
Q

40). Which of the following is a potential side effect of​ nitroglycerin? 1. Decreased blood pressure 2. Sudden increase in heart rate 3. Difficulty breathing 4. All of the above

A
  1. Decreased blood pressure
1501
Q

41). What is the most important medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty​ breathing? 1. Nitroglycerin 2. Oxygen 3. Albuterol 4. Aspirin

A
  1. Aspirin
1502
Q

42). Why would an EMT give aspirin to a​ patient? 1. Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain. 2. It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer 3. Aspirin reduces the​ blood’s ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain 4. Aspirin reduces the​ heart’s ability to beat fast and works to prevent a rapid heart rate

A
  1. Aspirin reduces the​ blood’s ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain
1503
Q

43). How is activated​ charcoal, which is carried by some EMS​ systems, supplied for use in emergency​ situations? 1. As a fine liquid spray for inhalation 2. As a gel or paste 3. As a​ powder, which is mixed with water before administration 4. As tablets

A
  1. As a​ powder, which is mixed with water before administration
1504
Q

44). What condition must be present before you give oral​ glucose? 1. The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes. 2. The​ patient, if​ conscious, must be able to​ swallow; if​ unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. 3. The patient must not have a history of diabetes. 4. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes

A
  1. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes
1505
Q

45). What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called​ hypoxia? 1. Epinephrine 2. Oxygen 3. Aspirin 4. Oral glucose

A
  1. Oxygen
1506
Q

46). Epinephrine delivered by​ auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following​ conditions? 1. Severe allergies to peanut​ butter, shellfish,​ penicillin, or bee stings 2. Chest pain 3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 4. Drug overdose

A
  1. Severe allergies to peanut​ butter, shellfish,​ penicillin, or bee stings
1507
Q

47). When you give patients​ nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called​ a(n): 1. side effect. 2. contraindication 3. indication 4. untoward effect

A
  1. side effect.
1508
Q

48). An EMT is on the scene of a​ 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary​ assessments, the EMT contacts medical control and is ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin.​ Carefully, the EMT performs the​ “five rights” and checks the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the​ patient’s vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because​ the: 1. medication was somehow rendered inert. 2. medication is expired 3. medication is not nitroglycerin 4. EMT only gave one tablet instead of two

A
  1. medication was somehow rendered inert.
1509
Q

49). Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief​ complaints? 1. Decreased level of consciousness 2. Headache 3. Difficulty breathing 4. Chest Pain

A
  1. Chest Pain
1510
Q

ANALGESICS: DRUGS PRESCRIBED FOR PAIN RELIEF

A
  • Acetaminophen (Anacin -3, Panaol, Tempra, Tylenol) - Aspirin (Ecotrin, Emprin) - Ibuprofen (Actiprofen, Advil, Excedrin IS, Motrin, Novoprofen, Nuprin) - Indomethacin (Indocin) - Nalbuphhine (Nubain) - Naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve) **- Morphine (Astramorph PF, Duramorph, MS Contin, Roxanol) **-Codeine **- Oxycodone (OxyContin) - Propoxyphane (Darvon)
1511
Q

ANTIDYSRHYTHMICS: DRUGS PRESCRIBED FOR HEART RHYTHM DISORDERS

A
  • Carvedilol (Coreg) - Digoxin (Lanoxin) - Disopyramide (Norpace) - Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol XL) - Propranolol (Inderal) - Procainamide (Procan SR, Pronestyl) - Verapamil (Calan, Calan SR, Isoptin, Isoptin SR, Verelan)
1512
Q

ANTICONVULSANTS: DRUGS PRESCRIBED FOR PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF SEIZURES

A
  • Carbamazepine (Epitol, Tegretol) - Ethosuximide (Zarontin) - Gabapentin (Neurontin) - Lamotrigine (Lamictal) - Levetiracetam (Keppra) - Phenobarbital (Solfoton) - Phenytoin (Dilantin) - Primidone (Mysoline) - Topiramate (Topamax) - Valproic acid (Depakene)
1513
Q

ANTIHYPERTENSIVES: DRUGS PRESCRIBED TO REDUCE HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE

A
  • amlodipine (Norvasc) - captopril (Capoten) - clonidine (Catapres) - hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril, Oretic) - hydralazine (Apresoline, Hydralazine HCL) - methyldopa (Aldomet) - nifedipine (Adalat, Adalat CC, Procardia) - prazosin (Minipress)
1514
Q

BRONCHODILATORS: DRUGS THAT RELAX THE SMOOTH MUSCLES OF THE BRONCHIAL TUBES. THESE MEDICATIONS PROVIDE RELIEF OF BRONCHIAL ASTHMA AND ALLERGIES AFFECTING THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

A
  • albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin HFA, Volmax) - albuterol/iprattropium (Combivent, DuoNeb) - ipratropium (Atrovent) - levalbuterol (Xopenex) - metaproterenol (Alupent, Metaproterenol sulfate, Metaprel) - montelukast (Singulair) - salmeterol (Serevent) - zafirlukast (Accolate)
1515
Q

ANTIDIABETIC AGENTS: DRUGS PRESCRIBED TO DIABETIC PATIENTS TO CONTROL HYGLYCEMIA (HIGH BLOOD SUGAR)

A
  • glimepiride (Amaryl) - glipizide (Glucotrol) - glyburide (DiBeta, Glynase PresTab, Micronase) - insulin (Humulin, Novolin, NPH, Humalog) - metformin (Glucopage) - rosiglitazone maleate (Avandia)
1516
Q

ANTIDEPRESSANT AGENTS: DRUGS PRESRIBED TO HELP REGULATE THE EMOTIONAL ACTIVITY OF THE PATIENT TO MINIMIZE THE PEAKS AND VALLEYS IN THEIR PSYCHOLOGICAL AND EMOTIONAL STATES

A
  • amitriptyline (Elavil) - amoxapine (Asendin) - bupropion (Wellbutrin) - citalopram (Celexa) - clomipramine (Anafranil) - escitalopram (Lexapro) - fluoxetine (Prozac) - imipramine (Tofranil) - nefazodone (Serzone) - nortriptyline (Aventyl, Pamelor) - paroxetine (Paxil) - protriptyline (Vivactil) - sertraline (Zoloft) - trimipramine (Sumontil) - venlafaxine (Effexor)
1517
Q

BLOOD THINNERS: PRESCRIBED ANTI-COAGULANT AGENTS

A
  • apixaban (Eliquis) - dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) - injected low-molecular weight heparin (Lovenox) - rivaroxaban ((Xarelto) - ticagrelor (Plavix) - warfarin (coumadin)
1518
Q

BLOOD THINNERS: PRESCRIBED ANT-PLATLET AGENTS

A
  • aspirin - clipidogrel (Plavix) - ticagrelor (Brillinta)
1519
Q

The Five (5) Rights

A
  1. Right medication 2. Right dosage 3. Right time of administration 4. Right effects noted 5. Right route administered
1520
Q

Liquids injected in a way that they circumvent going through the GI tract are……

A

Parenteral Examples: Epinephrine auto injector

1521
Q

Liquids taken that go through the GI tract are called:

A

Eternal route Examples are: Cough syrup