CH 39 Hazardous Materials, Multiple Casualty Incident and Incident Management Flashcards

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1
Q

H-1) Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous​ material?
A. Irritates the eyes and respiratory tract
B. Produces pulmonary edema
C. Scalds if heated too high
D. Causes​ self-ignition of cellulose products

A

C. Scalds if heated too high

Water scalds if heated too high and is not a hazardous material. The other effects are​ self-produced by the materials​ themselves, and are the effects of certain hazardous materials.

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2
Q

H-2) A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if​ it:
A. forms toxic hydrochloric acid fumes.
B. is flammable and explosive.
C. forms part of a daily diet.
D. damages the eyes and mucous membranes.

A

C. forms part of a daily diet.

No material that could be part of a daily diet could be a hazardous material. The other effects are hazards produced by various hazardous materials.

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3
Q

H-3) Which of the following best describes the roles of Hazardous Materials​ Specialists?
A. They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities.
B. They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies.
C. They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading.
D. They​ plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.

A

A. They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities.

Hazardous Materials Specialists have advanced knowledge and​ skills, and act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities with regard to site activities.

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4
Q
H-4) Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect​ people, property, and the​ environment?
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist
B. Hazardous Materials Technician
C. First Responder Operations
D. First Responder Awareness
A

C. First Responder Operations

The First Responder Operations level of training is required for those who respond initially to hazardous materials incidents to protect​ life, property, and the environment.

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5
Q
H-5) To identify the exact substance an overturned chemical truck was​ carrying, the EMT would​ consult:
A. the hazardous materials placard.
B. the bill of lading.
C. the safety data sheet.
D. the shipping manifest.
A

B. the bill of lading.

Check​ invoices, bills of lading​ (trucks), and shipping manifests​ (trains). If you can safely obtain​ them, these documents will identify the exact substance being​ transported, the exact​ quantity, its place of​ origin, and its destination.

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6
Q

H-6) You respond to a call for multiple medical patients who all passed out at the same time while working at a chemical processing plant. You strongly suspect a HAZMAT incident. Keeping your distance from the scene of the​ incident, you​ must:
A. look for fumes through binoculars before approaching.
B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation.
C. wait for a HAZMAT team to arrive and assess the situation.
D. approach the scene only from an upwind direction.

A

B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation.

You must make an attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. Until that is​ done, it will be difficult to determine the risk to the​ public, rescuers,​ patients, and the environment. You must try to find out what the substance is and what its properties and dangers might​ be; whether or not there is imminent danger of the contamination​ spreading; what you can​ hear, see, and​ smell; how many patients are​ involved; and if there is any danger of secondary contamination from the patients.

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7
Q
H-7) Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA​ placard?
A. Health
B. Fire
C. Reactivity
D. Specific
A

C. Reactivity

Blue = Health
Red = Fire
White = Specific Hazard
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8
Q

H-8) Division 1.6 of the hazard classification system​ identifies:
A. toxic materials.
B. dangerous wastes.
C. extremely insensitive detonating articles.
D. flammable gases.

A

C. extremely insensitive detonating articles.

Class 1 of the hazard classification system is explosives. Division 1.6 is extremely insensitive detonating articles.

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9
Q

H-9) Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping​ manifests?
A. The temperature at which the material vaporizes
B. The origin of the shipment
C. The specific health hazards of the material
D. The specific gravity of the chemical

A

B. The origin of the shipment

The exact name of the​ substance, the quantity of the​ substance, its​ origin, and its destination are required information on shipping manifests.

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10
Q
H-10) Which of the following is a reference that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT​ emergency?
A. Emergency Response Guidebook
B. Poison control
C. NFPA
D. MSDS
A

A. Emergency Response Guidebook

The North American Emergency Response Guidebook​ (ERG) is a resource that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency.

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11
Q

H-11) Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm​ zone?
A. Decontamination
B. Packaging for transport
C. Debriefing about the nature of the exposure
D. A complete physical examination and history

A

A. Decontamination

Patients must be completely decontaminated before entering the cold​ zone, in order to avoid secondary contamination of​ responders, equipment,​ ambulances, and other personnel.

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12
Q

H-12) Which of the following must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT​ incident?
A. Donning a​ self-contained breathing apparatus
B. Requesting permission from incident command
C. Donning a fresh protective suit
D. Shedding all contaminated clothing

A

D. Shedding all contaminated clothing

Before entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT​ incident, the rescue team that was in the hot zone must be decontaminated and must shed all their contaminated clothing.

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13
Q

H-13) What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or hot zones of a hazardous​ incident?
A. Change into scrubs on arriving at the hospital and place the clothing in hospital laundry
B. ​Red-bag the​ items, and place them in regular hospital biohazard containers
C. Isolate it and label it for disposal
D. On returning to​ station, remove the clothing and launder it in hot water for two cycles

A

C. Isolate it and label it for disposal

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14
Q

H-14) Where is the safest zone to provide medical care of a patient who has been covered with a hazardous​ material?
A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated
B. In the cold zone before the patient has been decontaminated
C. In the warm zone while the patient is being decontaminated
D. In the hot zone before the patient has been decontaminated

A

A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated

The hot zone is the location of the​ danger, the warm zone is where the decontamination corridor is​ located, and the cold zone is a safe location for treatment of patients who have been decontaminated.

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15
Q

H-15) A​ large-scale MCI creates a situation​ that:
A. is routine for EMTs to handle.
B. involves the release of and exposure to hazardous materials.
C. can typically be managed by 23 ambulance units.
D. tests the capabilities of even the​ best-trained EMTs.

A

D. tests the capabilities of even the​ best-trained EMTs

Though the principles of managing​ small- and​ large-scale MCIs are generally the​ same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies.​ Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a​ small-scale MCI pretty well.​ However, experience has shown that even the​ best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude.

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16
Q

H-16) Which of the following statements regarding a​ small-scale MCI that expands into a​ large-scale MCI is most​ accurate?
A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.
B. The EMTs will require authorization from medical control to perform any lifesaving technique they feel is necessary to contain the situation.
C. The EMTs will need to retreat to a staging area until more resources arrive.
D. The EMTs will draw on a completely different set of skills and techniques from anything they would use on a smaller scale.

A

A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.

Though the principles of managing​ small- and​ large-scale MCIs are generally the​ same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies.​ Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a​ small-scale MCI pretty well.​ However, experience has shown that even the​ best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude

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17
Q

H-17) Which of the following is needed for effective response to an​ MCI?
A. Public participation
B. Requesting and managing necessary resources
C. Media coverage
D. ​On-scene physicians

A

B. Requesting and managing necessary resources

Requesting and properly managing adequate resources are required for efficient response to an MCI.

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18
Q

H-18) ​Ideally, on the scene of an​ MCI, those who directly communicate with command should​ be:
A. the EMTs who first arrived on scene.
B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.
C. any newly arriving responders.
D. any personnel involved in triage efforts.

A

B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.

The flow of communications at the scene of a​ large-scale MCI should correspond to the organizational chart being used.​ Accordingly, the only unit talking to the communications center and requesting resources is command. The only ones who talk to command are those directly subordinate to command. All others talk to only the officer or supervisor to whom they are assigned. These mandates should be addressed in your standard operating guidelines.

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19
Q
H-19) EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should​ be:
A. disciplined for shift abandonment.
B. assigned to noncritical patients.
C. treated as patients.
D. sent home immediately.
A

C. treated as patients.

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20
Q
H-20) Which of the following words best describes the attitude EMTs should have when responding to an​ MCI?
A. Fearless
B. Unsympathetic
C. Vigilant
D. Aggressive
A

C. Vigilant

It is important for the responder to be vigilant for unhealthy behaviors brought about by stressful events.

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21
Q

H-21) Surge capacity refers​ to:
A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients.
B. the formula for determining the number of ambulances to dispatch to a given incident.
C. the size of a staging area for a​ large-scale MCI.
D. the second wind EMTs often feel late in the response to an MCI.

A

A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients

Surge capacity is a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. It is dependent on a​ well-functioning incident management system and the variables of​ space, supplies,​ staff, and any special considerations​ (contaminated or contagious​ patients, for​ example).

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22
Q
H-22) The person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ the:
A. staging supervisor.
B. transportation supervisor.
C. incident commander.
D. triage supervisor.
A

B. transportation supervisor.

The transportation supervisor is the person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a​ multiple-casualty incident.

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23
Q

H-23) You are assigned to the triage unit at an​ MCI, and you are going from patient to​ patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the​ process?
A. Splinting fractures
B. Performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations
C. Performing spinal immobilization
D. Opening the airway

A

D. Opening the airway

You must rapidly assess each remaining​ patient, stopping only to secure an airway or stop profuse bleeding. It is important that you not develop​ “tunnel ​vision” - spending time rendering additional care to any one patient and thus failing to identify and correct​ life-threatening conditions of the remaining patients.

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24
Q

H-24) The first triage cut​ involves:
A. identifying the dead or fatally injured.
B. identifying those with serious but not​ life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
C. treating patients with​ life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
D. identifying the walking wounded.

A

D. identifying the walking wounded.

The first triage cut can be done rapidly by using a​ bullhorn, PA​ system, or loud voice to direct all patients capable of walking​ (Priority 3) to move to a particular area. This has a​ two-fold purpose. It quickly identifies the individuals who have an airway and​ circulation, and it physically separates them from patients who will generally need more care.

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25
Q

H-25) Which of the following best describes secondary​ triage?
A. A more​ in-depth, head-to-toe assessment of the patient to better determine the​ patient’s status
B. Going back to patients who were presumed deceased to begin​ resuscitation, as resources allow
C. Taking a full set of vital signs and a comprehensive patient history
D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage​ area, to determine whether a​ patient’s priority should be upgraded or downgraded

A

D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage​ area, to determine whether a​ patient’s priority should be upgraded or downgraded

Secondary triage refers to the process of reassessing findings from primary triage to reclassify the​ patient, if necessary.

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26
Q

H-26) Which of the following statements best explains the difference between primary triage and secondary​ triage?
A. Primary triage assigns a priority number to patients based on severity of​ condition; secondary triage organizes incoming resources to determine which responders are cleared to begin providing care.
B. ​Patients’ conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their​ condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.
C. Primary triage is performed in the field to determine to which hospital to​ transport; secondary triage is performed in the hospital to determine how soon to treat the patient.
D. Primary triage is aimed at detecting immediate life​ threats; secondary triage is aimed at obtaining patient histories.

A

B. ​Patients’ conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their​ condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.

Secondary triage is performed after primary triage to detect any changes in the​ patients’ priority for transport.

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27
Q
H-27) At an​ MCI, which of the following is performed when the EMT first encounters an injured​ patient?
A. Secondary triage
B. Modified secondary assessment
C. Primary triage
D. Modified primary assessment
A

C. Primary triage

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28
Q
H-28) The highest priority for treatment and transport at an MCI are patients who are triaged to which of the following​ categories?
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
A

C. Red

Green = Lowest
Yellow = Severe
Red = Critical
Black = Dead/Dying/Death Imminent
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29
Q

H-29) Which of the following findings would result in a patient at an​ MCI’s being categorized as yellow in START​ triage?
A. Capillary refill​ <2 seconds, unable to follow commands
B. Not​ breathing, but begins breathing once the airway is open
C. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert
D. Absent radial​ pulse, spontaneous breathing

A

C. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert

To be placed in the yellow category in START​ triage, a patient must not have been able to move with the walking wounded and must be breathing fewer than 30 times per​ minute, have a radial pulse or capillary refill less than 2​ seconds, and be alert.

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30
Q

H-30) Which of the following would place a patient as a Priority​ 1, or​ red, during START​ triage?
A. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert
B. Not​ breathing, no pulse
C. Able to walk to a collection point in response to a bullhorn command
D. Respirations​ >30 per​ minute, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status

A

D. Respirations​ >30 per​ minute, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status

Respirations over​ 30, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status are criteria for category​ 1, or red.

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31
Q

H-31) You are​ START-triaging a child who is not breathing. When you have opened the​ airway, the child does not begin breathing. Which of the following is the correct next​ step?
A. Tag the child as​ “black” and move on.
B. Give five rescue breaths.
C. Check the pupils for size and reactivity.
D. Begin chest compressions at a ratio of 30 compressions to two ventilations.

A

A. Tag the child as​ “black” and move on.

In START​ triage, a patient is categorized as​ “black” if, after opening the​ airway, the patient does not begin breathing.

Smaller incidents - a zero could be a 1

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32
Q
H-32) Which of the following best describes the patients who are assigned to the green category in​ triage?
A. Deceased
B. Delayed
C. Minor
D. Immediate
A

C. Minor

The green category is used for patients with minor​ injuries, often referred to as​ “the walking​ wounded.”

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33
Q
H-33) You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you await your assigned​ patient?
A. Base camp
B. Triage
C. Treatment
D. Staging
A

D. Staging

Ambulances wait in the staging area until requested for patient transport.

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34
Q
H-34) Who is responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at an​ MCI?
A. The staging supervisor
B. The incident commander
C. The transportation officer
D. The safety officer
A

A. The staging supervisor

The staging supervisor is responsible for overseeing ambulance operations at an MCI.

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35
Q
PT-1) What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a​ multiple-casualty incident?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 2
D. 3
A

D. 3

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36
Q

PT-2) An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI​ is:
A. telling the patient that despite how it​ looks, everyone at the scene will be okay.
B. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients.
C. asking the patient to consider the possibility the patient is in denial.
D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

A

D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

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37
Q
PT-3) Field decontamination takes place in​ the:
A. hot zone.
B. cold zone.
C. safe zone.
D. warm zone.
A

D. warm zone.

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38
Q

PT-4) What are the three criteria for assessing patients during​ triage?
A. Skin​ condition, pupil​ response, and grip strength
B. Ability to​ walk, cervical spine​ injury, and mental status
C. Ability to​ speak, level of​ orientation, and severity of injuries
D. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

A

D. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

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39
Q

PT-5) Which of the following is a basic principle of​ disaster-preparedness planning?
A. Develop a proposal that requires more resources before planning can begin.
B. Develop a plan that can be activated only by the​ highest-ranking government official.
C. Develop very detailed plans that do not permit deviation from stated guidelines.
D. Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

A

D. Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

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40
Q

PT-6)At what point should transport of the injured begin at an​ MCI?
A. After all​ “minor” patients have been directed to a treatment​ area, to relieve congestion at the scene
B. As soon as the first ambulance arrives
C. After all patients have been triaged
D. After triage has identified​ “immediate” category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

A

D. After triage has identified​ “immediate” category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

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41
Q
PT-7) Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in​ large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and​ meals, and for the rotation of​ crews?
A. Command
B. Transportation
C. Staging
D. Supply
A

C. Staging

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42
Q
PT-8) During triage of a​ 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is​ awake, breathing 28 times per​ minute, has a palpable​ pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this​ patient?
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Red
D. Yellow
A

D. Yellow

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43
Q

PT-9) What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an​ MCI?
A. Treat the EMT as a​ patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest
B. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until the EMT feels better enough to return to duty
C. Review the​ EMT’s performance, to identify what went wrong
D. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients

A

A. Treat the EMT as a​ patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest

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44
Q

PT-10) In which type of incident would unified command be most​ appropriate?
A. An incident that involves only EMS
B. More than three patients at a scene
C. An incident that involves only​ fire/rescue
D. Involvement of different branches of public safety

A

D. Involvement of different branches of public safety

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45
Q

PT-11) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of​ triage?
A. To treat the​ youngest, healthiest patients first
B. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered
C. To find and treat all of one​ patient’s injuries before moving on to the next patient
D. To prioritize patients in an MCI

A

D. To prioritize patients in an MCI

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46
Q

PT-12) When you call an emergency response service or agency regarding hazardous​ materials, which information is LEAST​ relevant?
A. Nature and location of the problem
B. Injuries and exposures
C. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released
D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun

A

D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun

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47
Q
PT-13) Which of the following is the best choice for triage​ supervisor?
A. The oldest EMS provider
B. The​ highest-ranking EMS provider
C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider
D. The senior EMT
A

C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider

Page 1201

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48
Q
PT-14) A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be​ assigned?
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
A

C. Red

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49
Q

PT-15) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a​ multiple-casualty incident?
A. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair
B. A​ high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan
C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail
D. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment

A

C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail

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50
Q

PT-16) Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in​ MCIs?
A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding
B. Applying cervical collars and opening the airway
C. Refraining from providing all treatment
D. Inserting oral or nasal airways and performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations

A

A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding

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51
Q
PT-17) Which of the following is considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials​ incidents?
A. NSA
B. FEMA
C. CHEMTREC
D. DHS
A

C. CHEMTREC

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52
Q
PT-18)  Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually​ present?
A. Hot zone
B. Contamination zone
C. Cold zone
D. Warm zone
A

A. Hot zone

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53
Q
PT-19) At a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following areas is used for triaging​ patients, performing necessary​ treatment, and stabilizing patients before​ transport?
A. Warm zone
B. Cold zone
C. Decon zone
D. Hot zone
A

B. Cold zone

54
Q

PT-20) You arrive at the scene of a potential hazardous materials incident and see several patients lying on the ground next to an overturned truck with what looks like chemicals leaking out of it in all directions. You​ should:
A. take a command position.
B. immediately act to save the patients.
C. approach cautiously.
D. call out to the patients to see if any can leave the area of the accident.

A

A. take a command position.

55
Q
PT-21) All patients leaving the site of a hazardous materials incident should be​ considered:
A. contaminated.
B. ​low-priority.
C. stable.
D. cleared for transport.
A

A. contaminated.

56
Q

PT-22) A hot zone​ is:
A. immediately identifiable with placards.
B. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident.
C. an area where the support functions for an incident response are located.
D. an area where personnel and equipment are decontaminated.

A

B. the area immediately surrounding a HAZMAT incident.

57
Q

PT-23) Which statement best describes the use of the​ “black” category in START​ triage?
A. Patients who have minor injuries and do not need immediate care
B. Patients who refuse treatment
C. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing
D. Patients who have immediate threats to​ life, including rapid​ respirations, poor​ perfusion, and altered mental status

A

C. Patients who are deceased or who are expected to die because they cannot maintain their airway or breathing

58
Q

PT-24) Which of the following best describes the required contents of shipping manifests associated with hazardous​ materials?
A. Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination
B. The levels of​ toxicity, flammability, and reactivity
C. Health​ hazards, flammability​ hazards, explosion​ hazards, and special hazards
D. Route of​ exposure, signs and​ symptoms, classification, and chemical structure

A

A. Name of the​ substance, quantity,​ origin, and destination

59
Q

PT-25) What is the purpose of secondary​ triage?
A. To reevaluate each​ patient’s priority for treatment and transport
B. To conduct a comprehensive examination of all patients
C. To assess patients who were not immediately found in the initial response
D. To perform START triage

A

A. To reevaluate each​ patient’s priority for treatment and transport

60
Q
PT-26) Which of the following is most likely to indicate the presence of released hazardous​ material?
A. A patient who is not breathing
B. Black smoke
C. Sudden irritation of the eyes
D. Fire
A

C. Sudden irritation of the eyes

61
Q
PT-27) What is the highest level of training for HAZMAT incidents under OSHA​ regulations?
A. ​On-Scene Incident Commander
B. First Responder Operations
C. Hazardous Materials Specialist
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A

A. ​On-Scene Incident Commander

62
Q
PT-28) Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704​ placard?
A. Fire hazard
B. Specific hazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazard
A

D. Health hazard

63
Q

PT-29) A responder who has been assigned to decontamination has which of the following​ responsibilities?
A. Being willing to treat patients without wearing PPE that could cause secondary contamination
B. Providing contaminated PPE to responders heading back to the hot zone
C. Treating patients as they are received
D. Performing triage in PPE

A

D. Performing triage in PPE

64
Q

PT-30) Organization for a smaller MCI would​ involve:
A. command and a triage supervisor.
B. treatment and transportation supervisors.
C. aides to the triage supervisor.
D. site operations.

A

A. command and a triage supervisor.

65
Q

PT-31) During START​ triage, you encounter an adult patient who is not breathing. Which of the following actions is the next step you should​ take?
A. Check the​ patient’s pulse.
B. Assign the patient a black tag.
C. Start CPR.
D. Open the airway and reassess breathing.

A

D. Open the airway and reassess breathing.

66
Q
PT-32) A hazardous material incident would be LEAST likely to take​ place:
A. along a railroad.
B. on the highway.
C. in a factory
D. at a school.
A

D. at a school.

67
Q
PT-33) The area in which secondary triage takes place at a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ the:
A. transportation area.
B. warm zone.
C. triage area.
D. treatment area.
A

C. triage area.

68
Q
PT-34) In addition to toxicity and​ flammability, which of the following is among the harmful properties of hazardous​ materials?
A. Instability
B. Reactivity
C. Conversion
D. Solubility
A

B. Reactivity

69
Q
PT-35) Which of the following HAZMAT training levels requires at least 24 hours of​ training?
A. First Responder Awareness
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Operations
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A

D. Hazardous Materials Technician

70
Q

PT-36) You are directed to establish a rehab area at a HAZMAT incident. You know that this area must​ be:
A. at least a quarter of a mile from the hot zone.
B. established within the warm zone.
C. away from the media and the public.
D. easily accessible to EMS units.

A

D. easily accessible to EMS units.

71
Q
CT-1) You are on the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage​ officer, you have encountered a​ 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal​ stimuli, and he has an open​ airway, shallow rapid​ breathing, and a​ weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for treatment and transport.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
A

B. 1

72
Q
CT-2) When transporting patients from the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving​ hospital?
A. Transporting EMT
B. Incident commander
C. Triage officer
D. Transportation supervisor
A

D. Transportation supervisor

73
Q

CT-3) When responding to a​ multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the​ following?
A. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance
B. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
C. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient
D. Keeping a log of all patients transported

A

B. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer

74
Q

CT-4) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment​ (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic​ parameters?
A. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status
B. ​Respiration, pain, and mental status
C. ​Respiration, sensory, and motor status
D. ​Circulation, sensory, and motor status

A

A. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

75
Q

CT-5) Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the​ “safe or cold​ zone” in a hazardous materials​ incident?
A. ​Downwind, downhill from the spill
B. ​Downwind, uphill from the spill
C. ​Upwind, uphill from the spill
D. ​Upwind, on the same level as the spill

A

D. ​Upwind, on the same level as the spill

76
Q

CT-6) As it pertains to hazardous​ materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers​ to:
A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
B. ensure there is at least one person​ on-site trained at the technician level.
C. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
D. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises

A

A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

77
Q

CT-7) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this​ scenario:
Patient​ #3 is a​ 38-year-old female with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 0, pulse​ 0, and nonresponsive.
A. Priority​ 3, green tag
B. Priority​ 1, red tag
C. Priority​ 4, black tag
D. Priority​ 2, yellow tag

A

C. Priority​ 4, black tag

78
Q

CT-8) Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also​ be:
A. ​written, realistic, and rehearsed.
B. well​ publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
C. well​ publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
D. ​written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.

A

C. well​ publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.

Written
Well Publicized
Multi-Jurisdictional
Rehearsed

79
Q
CT-9) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials​ emergencies?
A. NAEMT and NHTSA
B. OSHA and EPA
C. DOT and FCC
D. NHTSA and NRC
A

B. OSHA and EPA

80
Q

CT-10) You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the​ scene, you​ should:
A. recognize a HAZMAT​ incident, dress in a Tyvek​ suit, secure the scene by limiting​ access, isolate the possible contaminated from the​ noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
B. recognize a HAZMAT​ incident, secure the scene by limiting​ access, isolate the possible contaminated from the​ noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.
C. secure the scene​ quickly, triage each​ patient, and move to fresh air.
D. recognize a HAZMAT​ incident, dress in a Tyvek​ suit, access the scene to identify the spilled​ product, secure the MSDS​ sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.

A

B. recognize a HAZMAT​ incident, secure the scene by limiting​ access, isolate the possible contaminated from the​ noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response.

81
Q

CT-11) You are beginning triage at the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do​ first?
A. Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.
B. Identify all Priority 1 patients.
C. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.
D. Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

A

C. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

82
Q

CT-12) EMS operations generally include which six​ areas?
A. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Treatment,​ Transportation, and Rehabilitation
B. ​Extrication, Operations,​ Logistics, Triage,​ Finance, and Transportation
C. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Logistics, Triage,​ Operations, and Transportation
D. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Air​ operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation

A

A. ​Extrication, Staging,​ Triage, Treatment,​ Transportation, and Rehabilitation

83
Q

CT-13) Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident​ Command?
A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
B. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.
C. ​Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.
D. None of the above

A

A. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.

(Page 1194 “manageable span of control to be between 3-7 people)

84
Q

CT-14) Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials​ emergency?
A. Requesting special resources to respond
B. Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
C. Establishing a safe zone
D. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

A

D. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

85
Q

CT-15) You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking​ lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this​ point?
A. Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients.
B. Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties.
C. Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.
D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

A

D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

86
Q
CT-16) When several agencies work independently but​ cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the​ others, this is​ called:
A. ICS.
B. NIMS.
C. single incident command.
D. unified command.
A

D. unified command.

87
Q
CT-17) ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control​ is:
A. 12 people.
B. 24 people.
C. 18 people.
D. 7 people.
A

D. 7 people.

88
Q
CT-18) In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials​ emergencies?
A. Farm service agencies
B. Manufacturing industries
C. Shipping ports
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

89
Q
CT-19) What is the process that removes the biological​ (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their​ toxins?
A. Emulsification
B. Dilution
C. Absorption
D. Disinfection
A

D. Disinfection

90
Q

CT-20) When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following techniques should be​ used?
A. Scrubbing with a​ long-handled brush
B. Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar
C. Using a high pressure water jet system
D. Taking a​ low-pressure decontamination shower

A

D. Taking a​ low-pressure decontamination shower

91
Q

CT-21) Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation area in a hazardous materials​ incident?
A. Providing for hydration of rescue crews
B. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews
C. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

92
Q
CT-22) ​\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the response​ agency, established in​ Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material.
A. CHEMTREC
B. OSHA
C. ERG
D. EPA
A

A. CHEMTREC

93
Q

CT-23) Which of the following should be considered during the scene​ size-up of a hazardous materials​ emergency?
A. Identification of the substance
B. The properties and potential dangers of the substance
C. Potential for spread of the substance
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

94
Q
CT-24) Who is the person in charge of tracking the​ patient's final​ destination?
A. Staging officer
B. Treatment officer
C. Transportation supervisor
D. Incident Commander
A

C. Transportation supervisor

95
Q

CT-25) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this​ scenario:
Patient​ #5 is a​ 17-year-old male with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 18, pulse​ 104, alert,​ crying, and wanting his​ mother; he is ambulatory.
A. Priority​ 1, red tag
B. Priority​ 3, green tag
C. Priority​ 2, yellow tag
D. Priority​ 4, black tag

A

B. Priority​ 3, green tag

96
Q

CT-26) You are just leaving the scene of a​ multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding​ communication?
A. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
B. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.
C. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the​ patients’ injuries.
D. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the​ patients’ injuries.

A

A. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.

97
Q

CT-27) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this​ scenario:
Patient​ #2 is an​ 8-year-old male with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 22, pulse​ 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.
A. Priority​ 4, black tag
B. Priority​ 1, red tag
C. Priority​ 2, yellow tag
D. Priority​ 3, green tag

A

D. Priority​ 3, green tag

98
Q

CT-28) Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster​ plan?
A. It is specific to the geographical location.
B. It has been practiced in mock disasters.
C. It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

99
Q

CT-29) You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to​ vehicles, broken​ windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the best method of incident​ command?
A. Single incident command by EMS
B. Single incident command by law enforcement
C. Unified command by​ police, fire, and EMS
D. Single incident command by fire service

A

C. Unified command by​ police, fire, and EMS

100
Q
CT-30) What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work​ site?
A. Shipping manifest
B. Placard
C. Bill of lading
D. Safety Data Sheets
A

D. Safety Data Sheets

101
Q

CT-31) You are on the scene of a church bus​ roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage​ officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest​ priority?
A. Unresponsive​ 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest
B. ​35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her​ head, neck​ pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms
C. ​30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is​ awake, has a strong radial​ pulse, and is complaining of severe pain
D. ​70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side

A

D. ​70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side

102
Q

CT-32) Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials​ incident?
A. It is located in the warm zone.
B. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.
C. It is protected from weather elements.
D. It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation.

A

A. It is located in the warm zone.

103
Q
CT-33) An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for​ a:
A. treatment zone.
B. safe zone.
C. hot zone.
D. danger zone.
A

B. safe zone.

104
Q
CT-34) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials​ emergency?
A. Rehabilitating the HAZMAT team
B. Decontaminating injured victims
C. Treating injured patients
D. Staying in the cold zone
A

B. Decontaminating injured victims

105
Q
CT-35) You are an EMT on the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus​ roll-over. Incident Command has been established and​ EMS, law​ enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about​ this?
A. EMS officer
B. Incident Commander
C. Dispatch
D. Rescue officer
A

A. EMS officer

106
Q

CT-36) What constitutes a​ multiple-casualty incident​ (MCI)?
A. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources
B. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires​ federal, state, and local response
C. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
D. Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

A

C. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

107
Q
CT-37) Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his​ job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a HAZMAT response.​ Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level.
A. First Responder Awareness
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. First Responder Operations
A

A. First Responder Awareness

108
Q
CT-38) Where is the decontamination corridor located where​ patients, personnel, and equipment are​ decontaminated?
A. Cold zone
B. Warm zone
C. Hot zone
D. Cool zone
A

B. Warm zone

109
Q

CT-39) Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials​ incident?
A. Medical protocols
B. Medical dictionary
C. Emergency Response Guidebook
D. Food and Drug Administration​ (FDA) toll-free hotline

A

C. Emergency Response Guidebook

110
Q
CT-40) Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe.​ Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A

A. First Responder Operations

111
Q
CT-41) Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous​ materials?
A. Emulsification
B. Disposal
C. Disinfection
D. Deodorization
A

D. Deodorization

112
Q

CT-42) Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials​ emergency?
A. Structural firefighting gear
B. HEPA mask
C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
D. Chemical permeable gloves

A

C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

113
Q

CT-43) At​ 0330, you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is​ carrying?
A. Environmental Protection Agency​ (EPA)
B. ​CHEM-TEL
C. Regional poison control center
D. CHEMTREC

A

D. CHEMTREC

114
Q
CT-44) Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are​ called:
A. panels.
B. placards.
C. warnings.
D. indicators.
A

B. placards.

115
Q

CT-45) Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous​ material?
A. Checking the safety data sheet
B. Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container
C. Asking the driver of the​ tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident
D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

A

D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

116
Q
CT-46) In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident?
A. Hot zone
B. Cold zone
C. Warm zone
D. Ground zero
A

B. Cold zone

117
Q

CT-47) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this​ scenario:
Patient​ #4 is a​ 13-year-old female with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 8, pulse​ 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.
A. Priority​ 3, green tag
B. Priority​ 1, red tag
C. Priority​ 4, black tag
D. Priority​ 2, yellow tag

A

B. Priority​ 1, red tag

118
Q

CT-48) When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials​ incident, which of the following information is important to​ provide?
A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved
B. Your level of EMS certification
C. Your background in chemistry
D. Both A and B

A

A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved

119
Q
CT-49) Which of the following is the most common type of​ multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond​ to?
A. Structure fires
B. Automobile collisions
C. Outbreaks of influenza
D. Hazardous materials incidents
A

B. Automobile collisions

120
Q
CT-50) The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior​ official?
A. Transportation supervisor
B. Triage supervisor
C. Incident Command of the scene
D. Commander of the entire incident
A

C. Incident Command of the scene

121
Q
CT-51) You are in charge of your​ department's personnel at the scene of a​ mass-casualty incident. As the incident​ progresses, you request additional​ resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this​ department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command​ post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known​ as:
A. redundant command.
B. dual command.
C. unified command.
D. incident command.
A

C. unified command.

122
Q
CT-52) With START​ triage, when you arrive on the​ scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized​ as:
A. yellow tagged.
B. red tagged.
C. Priority 3 walking wounded.
D. Priority 4 walking wounded.
A

C. Priority 3 walking wounded.

123
Q
CT-53) To respond to a hazardous materials​ incident, the EMT should be trained at which​ level?
A. Technician
B. Awareness
C. Specialist
D. Operations
A

B. Awareness

124
Q

CT-54) You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this​ scenario:
Patient​ #1 is a​ 16-year-old female with the following vital​ signs: respirations​ 28, pulse​ 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.
A. Priority​ 1, red tag
B. Priority​ 4, black tag
C. Priority​ 3, green tag
D. Priority​ 2, yellow tag

A

A. Priority​ 1, red tag

125
Q
CT-55) Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ patient.
A. Priority 2
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 0
A

C. Priority 3

126
Q
CT-56) Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who is not breathing​ initially, but begins breathing when the airway is​ open, is deemed a​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ patient.
A. Priority 2
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 3
D. Priority 0
A

B. Priority 1

127
Q
CT-57) Using START triage​ guidelines, a patient on the scene of a​ mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ patient.
A. Priority 3
B. Priority 1
C. Priority 0
D. Priority 2
A

C. Priority 0

128
Q
CT-58) Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum.​ Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Specialist
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Technician
A

D. Hazardous Materials Technician

129
Q

CT-59) Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed​ to, and contaminated​ by, a hazardous​ material?
A. Wearing heavy cloth gloves
B. Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water
C. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards
D. Wearing a​ gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination

A

C. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards

130
Q
CT-60) Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined​ EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident, she acts as a liaison with​ federal, state, and local authorities.​ Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level.
A. First Responder Operations
B. Hazardous Materials Technician
C. First Responder Awareness
D. Hazardous Materials Specialist
A

D. Hazardous Materials Specialist