Question 1

H-1) Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous​ material? A. Irritates the eyes and respiratory tract B. Produces pulmonary edema C. Scalds if heated too high D. Causes​ self-ignition of cellulose products

Accepted Answer

C. Scalds if heated too high Water scalds if heated too high and is not a hazardous material. The other effects are​ self-produced by the materials​ themselves, and are the effects of certain hazardous materials.

Question 2

H-2) A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if​ it: A. forms toxic hydrochloric acid fumes. B. is flammable and explosive. C. forms part of a daily diet. D. damages the eyes and mucous membranes.

Accepted Answer

C. forms part of a daily diet. No material that could be part of a daily diet could be a hazardous material. The other effects are hazards produced by various hazardous materials.

Question 3

H-3) Which of the following best describes the roles of Hazardous Materials​ Specialists? A. They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities. B. They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies. C. They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading. D. They​ plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.

Accepted Answer

A. They act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities. Hazardous Materials Specialists have advanced knowledge and​ skills, and act as a liaison with​ federal, state,​ local, and other government authorities with regard to site activities.

Question 4

``` H-4) Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect​ people, property, and the​ environment? A. Hazardous Materials Specialist B. Hazardous Materials Technician C. First Responder Operations D. First Responder Awareness ```

Accepted Answer

C. First Responder Operations The First Responder Operations level of training is required for those who respond initially to hazardous materials incidents to protect​ life, property, and the environment.

Question 5

``` H-5) To identify the exact substance an overturned chemical truck was​ carrying, the EMT would​ consult: A. the hazardous materials placard. B. the bill of lading. C. the safety data sheet. D. the shipping manifest. ```

Accepted Answer

B. the bill of lading. Check​ invoices, bills of lading​ (trucks), and shipping manifests​ (trains). If you can safely obtain​ them, these documents will identify the exact substance being​ transported, the exact​ quantity, its place of​ origin, and its destination.

Question 6

H-6) You respond to a call for multiple medical patients who all passed out at the same time while working at a chemical processing plant. You strongly suspect a HAZMAT incident. Keeping your distance from the scene of the​ incident, you​ must: A. look for fumes through binoculars before approaching. B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. C. wait for a HAZMAT team to arrive and assess the situation. D. approach the scene only from an upwind direction.

Accepted Answer

B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. You must make an attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. Until that is​ done, it will be difficult to determine the risk to the​ public, rescuers,​ patients, and the environment. You must try to find out what the substance is and what its properties and dangers might​ be; whether or not there is imminent danger of the contamination​ spreading; what you can​ hear, see, and​ smell; how many patients are​ involved; and if there is any danger of secondary contamination from the patients.

Question 7

``` H-7) Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA​ placard? A. Health B. Fire C. Reactivity D. Specific ```

Accepted Answer

C. Reactivity ``` Blue = Health Red = Fire White = Specific Hazard ```

Question 8

H-8) Division 1.6 of the hazard classification system​ identifies: A. toxic materials. B. dangerous wastes. C. extremely insensitive detonating articles. D. flammable gases.

Accepted Answer

C. extremely insensitive detonating articles. Class 1 of the hazard classification system is explosives. Division 1.6 is extremely insensitive detonating articles.

Question 9

H-9) Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping​ manifests? A. The temperature at which the material vaporizes B. The origin of the shipment C. The specific health hazards of the material D. The specific gravity of the chemical

Accepted Answer

B. The origin of the shipment The exact name of the​ substance, the quantity of the​ substance, its​ origin, and its destination are required information on shipping manifests.

Question 10

``` H-10) Which of the following is a reference that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT​ emergency? A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Poison control C. NFPA D. MSDS ```

Accepted Answer

A. Emergency Response Guidebook The North American Emergency Response Guidebook​ (ERG) is a resource that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency.

Question 11

H-11) Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm​ zone? A. Decontamination B. Packaging for transport C. Debriefing about the nature of the exposure D. A complete physical examination and history

Accepted Answer

A. Decontamination Patients must be completely decontaminated before entering the cold​ zone, in order to avoid secondary contamination of​ responders, equipment,​ ambulances, and other personnel.

Question 12

H-12) Which of the following must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT​ incident? A. Donning a​ self-contained breathing apparatus B. Requesting permission from incident command C. Donning a fresh protective suit D. Shedding all contaminated clothing

Accepted Answer

D. Shedding all contaminated clothing Before entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT​ incident, the rescue team that was in the hot zone must be decontaminated and must shed all their contaminated clothing.

Question 13

H-13) What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or hot zones of a hazardous​ incident? A. Change into scrubs on arriving at the hospital and place the clothing in hospital laundry B. ​Red-bag the​ items, and place them in regular hospital biohazard containers C. Isolate it and label it for disposal D. On returning to​ station, remove the clothing and launder it in hot water for two cycles

Accepted Answer

C. Isolate it and label it for disposal

Question 14

H-14) Where is the safest zone to provide medical care of a patient who has been covered with a hazardous​ material? A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated B. In the cold zone before the patient has been decontaminated C. In the warm zone while the patient is being decontaminated D. In the hot zone before the patient has been decontaminated

Accepted Answer

A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated The hot zone is the location of the​ danger, the warm zone is where the decontamination corridor is​ located, and the cold zone is a safe location for treatment of patients who have been decontaminated.

Question 15

H-15) A​ large-scale MCI creates a situation​ that: A. is routine for EMTs to handle. B. involves the release of and exposure to hazardous materials. C. can typically be managed by 23 ambulance units. D. tests the capabilities of even the​ best-trained EMTs.

Accepted Answer

D. tests the capabilities of even the​ best-trained EMTs Though the principles of managing​ small- and​ large-scale MCIs are generally the​ same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies.​ Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a​ small-scale MCI pretty well.​ However, experience has shown that even the​ best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude.

Question 16

H-16) Which of the following statements regarding a​ small-scale MCI that expands into a​ large-scale MCI is most​ accurate? A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe. B. The EMTs will require authorization from medical control to perform any lifesaving technique they feel is necessary to contain the situation. C. The EMTs will need to retreat to a staging area until more resources arrive. D. The EMTs will draw on a completely different set of skills and techniques from anything they would use on a smaller scale.

Accepted Answer

A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe. Though the principles of managing​ small- and​ large-scale MCIs are generally the​ same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies.​ Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a​ small-scale MCI pretty well.​ However, experience has shown that even the​ best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude

Question 17

H-17) Which of the following is needed for effective response to an​ MCI? A. Public participation B. Requesting and managing necessary resources C. Media coverage D. ​On-scene physicians

Accepted Answer

B. Requesting and managing necessary resources Requesting and properly managing adequate resources are required for efficient response to an MCI.

Question 18

H-18) ​Ideally, on the scene of an​ MCI, those who directly communicate with command should​ be: A. the EMTs who first arrived on scene. B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command. C. any newly arriving responders. D. any personnel involved in triage efforts.

Accepted Answer

B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command. The flow of communications at the scene of a​ large-scale MCI should correspond to the organizational chart being used.​ Accordingly, the only unit talking to the communications center and requesting resources is command. The only ones who talk to command are those directly subordinate to command. All others talk to only the officer or supervisor to whom they are assigned. These mandates should be addressed in your standard operating guidelines.

Question 19

``` H-19) EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should​ be: A. disciplined for shift abandonment. B. assigned to noncritical patients. C. treated as patients. D. sent home immediately. ```

Accepted Answer

C. treated as patients.

Question 20

``` H-20) Which of the following words best describes the attitude EMTs should have when responding to an​ MCI? A. Fearless B. Unsympathetic C. Vigilant D. Aggressive ```

Accepted Answer

C. Vigilant It is important for the responder to be vigilant for unhealthy behaviors brought about by stressful events.

Question 21

H-21) Surge capacity refers​ to: A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. B. the formula for determining the number of ambulances to dispatch to a given incident. C. the size of a staging area for a​ large-scale MCI. D. the second wind EMTs often feel late in the response to an MCI.

Accepted Answer

A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients Surge capacity is a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. It is dependent on a​ well-functioning incident management system and the variables of​ space, supplies,​ staff, and any special considerations​ (contaminated or contagious​ patients, for​ example).

Question 22

``` H-22) The person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a​ multiple-casualty incident is​ the: A. staging supervisor. B. transportation supervisor. C. incident commander. D. triage supervisor. ```

Accepted Answer

B. transportation supervisor. The transportation supervisor is the person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a​ multiple-casualty incident.

Question 23

H-23) You are assigned to the triage unit at an​ MCI, and you are going from patient to​ patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the​ process? A. Splinting fractures B. Performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations C. Performing spinal immobilization D. Opening the airway

Accepted Answer

D. Opening the airway You must rapidly assess each remaining​ patient, stopping only to secure an airway or stop profuse bleeding. It is important that you not develop​ "tunnel ​vision" - spending time rendering additional care to any one patient and thus failing to identify and correct​ life-threatening conditions of the remaining patients.

Question 24

H-24) The first triage cut​ involves: A. identifying the dead or fatally injured. B. identifying those with serious but not​ life-threatening illnesses or injuries. C. treating patients with​ life-threatening illnesses or injuries. D. identifying the walking wounded.

Accepted Answer

D. identifying the walking wounded. The first triage cut can be done rapidly by using a​ bullhorn, PA​ system, or loud voice to direct all patients capable of walking​ (Priority 3) to move to a particular area. This has a​ two-fold purpose. It quickly identifies the individuals who have an airway and​ circulation, and it physically separates them from patients who will generally need more care.

Question 25

H-25) Which of the following best describes secondary​ triage? A. A more​ in-depth, head-to-toe assessment of the patient to better determine the​ patient's status B. Going back to patients who were presumed deceased to begin​ resuscitation, as resources allow C. Taking a full set of vital signs and a comprehensive patient history D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage​ area, to determine whether a​ patient's priority should be upgraded or downgraded

Accepted Answer

D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage​ area, to determine whether a​ patient's priority should be upgraded or downgraded Secondary triage refers to the process of reassessing findings from primary triage to reclassify the​ patient, if necessary.

Question 26

H-26) Which of the following statements best explains the difference between primary triage and secondary​ triage? A. Primary triage assigns a priority number to patients based on severity of​ condition; secondary triage organizes incoming resources to determine which responders are cleared to begin providing care. B. ​Patients' conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their​ condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage. C. Primary triage is performed in the field to determine to which hospital to​ transport; secondary triage is performed in the hospital to determine how soon to treat the patient. D. Primary triage is aimed at detecting immediate life​ threats; secondary triage is aimed at obtaining patient histories.

Accepted Answer

B. ​Patients' conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their​ condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage. Secondary triage is performed after primary triage to detect any changes in the​ patients' priority for transport.

Question 27

``` H-27) At an​ MCI, which of the following is performed when the EMT first encounters an injured​ patient? A. Secondary triage B. Modified secondary assessment C. Primary triage D. Modified primary assessment ```

Accepted Answer

C. Primary triage

Question 28

``` H-28) The highest priority for treatment and transport at an MCI are patients who are triaged to which of the following​ categories? A. Black B. Green C. Red D. Yellow ```

Accepted Answer

C. Red ``` Green = Lowest Yellow = Severe Red = Critical Black = Dead/Dying/Death Imminent ```

Question 29

H-29) Which of the following findings would result in a patient at an​ MCI's being categorized as yellow in START​ triage? A. Capillary refill​ <2 seconds, unable to follow commands B. Not​ breathing, but begins breathing once the airway is open C. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert D. Absent radial​ pulse, spontaneous breathing

Accepted Answer

C. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert To be placed in the yellow category in START​ triage, a patient must not have been able to move with the walking wounded and must be breathing fewer than 30 times per​ minute, have a radial pulse or capillary refill less than 2​ seconds, and be alert.

Question 30

H-30) Which of the following would place a patient as a Priority​ 1, or​ red, during START​ triage? A. Breathing​ <30 times per​ minute, radial pulse​ present, alert B. Not​ breathing, no pulse C. Able to walk to a collection point in response to a bullhorn command D. Respirations​ >30 per​ minute, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status

Accepted Answer

D. Respirations​ >30 per​ minute, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status Respirations over​ 30, absent radial​ pulse, and altered mental status are criteria for category​ 1, or red.

Question 31

H-31) You are​ START-triaging a child who is not breathing. When you have opened the​ airway, the child does not begin breathing. Which of the following is the correct next​ step? A. Tag the child as​ "black" and move on. B. Give five rescue breaths. C. Check the pupils for size and reactivity. D. Begin chest compressions at a ratio of 30 compressions to two ventilations.

Accepted Answer

A. Tag the child as​ "black" and move on. In START​ triage, a patient is categorized as​ "black" if, after opening the​ airway, the patient does not begin breathing. Smaller incidents - a zero could be a 1

Question 32

``` H-32) Which of the following best describes the patients who are assigned to the green category in​ triage? A. Deceased B. Delayed C. Minor D. Immediate ```

Accepted Answer

C. Minor The green category is used for patients with minor​ injuries, often referred to as​ "the walking​ wounded."

Question 33

``` H-33) You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you await your assigned​ patient? A. Base camp B. Triage C. Treatment D. Staging ```

Accepted Answer

D. Staging Ambulances wait in the staging area until requested for patient transport.

Question 34

``` H-34) Who is responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at an​ MCI? A. The staging supervisor B. The incident commander C. The transportation officer D. The safety officer ```

Accepted Answer

A. The staging supervisor The staging supervisor is responsible for overseeing ambulance operations at an MCI.

Question 35

``` PT-1) What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. 15 B. 10 C. 2 D. 3 ```

Accepted Answer

D. 3

Question 36

PT-2) An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI​ is: A. telling the patient that despite how it​ looks, everyone at the scene will be okay. B. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients. C. asking the patient to consider the possibility the patient is in denial. D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

Accepted Answer

D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.

Question 37

``` PT-3) Field decontamination takes place in​ the: A. hot zone. B. cold zone. C. safe zone. D. warm zone. ```

Accepted Answer

D. warm zone.

Question 38

PT-4) What are the three criteria for assessing patients during​ triage? A. Skin​ condition, pupil​ response, and grip strength B. Ability to​ walk, cervical spine​ injury, and mental status C. Ability to​ speak, level of​ orientation, and severity of injuries D. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Accepted Answer

D. ​Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Question 39

PT-5) Which of the following is a basic principle of​ disaster-preparedness planning? A. Develop a proposal that requires more resources before planning can begin. B. Develop a plan that can be activated only by the​ highest-ranking government official. C. Develop very detailed plans that do not permit deviation from stated guidelines. D. Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

Accepted Answer

D. Prepare a plan that is​ specific, practical, and​ well-understood.

Question 40

PT-6)At what point should transport of the injured begin at an​ MCI? A. After all​ "minor" patients have been directed to a treatment​ area, to relieve congestion at the scene B. As soon as the first ambulance arrives C. After all patients have been triaged D. After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

Accepted Answer

D. After triage has identified​ "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

Question 41

``` PT-7) Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in​ large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and​ meals, and for the rotation of​ crews? A. Command B. Transportation C. Staging D. Supply ```

Accepted Answer

C. Staging

Question 42

``` PT-8) During triage of a​ 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is​ awake, breathing 28 times per​ minute, has a palpable​ pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this​ patient? A. Green B. Orange C. Red D. Yellow ```

Accepted Answer

D. Yellow

Question 43

PT-9) What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an​ MCI? A. Treat the EMT as a​ patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest B. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until the EMT feels better enough to return to duty C. Review the​ EMT's performance, to identify what went wrong D. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients

Accepted Answer

A. Treat the EMT as a​ patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest

Question 44

PT-10) In which type of incident would unified command be most​ appropriate? A. An incident that involves only EMS B. More than three patients at a scene C. An incident that involves only​ fire/rescue D. Involvement of different branches of public safety

Accepted Answer

D. Involvement of different branches of public safety

Question 45

PT-11) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of​ triage? A. To treat the​ youngest, healthiest patients first B. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered C. To find and treat all of one​ patient's injuries before moving on to the next patient D. To prioritize patients in an MCI

Accepted Answer

D. To prioritize patients in an MCI

Question 46

PT-12) When you call an emergency response service or agency regarding hazardous​ materials, which information is LEAST​ relevant? A. Nature and location of the problem B. Injuries and exposures C. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun

Accepted Answer

D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun

Question 47

``` PT-13) Which of the following is the best choice for triage​ supervisor? A. The oldest EMS provider B. The​ highest-ranking EMS provider C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider D. The senior EMT ```

Accepted Answer

C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider Page 1201

Question 48

``` PT-14) A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be​ assigned? A. Black B. Green C. Red D. Yellow ```

Accepted Answer

C. Red

Question 49

PT-15) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a​ multiple-casualty incident? A. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair B. A​ high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail D. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment

Accepted Answer

C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail

Question 50

PT-16) Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in​ MCIs? A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding B. Applying cervical collars and opening the airway C. Refraining from providing all treatment D. Inserting oral or nasal airways and performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations

Accepted Answer

A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding

Question 51

``` PT-17) Which of the following is considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials​ incidents? A. NSA B. FEMA C. CHEMTREC D. DHS ```

Accepted Answer

C. CHEMTREC

Question 52

``` PT-18) Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually​ present? A. Hot zone B. Contamination zone C. Cold zone D. Warm zone ```

Accepted Answer

A. Hot zone

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CH 39 Hazardous Materials, Multiple Casualty Incident and Incident Management Flashcards

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