CH 39 Hazardous Materials, Multiple Casualty Incident and Incident Management Flashcards
H-1) Which of the following is LEAST likely an effect of a hazardous material?
A. Irritates the eyes and respiratory tract
B. Produces pulmonary edema
C. Scalds if heated too high
D. Causes self-ignition of cellulose products
C. Scalds if heated too high
Water scalds if heated too high and is not a hazardous material. The other effects are self-produced by the materials themselves, and are the effects of certain hazardous materials.
H-2) A substance is LEAST likely to be a hazardous material if it:
A. forms toxic hydrochloric acid fumes.
B. is flammable and explosive.
C. forms part of a daily diet.
D. damages the eyes and mucous membranes.
C. forms part of a daily diet.
No material that could be part of a daily diet could be a hazardous material. The other effects are hazards produced by various hazardous materials.
H-3) Which of the following best describes the roles of Hazardous Materials Specialists?
A. They act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities.
B. They are trained to recognize a problem and notify the appropriate agencies.
C. They keep at a safe distance and help to stop the emergency from spreading.
D. They plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material.
A. They act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities.
Hazardous Materials Specialists have advanced knowledge and skills, and act as a liaison with federal, state, local, and other government authorities with regard to site activities.
H-4) Which level of training is required for hazardous materials responders who are first on the scene to protect people, property, and the environment? A. Hazardous Materials Specialist B. Hazardous Materials Technician C. First Responder Operations D. First Responder Awareness
C. First Responder Operations
The First Responder Operations level of training is required for those who respond initially to hazardous materials incidents to protect life, property, and the environment.
H-5) To identify the exact substance an overturned chemical truck was carrying, the EMT would consult: A. the hazardous materials placard. B. the bill of lading. C. the safety data sheet. D. the shipping manifest.
B. the bill of lading.
Check invoices, bills of lading (trucks), and shipping manifests (trains). If you can safely obtain them, these documents will identify the exact substance being transported, the exact quantity, its place of origin, and its destination.
H-6) You respond to a call for multiple medical patients who all passed out at the same time while working at a chemical processing plant. You strongly suspect a HAZMAT incident. Keeping your distance from the scene of the incident, you must:
A. look for fumes through binoculars before approaching.
B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation.
C. wait for a HAZMAT team to arrive and assess the situation.
D. approach the scene only from an upwind direction.
B. attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation.
You must make an attempt to identify the hazardous material and assess the severity of the situation. Until that is done, it will be difficult to determine the risk to the public, rescuers, patients, and the environment. You must try to find out what the substance is and what its properties and dangers might be; whether or not there is imminent danger of the contamination spreading; what you can hear, see, and smell; how many patients are involved; and if there is any danger of secondary contamination from the patients.
H-7) Which of the following hazards is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA placard? A. Health B. Fire C. Reactivity D. Specific
C. Reactivity
Blue = Health Red = Fire White = Specific Hazard
H-8) Division 1.6 of the hazard classification system identifies:
A. toxic materials.
B. dangerous wastes.
C. extremely insensitive detonating articles.
D. flammable gases.
C. extremely insensitive detonating articles.
Class 1 of the hazard classification system is explosives. Division 1.6 is extremely insensitive detonating articles.
H-9) Which of the following must be identified in hazardous materials shipping manifests?
A. The temperature at which the material vaporizes
B. The origin of the shipment
C. The specific health hazards of the material
D. The specific gravity of the chemical
B. The origin of the shipment
The exact name of the substance, the quantity of the substance, its origin, and its destination are required information on shipping manifests.
H-10) Which of the following is a reference that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency? A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Poison control C. NFPA D. MSDS
A. Emergency Response Guidebook
The North American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a resource that provides the names of chemicals and concise but thorough descriptions of the actions that should be taken in case of a HAZMAT emergency.
H-11) Which of the following tasks must be accomplished before a patient can leave the warm zone?
A. Decontamination
B. Packaging for transport
C. Debriefing about the nature of the exposure
D. A complete physical examination and history
A. Decontamination
Patients must be completely decontaminated before entering the cold zone, in order to avoid secondary contamination of responders, equipment, ambulances, and other personnel.
H-12) Which of the following must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident?
A. Donning a self-contained breathing apparatus
B. Requesting permission from incident command
C. Donning a fresh protective suit
D. Shedding all contaminated clothing
D. Shedding all contaminated clothing
Before entering the cold zone at a HAZMAT incident, the rescue team that was in the hot zone must be decontaminated and must shed all their contaminated clothing.
H-13) What should responders do with any clothing that is worn in the warm or hot zones of a hazardous incident?
A. Change into scrubs on arriving at the hospital and place the clothing in hospital laundry
B. Red-bag the items, and place them in regular hospital biohazard containers
C. Isolate it and label it for disposal
D. On returning to station, remove the clothing and launder it in hot water for two cycles
C. Isolate it and label it for disposal
H-14) Where is the safest zone to provide medical care of a patient who has been covered with a hazardous material?
A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated
B. In the cold zone before the patient has been decontaminated
C. In the warm zone while the patient is being decontaminated
D. In the hot zone before the patient has been decontaminated
A. In the cold zone after the patient has been decontaminated
The hot zone is the location of the danger, the warm zone is where the decontamination corridor is located, and the cold zone is a safe location for treatment of patients who have been decontaminated.
H-15) A large-scale MCI creates a situation that:
A. is routine for EMTs to handle.
B. involves the release of and exposure to hazardous materials.
C. can typically be managed by 23 ambulance units.
D. tests the capabilities of even the best-trained EMTs.
D. tests the capabilities of even the best-trained EMTs
Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude.
H-16) Which of the following statements regarding a small-scale MCI that expands into a large-scale MCI is most accurate?
A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.
B. The EMTs will require authorization from medical control to perform any lifesaving technique they feel is necessary to contain the situation.
C. The EMTs will need to retreat to a staging area until more resources arrive.
D. The EMTs will draw on a completely different set of skills and techniques from anything they would use on a smaller scale.
A. There will be more variables for the responding EMTs to consider over a longer timeframe.
Though the principles of managing small- and large-scale MCIs are generally the same, large-scale MCIs unfold over a longer period of time and require greater support from outside agencies. Well-trained and practiced EMTs can usually cope with a small-scale MCI pretty well. However, experience has shown that even the best-trained EMTs have a difficult time managing an incident of greater magnitude
H-17) Which of the following is needed for effective response to an MCI?
A. Public participation
B. Requesting and managing necessary resources
C. Media coverage
D. On-scene physicians
B. Requesting and managing necessary resources
Requesting and properly managing adequate resources are required for efficient response to an MCI.
H-18) Ideally, on the scene of an MCI, those who directly communicate with command should be:
A. the EMTs who first arrived on scene.
B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.
C. any newly arriving responders.
D. any personnel involved in triage efforts.
B. only those individuals who are directly subordinate to command.
The flow of communications at the scene of a large-scale MCI should correspond to the organizational chart being used. Accordingly, the only unit talking to the communications center and requesting resources is command. The only ones who talk to command are those directly subordinate to command. All others talk to only the officer or supervisor to whom they are assigned. These mandates should be addressed in your standard operating guidelines.
H-19) EMS providers who become emotionally incapacitated during an MCI should be: A. disciplined for shift abandonment. B. assigned to noncritical patients. C. treated as patients. D. sent home immediately.
C. treated as patients.
H-20) Which of the following words best describes the attitude EMTs should have when responding to an MCI? A. Fearless B. Unsympathetic C. Vigilant D. Aggressive
C. Vigilant
It is important for the responder to be vigilant for unhealthy behaviors brought about by stressful events.
H-21) Surge capacity refers to:
A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients.
B. the formula for determining the number of ambulances to dispatch to a given incident.
C. the size of a staging area for a large-scale MCI.
D. the second wind EMTs often feel late in the response to an MCI.
A. a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients
Surge capacity is a measurable representation of ability to manage a sudden influx of patients. It is dependent on a well-functioning incident management system and the variables of space, supplies, staff, and any special considerations (contaminated or contagious patients, for example).
H-22) The person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident is the: A. staging supervisor. B. transportation supervisor. C. incident commander. D. triage supervisor.
B. transportation supervisor.
The transportation supervisor is the person responsible for communicating with sector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident.
H-23) You are assigned to the triage unit at an MCI, and you are going from patient to patient, assigning triage categories. Which of the following interventions is acceptable in this phase of the process?
A. Splinting fractures
B. Performing bag-valve-mask ventilations
C. Performing spinal immobilization
D. Opening the airway
D. Opening the airway
You must rapidly assess each remaining patient, stopping only to secure an airway or stop profuse bleeding. It is important that you not develop “tunnel vision” - spending time rendering additional care to any one patient and thus failing to identify and correct life-threatening conditions of the remaining patients.
H-24) The first triage cut involves:
A. identifying the dead or fatally injured.
B. identifying those with serious but not life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
C. treating patients with life-threatening illnesses or injuries.
D. identifying the walking wounded.
D. identifying the walking wounded.
The first triage cut can be done rapidly by using a bullhorn, PA system, or loud voice to direct all patients capable of walking (Priority 3) to move to a particular area. This has a two-fold purpose. It quickly identifies the individuals who have an airway and circulation, and it physically separates them from patients who will generally need more care.
H-25) Which of the following best describes secondary triage?
A. A more in-depth, head-to-toe assessment of the patient to better determine the patient’s status
B. Going back to patients who were presumed deceased to begin resuscitation, as resources allow
C. Taking a full set of vital signs and a comprehensive patient history
D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage area, to determine whether a patient’s priority should be upgraded or downgraded
D. Checking the same criteria as in primary triage after the patient reaches the triage area, to determine whether a patient’s priority should be upgraded or downgraded
Secondary triage refers to the process of reassessing findings from primary triage to reclassify the patient, if necessary.
H-26) Which of the following statements best explains the difference between primary triage and secondary triage?
A. Primary triage assigns a priority number to patients based on severity of condition; secondary triage organizes incoming resources to determine which responders are cleared to begin providing care.
B. Patients’ conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.
C. Primary triage is performed in the field to determine to which hospital to transport; secondary triage is performed in the hospital to determine how soon to treat the patient.
D. Primary triage is aimed at detecting immediate life threats; secondary triage is aimed at obtaining patient histories.
B. Patients’ conditions may stabilize or deteriorate after primary triage has assigned them a priority based on their condition, requiring reassignment of priority for treatment and transport in secondary triage.
Secondary triage is performed after primary triage to detect any changes in the patients’ priority for transport.
H-27) At an MCI, which of the following is performed when the EMT first encounters an injured patient? A. Secondary triage B. Modified secondary assessment C. Primary triage D. Modified primary assessment
C. Primary triage
H-28) The highest priority for treatment and transport at an MCI are patients who are triaged to which of the following categories? A. Black B. Green C. Red D. Yellow
C. Red
Green = Lowest Yellow = Severe Red = Critical Black = Dead/Dying/Death Imminent
H-29) Which of the following findings would result in a patient at an MCI’s being categorized as yellow in START triage?
A. Capillary refill <2 seconds, unable to follow commands
B. Not breathing, but begins breathing once the airway is open
C. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
D. Absent radial pulse, spontaneous breathing
C. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
To be placed in the yellow category in START triage, a patient must not have been able to move with the walking wounded and must be breathing fewer than 30 times per minute, have a radial pulse or capillary refill less than 2 seconds, and be alert.
H-30) Which of the following would place a patient as a Priority 1, or red, during START triage?
A. Breathing <30 times per minute, radial pulse present, alert
B. Not breathing, no pulse
C. Able to walk to a collection point in response to a bullhorn command
D. Respirations >30 per minute, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status
D. Respirations >30 per minute, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status
Respirations over 30, absent radial pulse, and altered mental status are criteria for category 1, or red.
H-31) You are START-triaging a child who is not breathing. When you have opened the airway, the child does not begin breathing. Which of the following is the correct next step?
A. Tag the child as “black” and move on.
B. Give five rescue breaths.
C. Check the pupils for size and reactivity.
D. Begin chest compressions at a ratio of 30 compressions to two ventilations.
A. Tag the child as “black” and move on.
In START triage, a patient is categorized as “black” if, after opening the airway, the patient does not begin breathing.
Smaller incidents - a zero could be a 1
H-32) Which of the following best describes the patients who are assigned to the green category in triage? A. Deceased B. Delayed C. Minor D. Immediate
C. Minor
The green category is used for patients with minor injuries, often referred to as “the walking wounded.”
H-33) You have been assigned to the transport unit at an MCI. In what area will you await your assigned patient? A. Base camp B. Triage C. Treatment D. Staging
D. Staging
Ambulances wait in the staging area until requested for patient transport.
H-34) Who is responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at an MCI? A. The staging supervisor B. The incident commander C. The transportation officer D. The safety officer
A. The staging supervisor
The staging supervisor is responsible for overseeing ambulance operations at an MCI.
PT-1) What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lowest possible threshold for a multiple-casualty incident? A. 15 B. 10 C. 2 D. 3
D. 3
PT-2) An example of psychological first aid for a patient at an MCI is:
A. telling the patient that despite how it looks, everyone at the scene will be okay.
B. directing the patient to begin providing care to less critical patients.
C. asking the patient to consider the possibility the patient is in denial.
D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.
D. assuring the patient that everything the patient feels is normal and that responders are doing everything they can.
PT-3) Field decontamination takes place in the: A. hot zone. B. cold zone. C. safe zone. D. warm zone.
D. warm zone.
PT-4) What are the three criteria for assessing patients during triage?
A. Skin condition, pupil response, and grip strength
B. Ability to walk, cervical spine injury, and mental status
C. Ability to speak, level of orientation, and severity of injuries
D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status
PT-5) Which of the following is a basic principle of disaster-preparedness planning?
A. Develop a proposal that requires more resources before planning can begin.
B. Develop a plan that can be activated only by the highest-ranking government official.
C. Develop very detailed plans that do not permit deviation from stated guidelines.
D. Prepare a plan that is specific, practical, and well-understood.
D. Prepare a plan that is specific, practical, and well-understood.
PT-6)At what point should transport of the injured begin at an MCI?
A. After all “minor” patients have been directed to a treatment area, to relieve congestion at the scene
B. As soon as the first ambulance arrives
C. After all patients have been triaged
D. After triage has identified “immediate” category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units
D. After triage has identified “immediate” category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units
PT-7) Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible in large-scale incidents for the provision of restrooms and meals, and for the rotation of crews? A. Command B. Transportation C. Staging D. Supply
C. Staging
PT-8) During triage of a 6-year-old patient, you discover that she is awake, breathing 28 times per minute, has a palpable pulse, and responds to verbal stimuli. The patient is not ambulatory. What is the correct triage category for this patient? A. Green B. Orange C. Red D. Yellow
D. Yellow
PT-9) What should be done with an EMT who has become emotionally incapacitated at an MCI?
A. Treat the EMT as a patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest
B. Talk to the EMT with calm empathy until the EMT feels better enough to return to duty
C. Review the EMT’s performance, to identify what went wrong
D. Direct the EMT to treat only Priority 3 patients
A. Treat the EMT as a patient, and remove the EMT to a place of rest
PT-10) In which type of incident would unified command be most appropriate?
A. An incident that involves only EMS
B. More than three patients at a scene
C. An incident that involves only fire/rescue
D. Involvement of different branches of public safety
D. Involvement of different branches of public safety
PT-11) Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of triage?
A. To treat the youngest, healthiest patients first
B. To treat all serious illnesses and injuries as they are discovered
C. To find and treat all of one patient’s injuries before moving on to the next patient
D. To prioritize patients in an MCI
D. To prioritize patients in an MCI
PT-12) When you call an emergency response service or agency regarding hazardous materials, which information is LEAST relevant?
A. Nature and location of the problem
B. Injuries and exposures
C. Estimate of the quantity of material transported and released
D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun
D. How long ago you believe the incident might have begun
PT-13) Which of the following is the best choice for triage supervisor? A. The oldest EMS provider B. The highest-ranking EMS provider C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider D. The senior EMT
C. The most knowledgeable EMS provider
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PT-14) A patient at an MCI is unresponsive but breathing 24 times per minutes with a strong radial pulse. To what triage category should the patient be assigned? A. Black B. Green C. Red D. Yellow
C. Red
PT-15) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a multiple-casualty incident?
A. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair
B. A high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan
C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail
D. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment
C. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail
PT-16) Which of the following statements best describes the treatment that is acceptable during triage in MCIs?
A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding
B. Applying cervical collars and opening the airway
C. Refraining from providing all treatment
D. Inserting oral or nasal airways and performing bag-valve-mask ventilations
A. Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding
PT-17) Which of the following is considered a valuable informational resource in dealing with hazardous materials incidents? A. NSA B. FEMA C. CHEMTREC D. DHS
C. CHEMTREC
PT-18) Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually present? A. Hot zone B. Contamination zone C. Cold zone D. Warm zone
A. Hot zone