CH 37 Emergencies for Patients with Special Challenges Flashcards

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1
Q

H-1) Which of the following defines​ obesity?
A. A body mass index of 30 or greater
B. 100 pounds or more above ideal body weight
C. More than​ 10% above ideal body weight
D. At least​ 25% above average weight for height

A

A. A body mass index of 30 or greater

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2
Q

H-2) Which of the following definitions of disability is most complete and​ accurate?
A. Disability is a​ physical, emotional,​ behavioral, or cognitive condition that interferes with a​ person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks.
B. Disability is a physical impairment that is specifically defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
C. Disability is a physical or cognitive condition that interferes with a​ person’s ability to function in a professional environment.
D. Disability is a​ physical, emotional,​ behavioral, or cognitive condition that keeps anyone from doing anything they want to do.

A

A. Disability is a​ physical, emotional,​ behavioral, or cognitive condition that interferes with a​ person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks.

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3
Q

H-3) According to the Centers for Disease Control and​ Prevention, which of the following statements regarding developmental disability is​ true?
A. A developmental disability is always a mental impairment.
B. A developmental disability causes significant impairment of a​ person’s major life activities.
C. A developmental disability begins after the age of 22.
D. A developmental disability is an acute condition.

A

B. A developmental disability causes significant impairment of a​ person’s major life activities.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention uses the term developmental disability to mean a chronic​ (persistent or​ lasting) mental​ and/or physical impairment beginning at any age up until 22 years and causing significant impairment in the​ person’s major life activities.

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4
Q

H-4) Which of the following statements best describes the reason it is important to monitor the oxygen saturation of an obese​ patient?
A. Obese patients often have respiratory problems.
B. The airway of an obese patient occludes easily.
C. The patient will likely be supine.
D. The first pulse oximetry reading for an obese patient tends to be wrong.

A

A. Obese patients often have respiratory problems.

Obesity increases the risk of respiratory problems. Very obese patients may have difficulty breathing when they are​ supine, because of the extra weight that must be moved by the diaphragm during inspiration. If​ possible, allow the patient to assume a comfortable position for breathing. Monitor the​ patient’s oxygen​ saturation, and provide oxygen and ventilatory assistance as needed.

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5
Q
H-5) Which type of instructions is best for a patient with​ autism?
A. Implied
B. Humorous
C. Simple
D. Metaphorical
A

C. Simple

Simple, clear, precise directions are easiest to follow for persons with autism. For​ example, say​ “Sit down​ here” (pointing at a​ chair), not​ “Why don’t you have a​ seat?” Don’t be​ sarcastic, use figures of​ speech, or tell jokes.

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6
Q

H-6) Which of the following statements regarding escalation and meltdown in a patient with autism is​ true?
A. The increase in​ tantrum-like behaviors is involuntary.
B. The patient is behaving maliciously in most cases.
C. Changing up an established routine can often reverse the escalation.
D. The most common cause is under-stimulation.

A

A. The increase in​ tantrum-like behaviors is involuntary.

Escalation and​ meltdown, which can occur in a person with an​ ASD, can be described as an involuntary increase in​ tantrum-like behaviors. There are several causes of this​ behavior, with the most common involving​ sensory, emotional, or cognitive​ overstimulation; social skills​ deficits; excessive demands being placed on the​ individual; interruption of established​ routines; and being put in a situation that was unexpected or is unpredictable. If a person with an ASD is behaving aggressively or is​ escalated, it is rarely from what most of us would refer to as malicious or defiant behavior.

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7
Q

H-7) Which of the following questions least involves​ scope-of-practice considerations when thinking about a problem with a​ patient’s medical​ device?
A. ​”Do I have the knowledge to fix this​ problem?”
B. ​”Is the problem​ life-threatening?”
C. ​”Is this within my​ protocols?”
D. ​”Do I think this problem is the result of​ neglect?”

A

D. ​”Do I think this problem is the result of​ neglect?”

​Scope-of-practice considerations involve what is within the​ EMT’s specific regional and state practices to do. You should confer with medical direction if the treatment or skill required is not something you are trained in or allowed to do under these protocols. If the EMT believes a problem is the result of​ neglect, that’s​ important, but not a​ scope-of-practice issue or related to determining whether an​ out-of-scope intervention might be required.

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8
Q

H-8) What is the least realistic expectation an EMT might​ have?
A. The EMT will be proficient in the use of and knowledgeable about any medical device.
B. Becoming familiar with any special healthcare setting in the community will make the EMT better prepared.
C. EMTs may develop plans with the representatives of specialized care facilities to coordinate care during EMS calls.
D. A special healthcare​ facility’s representative might agree to offer EMTs demonstrations of how the devices for their facility work.

A

A. The EMT will be proficient in the use of and knowledgeable about any medical device.

It​ isn’t realistic for an EMT to expect to know and be able to use any medical device that might be encountered in the​ field, but that​ doesn’t mean that EMTs will not benefit from taking steps to be better prepared in general for specialized care situations.

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9
Q

H-9) A patient who use a CPAP device for sleep apnea most​ likely:
A. will need the device to be close at hand at all times.
B. uses the device 24 hours a day.
C. will have frequent emergencies related to the use of the device.
D. uses the device at night.

A

D. uses the device at night.

A patient who use a CPAP device for sleep apnea most likely use the device at night but does not need it​ otherwise, and is unlikely to have emergencies specifically related to the device.

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10
Q

H-10) Which of the following patients is at increased risk for developing​ pneumonia?
A. An adolescent with Down syndrome
B. A spinal cord-injured patient on a ventilator
C. A patient who has been legally blind since birth
D. A child with autism

A

B. A spinal cord-injured patient on a ventilator

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11
Q

H-11) What is a special consideration that must be made for women who are​ homeless?
A. They may be victims of domestic and sexual abuse.
B. They typically have mental health problems.
C. They often have​ HIV/AIDS.
D. They frequently have complications from respiratory disorders.

A

A. They may be victims of domestic and sexual abuse.

Several serious health problems are related to​ homelessness: mental health​ problems, malnutrition, substance abuse​ problems, HIV/AIDS,​ tuberculosis, bronchitis and​ pneumonia, environmental​ emergencies, wounds, and skin infections. But a special consideration for women who are homeless is that they may be victims of domestic and sexual abuse.

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12
Q

H-12) Which of the following statements best describes an​ EMT’s responsibility when the EMT suspects that a child has been​ abused?
A. Accuse the suspected​ abuser, and notify child protective services to remove the child from the home.
B. Notify the appropriate authorities and the medical personnel who will be assuming care of the patient.
C. Report your suspicions to the​ patient’s family doctor.
D. Request an ALS response to manage the situation.

A

B. Notify the appropriate authorities and the medical personnel who will be assuming care of the patient.

It is the responsibility of the EMT to follow your​ state’s law. As with any suspected case of abuse or​ neglect, do not make accusations. Do your best to get the patient out of the​ environment, and report your suspicions according to the requirements of your​ jurisdiction, at a minimum to the receiving physician.

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13
Q
PT-1) You are called to the residence of a child who has a feeding tube. You are unfamiliar with feeding tubes and how they might affect your care of the child. What is the best resource for quickly learning about the specific feeding tube this patient​ has?
A. Your partner
B. Dispatch
C. The user guide for the feeding tube
D. The​ child's parents
A

D. The​ child’s parents

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14
Q
PT-2) What makes patients with special challenges especially vulnerable to various forms of​ abuse?
A. Their age
B. Their access to information
C. Their dependence on others
D. Their need for special devices
A

C. Their dependence on others

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15
Q
PT-3) You are caring for a patient with special medical challenges at her home. The patient is noncommunicative. Which of the following is likely to be the best source of information about the advanced medical devices found in the​ home?
A. The patient
B. Medical direction
C. You and your partner
D. The family
A

D. The family

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16
Q

PT-4) Restraining a patient with​ autism:
A. is the best way to keep the patient calm.
B. should always be done before transport.
C. is up to the​ patient’s parents or care provider.
D. should be a last resort.

A

D. should be a last resort.

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17
Q

PT-5) Which populations are disproportionately represented among the​ homeless?
A. Families
B. People who are homeless by choice
C. Veterans and minorities
D. People who choose to avoid homeless shelters

A

C. Veterans and minorities

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18
Q
PT-6) Developmental disorders that​ affect, among other​ things, one's abilities to​ communicate, report medical​ conditions, self-regulate​ behaviors, and interact with others to get needs met​ are:
A. bariatrics.
B. cognitive disabilities.
C. autistic spectrum disorders.
D. neuromuscular disorders.
A

C. autistic spectrum disorders

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19
Q
PT-7) The branch of medicine that deals with the causes of obesity as well as its prevention and treatment​ is:
A. geriatrics.
B. bariatrics.
C. obstetrics.
D. pediatrics.
A

B. bariatrics.

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20
Q
PT-8) A terminal illness is​ often:
A. swift.
B. easily managed.
C. reversible.
D. costly.
A

D. costly.

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21
Q

PT-9) Which of the following statements best describes the reason why EMS providers should be knowledgeable about patients with special​ challenges?
A. EMS providers are involved in routine home healthcare of patients with special medical challenges.
B. EMTs must be able to make emergency repairs or adjustments to​ life-sustaining equipment.
C. A public health function of EMS is to make routine checks of specialized medical devices.
D. The​ patient’s preexisting condition can complicate and quickly overwhelm your ability to assess and treat the patient.

A

D. The​ patient’s preexisting condition can complicate and quickly overwhelm your ability to assess and treat the patient.

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22
Q

PT-10) If you were transporting a patient still attached to a​ ventilator, which of the following would you not​ do?
A. Firmly affix the ventilator to the stretcher
B. Obtain extra help if a​ bag-valve mask will be used during transport
C. Assume that any ventilator will have enough battery for most ambulance trips
D. Secure the​ ventilator, to prevent movement in the ambulance

A

C. Assume that any ventilator will have enough battery for most ambulance trips

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23
Q

PT-11) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a sign of abuse or​ neglect?
A. The patient is kept in a dark back​ room, and is unwashed and undernourished.
B. A patient has multiple injuries in various stages of healing.
C. The story of a​ patient’s injury is inconsistent with the injury itself.
D. A​ patient’s tracheostomy tube requires suctioning to clear it of secretions.

A

D. A​ patient’s tracheostomy tube requires suctioning to clear it of secretions.

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24
Q

PT-12) A patient with vision​ impairment:
A. can often navigate familiar environments without help.
B. has a congenital disorder.
C. requires a cane or service animal.
D. should be restrained to avoid injury.

A

A. can often navigate familiar environments without help.

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25
Q

PT-13) Which of the following statements regarding management of obese patients is​ true?
A. Laying the patient supine often results in hyperventilation syndrome.
B. They require a tidal volume of 20​ ml/kg of body weight.
C. They may present special challenges during lifting and moving.
D. CPAP is contraindicated in morbidly obese patients.

A

C. They may present special challenges during lifting and moving.

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26
Q

PT-14) As a general​ rule, what action should you take when you encounter medical technology with which you are not familiar when caring for a​ patient?
A. Turn off the equipment in preparation for transport.
B. Take the equipment with the patient.
C. Disable any alarms on the equipment in preparation for transport.
D. Ask the patient and caregivers about the device.

A

D. Ask the patient and caregivers about the device.

27
Q
CT-1) Which of the following serious health problems is related to​ homelessness?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Hypertension
C. Liver disease
D. Heart disease
A

A. Tuberculosis

28
Q

CT-2) Which of the following is true of patients with autism spectrum disorders​ (ASD)?
A. They find faint background noise comforting.
B. They may have very high pain thresholds and tolerate excruciating injuries.
C. They cope well with change when that change occurs quickly.
D. They respond well to​ gentle, reassuring contact from EMTs.

A

B. They may have very high pain thresholds and tolerate excruciating injuries.

29
Q
CT-3) At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical​ device?
A. Private residence
B. Nursing home
C. Specialty care facilities
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

30
Q
CT-4) Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require​ one?
A. In the lower right chest
B. In the lower left chest
C. In the upper right chest
D. In the upper left chest
A

D. In the upper left chest

31
Q
CT-5) Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health​ problems?
A. Liver disease
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Respiratory problems
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

32
Q

CT-6) During​ transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary​ catheter?
A. In the​ patient’s lap, but not higher than his heart
B. Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient
C. On the ambulance floor
D. Lower than the​ patient, but not on the floor

A

D. Lower than the​ patient, but not on the floor

33
Q
CT-7) Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy​ tube?
A. Head slightly elevated
B. Shock position
C. Prone
D. Supine
A

A. Head slightly elevated

34
Q

CT-8) Which of the following best describes a disease such as​ deafness?
A. Acquired disease
B. Congenital disease
C. Either a congenital or acquired disease
D. Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

A

C. Either a congenital or acquired disease

35
Q

CT-9) Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac​ arrest?
A. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while​ on-scene and transporting the patient.
B. No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator.
C. The AED should be applied and​ used, but CPR should not be started while​ on-scene or transporting the patient.
D. CPR should be​ started, but the AED should not be used while​ on-scene or transporting the patient.

A

A. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while​ on-scene and transporting the patient.

36
Q
CT-10) You are on the scene of a home ventilator patient whose ventilator has experienced a mechanical failure. The patient is conscious and you have taken over the function of the ventilator with a​ bag-valve mask. As an​ EMT, you should verify the​ patient's comfort level for which of the​ following?
A. Ventilation pressure
B. Ventilation rate
C. Ventilation volume
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

37
Q

CT-11) Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need​ patients?
A. Alcohol and drug abuse are uncommon.
B. They usually identify with the​ child’s pain and suffering.
C. They usually want the​ child’s injuries treated.
D. They may be inappropriately unconcerned about the child.

A

D. They may be inappropriately unconcerned about the child.

38
Q
CT-12) When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the​ hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital​ signs?
A. Blood pressure
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Blood glucose level
D. Pulse rate
A

B. Oxygen saturation

39
Q
CT-13) Which of the following is not a role of dialysis in a renal failure​ patient?
A. Remove fluid from the body
B. Filter and detoxify the blood
C. Remove waste from the body
D. Stimulate blood cell production
A

D. Stimulate blood cell production

40
Q
CT-14) While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for​ survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the​ device?
A. ​Patient's family
B. Patient
C. ​Patient's home health aide or nurse
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

41
Q

CT-15) Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over​ hemodialysis?
A. Peritoneal dialysis is more effective.
B. Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the​ patient’s home.
C. Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.
D. Peritoneal dialysis is much faster.

A

B. Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the​ patient’s home.

42
Q

CT-16) To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked​ airway, the EMT​ should:
A. insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible.
B. measure against the length of the obturator.
C. multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.
D. measure from the stoma to the carina.

A

B. measure against the length of the obturator.

43
Q
CT-17) Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is​ Jarl's body mass index​ (rounded to the nearest​ tenth)?
A. 36.5
B. 39.1
C. 35.2
D. 38.4
A

B. 39.1

44
Q

CT-18) Which of the following statements is true regarding abuse and neglect of adults and elders with special​ needs?
A. Signs of hunger and malnourishment are common signs of neglect.
B. Caregivers rarely interfere with​ assessment, treatment, or transport of patients.
C. The signs of abuse and neglect in adult and elder patients are easy to spot.
D. Sexual abuse is never seen among elder patients with special needs.

A

A. Signs of hunger and malnourishment are common signs of neglect.

45
Q
CT-19) Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the​ cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following​ diseases?
A. Obesity
B. Sleep apnea
C. Diabetes
D. Blindness
A

A. Obesity

46
Q
CT-20) Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy​ tubes?
A. Tube malplacement
B. Mucus buildup
C. Air embolism
D. Tracheal tears
A

B. Mucus buildup

47
Q

CT-21) Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing​ loss?
A. Speak loudly and directly into the​ patient’s ear.
B. Write your questions using paper and pen.
C. Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips.
D. Use a​ TDD/TYY telephone.

A

B. Write your questions using paper and pen.

48
Q

CT-22) Which of the following is true in regard to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator​ (AICD)?
A. The EMT will feel the​ shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT.
B. The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.
C. It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.
D. The EMT will feel the​ shock, but it is not very painful.

A

B. The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.

49
Q
CT-23) While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley​ catheter, it is important to keep the collection​ bag:
A. higher than the level of the patient.
B. level with the patient.
C. with the​ patient's caregiver.
D. lower than the level of the patient.
A

D. lower than the level of the patient.

50
Q
CT-24) Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to​ be:
A. autoimmune.
B. acquired.
C. genetic.
D. congenital.
A

D. congenital.

51
Q
CT-25) A condition that interferes significantly with a​ person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as​ a:
A. special need.
B. developmental disability.
C. physical handicap.
D. disability.
A

D. disability.

52
Q
CT-26) Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a​ person's ability to engage in activities of daily​ living?
A. Terminal
B. Disability
C. Disabled
D. Handicapped
A

B. Disability

53
Q

CT-27) A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the​ ambulance?
A. Ventilate the​ patient’s tracheostomy tube via a connected​ bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
B. Ventilate the patient with​ mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
C. Ventilate the​ patient’s nose and mouth with a​ bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
D. Do​ nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance.

A

A. Ventilate the​ patient’s tracheostomy tube via a connected​ bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

54
Q

CT-28) How does the pain felt by a patient when receiving a shock from a pacemaker compare to the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator​ (AICD)?
A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
B. Both are painful.
C. Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless.
D. Both are painless.

A

A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.

55
Q

CT-29) Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV​ shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the​ following?
A. Inaccurate blood pressure readings
B. Damage to the AV​ shunt, fistula, or​ graft, requiring surgery
C. Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity
D. ​Nothing, because there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a​ patient’s arm with an AV​ fistula, shunt, or graft.

A

B. Damage to the AV​ shunt, fistula, or​ graft, requiring surgery

56
Q

CT-30) You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator​ (AICD). You are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator​ discharges, you​ should:
A. limit direct contact with the patient.
B. make sure you do not touch the patient directly.
C. not​ worry; the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.
D. wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity.

A

C. not​ worry; the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.

57
Q

CT-31) You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this​ situation, either. What is an advisable course of​ action?
A. Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.
B. Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation.
C. Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation.
D. Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice.

A

B. Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation.

58
Q

CT-32) When caring for patients with autism spectrum disorders​ (ASD), it is a good idea to do all of the following except​:
A. provide​ simple, precise instructions about what you need the patient to do.
B. ask​ short, closed-ended questions whenever possible.
C. gather repeat vital signs at​ five-minute intervals even if the patient seems very stable.
D. turn off as many​ pagers, radios, and noisy pieces of equipment as possible.

A

C. gather repeat vital signs at​ five-minute intervals even if the patient seems very stable

59
Q
CT-33) Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless​ population?
A. Veterans
B. Children
C. Females
D. Families
A

A. Veterans

60
Q

CT-34) Which of the following best describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD)?
A. Either a congenital or acquired disease
B. Neither a congenital nor acquired disease
C. Acquired disease
D. Congenital disease

A

C. Acquired disease

61
Q

CT-35) When preparing to move a patient who is using a specialty medical device from his house to the​ ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the​ family?
A. What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by​ ambulance?
B. How do you normally move the​ patient?
C. Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the​ patient?
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

62
Q
CT-36) Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater​ than:
A. 35
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
A

C. 30

63
Q

CT-37) What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill​ patient?
A. To assist the patient with waste removal
B. To assist the patient with feedings
C. To assist the patient with breathing
D. To assist the patient with sleeping

A

C. To assist the patient with breathing

64
Q
CT-38) You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain that has lasted for 3 days. During your​ assessment, you note a tube protruding from the​ patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of​ milky-white fluid. This tube is known as​ a(n):
A. nasogastric tube.
B. endotracheal tube.
C. gastric tube.
D. ​J-tube.
A

A. nasogastric tube