CH 21 Resuscitation Flashcards

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1
Q
H1). Which type of cardiac arrest is caused by conditions such as respiratory problems and​ shock?
A. Agonal cardiac arrest
B. Asphyxial cardiac arrest
C. Sudden cardiac arrest
D. Commotio cordis
A

B. Asphyxial cardiac arrest (Page 585)

Asphyxial cardiac arrest implies that the heart has stopped pumping due to issues related to systemic hypoxia. Conditions like respiratory problems and​ shock, which lead to low oxygen levels in the​ blood, cause this type of cardiac arrest.

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2
Q

H2). Which of the following patients is most likely to be in cardiac​ arrest?
A. ​Unresponsive, agonal​ breathing, no carotid pulse
B. ​Unresponsive, no​ breathing, carotid pulse of 40 per minute
C. Responds to pain​ only, agonal​ breathing, no radial pulse
D. ​Unresponsive, respiratory rate of 8 per​ minute, no radial pulse

A

A. ​Unresponsive, agonal​ breathing, no carotid pulse

The three key features of a cardiac arrest patient are​ unresponsiveness, agonal or no​ breathing, and absence of a central pulse.

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3
Q
H3). A​ "pit crew" approach is involved​ in:
A. ​high-performance CPR.
B. advanced life support.
C. rapid defibrillation.
D. emergency medical response
A

A​ “pit crew” approach is involved​ in:

​High-performance CPR involves a​ “pit crew,” or highly​ choreographed, approach to resuscitation. In this type of​ CPR, rescuers position themselves for maximum efficiency and minimum interruption of​ high-quality CPR. Advanced life support involves EMT professionals specialized in providing specific ALS interventions who coordinate with the rest of the life support​ team, but the team​ doesn’t provide advance life support in a pit crew approach. Emergency medical response in general may or may not involve this​ approach, and rapid defibrillation may be performed by a single rescuer.

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4
Q
H4) Expect to perform​ one-rescuer CPR:
A. under direct ALS supervision.
B. if you are the first and only responder.
C. in any emergency response situation.
D. when lifting and moving patients.
A

B. if you are the first and only responder.

If you are alone waiting for the arrival of an​ AED, as in a​ first-response situation, you may need to perform​ one-rescuer CPR. You should not expect to perform​ one-rescuer CPR in any emergency response​ situation, such as in situations involving​ high-performance CPR. You cannot expect to receive direct ALS supervision when performing CPR. CPR cannot be performed while lifting and moving patients.

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5
Q

H5) The direction of the shock from a monophasic defibrillator​ is:
A. dependent on the device settings.
B. from positive to negative.
C. dependent on the position of the pads.
D. from negative to positive.

A

D. from negative to positive.

Whereas a biphasic defibrillator sends a shock first in one direction between negative and positive and then in the​ other, the traditional monophasic defibrillator sends a single shock from the negative pad to the positive pad.

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6
Q
H6) You are using the Zoll AutoPulse resuscitation system. An advanced airway is in place. What is the correct compression rate per​ minute?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 75
D. 100
A

D. 100

The correct compression rate when using the Zoll AutoPulse device is a continuous 100 per minute.

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7
Q
H7) You are using the Zoll AutoPulse resuscitation system. An advanced airway is in place. What is the correct ventilation rate per​ minute?
A. 8-10 
B. 12-20 
C. 20-30 
D. 16-24
A

A. 8-10

The correct ventilation rate when using the Zoll AutoPulse device is 810 per minute. (100 per minute)

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8
Q
H8) Your patient is unresponsive and is not breathing. Your partner is calling for ALS backup. Which of the following airway adjuncts is​ appropriate?
A. ​Small-volume nebulizer
B. Pocket mask
C. ​Bag-valve mask
D. Oropharyngeal airway
A

D. Oropharyngeal airway

An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway should be used for the​ unresponsive, apneic patient. The​ BVM, pocket​ mask, and nebulizer are not airway adjuncts.

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9
Q
H9) Which of the following must the EMT do while the AED analyzes the​ rhythm?
A. Continue​ high-quality CPR
B. Check for a pulse
C. Stay clear
D. Ventilate at a rate of 12 per minute
A
  1. C. Stay clear

The rescuer must stay clear and stop contact with the patient when the AED analyzes the rhythm. Continuing contact with the patient can interfere with the​ AED’s ability to identify a shockable rhythm.

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10
Q
H10) In a cardiac arrest​ situation, in addition to reanalyzing with the AED every 2​ minutes, during the​ "clear" interval you​ should:
A. check the pulse at the wrist.
B. assess the blood pressure.
C. change compressors.
D. contact medical control.
A

C. change compressors.

No provider should compress the chest for more than two minutes. Fatigue sets in​ (even if it is not​ felt), and the quality of chest compressions decreases.​ Therefore, during each analysis by the​ AED, compressors should be switched.

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11
Q

H11) Before you press the shock button on the​ AED, you should call​ “Clear!” and do which of the​ following?
A. Call 911
B. Check the pulse again
C. Scan the patient from head to toe to ensure that no one is touching him
D. Give two breaths

A

C. Scan the patient from head to toe to ensure that no one is touching him

Before​ shocking, you should scan the patient from head to toe to ensure that no one is touching the patient or any conductive material that the patient is touching. You should not delay for breathing or pulse checks.

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12
Q

H12) Under which circumstance may you cease resuscitation​ efforts?
A. No other trained rescuers have arrived.
B. The patient is not breathing.
C. A bystander with first responder training can take over.
D. Spontaneous circulation occurs.

A

D. Spontaneous circulation occurs.

Once you have started​ resuscitation, you may cease to provide resuscitation if spontaneous circulation​ occurs, but you should continue to provide rescue breathing as needed.

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13
Q

H13) Which statement is​ correct?
A. Resuscitation efforts must continue until ALS has provided an advanced airway intervention.
B. If you are​ exhausted, a bystander may take over if you give that person verbal instructions.
C. You may cease resuscitation efforts if you are too exhausted to continue.
D. Resuscitation efforts must continue until spontaneous circulation and breathing both occur.

A

C. You may cease resuscitation efforts if you are too exhausted to continue.

You may cease resuscitation efforts if you are too exhausted to continue. You cannot turn over resuscitation efforts to a responder with less training than you. Resuscitation efforts may cease if spontaneous circulation​ occurs, but you should provide rescue breathing as needed. Resuscitation efforts do not necessarily need to continue until ALS provides an advanced airway intervention.

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14
Q
H14) In which of the following situations should an AED be immediately attached and​ deployed?
A. A patient with an implanted pacemaker
B. A patient touching metal
C. A provider touching a patient
D. A patient lying in water
A

A. A patient with an implanted pacemaker

Safety hazards that would delay defibrillation include​ someone’s touching the​ patient, the​ patient’s being wet or in​ water, or the​ patient’s touching metal. Implanted pacemakers can cause impedance to defibrillation​ (and pads should be offset to avoid​ them), but an AED can be used safely in that situation.

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15
Q
H15) A team has just rescued several people from the ocean after their boat capsized. You are working on a patient in cardiac arrest. Which type of defibrillator would be best for you to use in this​ situation?
A. ​Public-access AED
B. Manual defibrillator
C. Monophasic defibrillator
D. Biphasic defibrillator
A

D. Biphasic defibrillator

When caring for a wet patient in cardiac arrest who needs​ defibrillation, a modern biphasic defibrillator is unlikely to cause a rescuer significant harm.

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16
Q

PT1). As you arrive for a patient in cardiac​ arrest, bystanders are analyzing the patient with an AED. You​ should:
A. turn off the AED and check for a pulse.
B. allow the AED to shock before you take over care.
C. stay back until bystanders transfer care to you.
D. remove the AED and apply your own.

A

B. allow the AED to shock before you take over care.

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17
Q

PT2). For both the Lucas and Zoll AutoPulse CPR​ devices, you would take Standard Precautions​ and:
A. close the Lifeband over the​ patient’s chest.
B. ensure CPR is in progress and effective.
C. apply the stabilization strap.
D. position the pressure pad so that it touches the chest.

A

B. ensure CPR is in progress and effective.

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18
Q
PT3). If you are in doubt as to when or whether to terminate resuscitation​ efforts, seek the advice​ of:
A. another EMT.
B. a family member of the patient.
C. a physician.
D. an ALS provider.
A

C. a physician.

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19
Q

PT4). If you turn resuscitation efforts for a patient over to another​ rescuer, this person must be trained to which level of​ proficiency?
A. The level of an ALS provider
B. The highest possible level
C. The same level as or a greater level than you
D. The level of a physician

A

C. The same level as or a greater level than you

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20
Q

PT5). Which of the following is not one of the links in the chain of​ survival?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Immediate recognition and activation of the emergency response system
C. Immediate​ high-quality CPR
D. Rapid defibrillation

A

A. Rehabilitation

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21
Q
PT6) Delivery of an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm most directly affects which of the​ following?
A. Electrical function in the heart
B. Blood pressure
C. Peripheral pulses
D. Blood circulation
A

A. Electrical function in the heart

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22
Q
PT7) Which of the following would not be corrected by​ defibrillation?
A. Asystole
B. Dysrhythmia
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Ventricular fibrillation
A

A. Asystole

23
Q

PT8) ALS personnel have just placed an advanced airway in an adult cardiac arrest patient. You​ should:
A. deliver positive pressure ventilations at 10-12 breaths per minute.
B. ventilate the patient twice after every 15 compressions.
C. deliver two breaths after every 30 compressions.
D. ventilate the patient at 12-20 breaths per minute

A

A. deliver positive pressure ventilations at 10-12 breaths per minute.

24
Q

PT9) The Zoll AutoPulse device is​ designed:
A. to be started manually.
B. to be started automatically.
C. to start only if​ bag-valve-mask ventilation is applied.
D. to start only if an advanced airway is in place.

A

A. to be started manually.

25
Q
PT10) Which of the following will provide a cardiac arrest patient the greatest chance of​ survival?
A. Advanced airway management
B. Early defibrillation
C. Rapid transport
D. Early advanced cardiac life support
A

B. Early defibrillation

26
Q
PT11) You are caring for a cardiac arrest patient who has a body temperature of 84F. You attempt defibrillation once with no success. At what core body temperature should you attempt defibrillation​ again?
A. 85F
B. 88F
C. 86F
D. 90F
A

C. 86F

27
Q
PT12) You are treating your cardiac arrest patient when a​ "No Shock​ Indicated" message appears. You should​ next:
A. ventilate 20 times per minute.
B. continue CPR for 2 minutes.
C. insert an oral airway.
D. reanalyze.
A

B. continue CPR for 2 minutes.

28
Q
PT13) A​ 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should​ first:
A. call medical control.
B. start CPR and retrieve an AED.
C. call for ALS.
D. apply oxygen.
A

B. start CPR and retrieve an AED.

29
Q
PT14) Your patient was pulseless but had a return of spontaneous pulses after one shock from the AED. Before​ transport, you notice that the patient is again unresponsive. You should​ next:
A. check the pulse.
B. transport the patient.
C. assess the blood pressure.
D. continue ventilations.
A

A. check the pulse.

30
Q

CT1) Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to​ provide:
A. better quality of care with less training.
B. a faster response time to the scene.
C. ​high-quality compressions.
D. a​ 100% success rate.

A

C. ​high-quality compressions

31
Q

CT2) You are transporting a​ 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of​ action?
A. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.
B. Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting.
D. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with​ CPR, and request another unit for assistance.

A

B. Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

(Page 613)

32
Q

CT3) Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing​ high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your FIRST​ action?
A. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment.
B. Stop CPR and check for a pulse.
C. Apply the AED.
D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations.

A

C. Apply the AED.

33
Q

CT4) Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular​ tachycardia?
A. ​Shock, 2 minutes of​ CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated
B. ​Shock, shock,​ shock, shock
C. ​Shock, shock,​ shock, pulse​ check, 2 minutes of​ CPR, shock,​ shock, shock
D. ​Shock, pulse​ check, shock, pulse​ check, shock, pulse check

A

A. ​Shock, 2 minutes of​ CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated

34
Q

CT5) Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next?
A. Remove the​ AED, assist the​ patient’s ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask and supplemental​ oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
B. Apply a nonrebreather mask with​ high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.
C. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the​ patient’s respiratory status.
D. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.

A

D. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.

35
Q

CT6) You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next​ intervention?
A. Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position.
B. Continue CPR.
C. Replace the malfunctioning AED.
D. Insert a Combitube.

A

B. Continue CPR.

36
Q
CT7)  When using an​ AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to​ "clear" the patient before delivering a​ shock?
A. EMT doing chest compressions
B. EMT operating the defibrillator
C. EMT managing the airway
D. EMT supervising bystanders
A

B. EMT operating the defibrillator

37
Q

CT8) In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in​ adults?
A. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.
B. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children.
C. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.
D. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults.

A

C. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

38
Q

CT9) If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of​ resuscitation, what is an effective care​ strategy?
A. Be straightforward and use direct language.
B. Minimize the​ family’s time with the deceased patient.
C. Tell the family the EMT knows how they feel.
D. Prevent the family from seeing the deceased patient.

A

A. Be straightforward and use direct language.

39
Q

CT10) Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life​ support, even when EMTs in the community carry​ AEDs?
A. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.
B. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation.
C. Before attempting​ defibrillation, it may be necessary to obtain a​ 12-lead ECG on the patient.
D. All of the above

A

A. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

40
Q

CT11) Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is​ “no shock​ advised”?
A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
B. The​ patient’s heart rhythm is normal.
C. The​ patient’s heart has no electrical​ activity; he is​ “flat line,” or in asystole.
D. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.

A

A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.

41
Q

CT12) All of the following are elements of adult​ high-performance CPR,​ EXCEPT:
A. maintaining a​ 2:30 ratio of ventilations to compressions.
B. placing the heel of one hand on the center of the​ victim’s chest.
C. compression rate of at least 100 per minute.
D. compressing the​ patient’s chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

A

D. compressing the​ patient’s chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

42
Q

CT13) You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels​ “just like the last​ time.” You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes​ away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes​ away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his​ cardiologist’s hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best​ destination?
A. The nearest facility
B. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization
C. The trauma center
D. The hospital the patient requests

A

B. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization

43
Q

CT14) Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be​ “cleared” for delivery of a shock via the​ defibrillator?
A. The EMT performing​ bag-valve mask ventilations
B. Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the​ patient’s knees
C. The provider who is ventilating the​ patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so that the provider does not directly touch the patient
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

44
Q

CT15) You are the first on the scene of a​ 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply​ kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of​ high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open​ airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do​ next?
A. Contact medical direction before taking any action.
B. Perform​ bag-valve mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads.
C. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.
D. Perform​ one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive.

A

C. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

45
Q

CT16) Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator​ applied?
A. A​ 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic
B. A​ 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash
C. A​ 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress
D. A​ 67-year-old man with​ severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin

A

A. A​ 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

46
Q
CT17) You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the​ patient, what is your next​ intervention?
A. Place in the recovery position.
B. Check for a pulse.
C. Insert a Combitube.
D. Continue CPR.
A

D. Continue CPR.

47
Q

CT18) What does ventricular fibrillation​ do?
A. Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest
B. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
C. Initiates commotio cordis
D. Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid

A

B. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally

48
Q

CT19) Which of the following describes the​ EMT’s MOST important role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac​ care?
A. Early advanced cardiac life support
B. Postarrest care following advanced life support
C. Immediate​ high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation
D. Recognition and activation of emergency response system

A

C. Immediate​ high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation

49
Q

CT20) EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTs take​ over?
A. After a​ “no shock​ indicated” message is received but otherwise not until the patient is resuscitated
B. Only if the EMTs feel the police office is incompetent to administer the AED correctly
C. ​Immediately, even if interrupting the police office in the middle of shocking the patient
D. After the shock is delivered or a​ “no shock​ indicated” message is received

A

D. After the shock is delivered or a​ “no shock​ indicated” message is received

50
Q

CT21) Once an EMT has begun resuscitative​ efforts, when may the EMT cease those​ efforts?
A. No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT.
B. The patient has no pulse after 1 minute.
C. Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.
D. The​ EMT’s partner gives the order to cease.

A

C. Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.

51
Q

CT22) You are preparing a patient in cardiac arrest for an AED when you palpate a small lump below the​ patient’s right clavicle. How should this modify your placement of the​ AED?
A. Do not place the AED but transport the patient immediately.
B. Place the AED as you would for any patient.
C. Place the AED pads over the​ patient’s abdomen.
D. While placing the pads in the general area you need​ them, keep them several inches away from the lump.

A

D. While placing the pads in the general area you need​ them, keep them several inches away from the lump.

52
Q
CT23) Blunt and penetrating injuries can damage chambers of the heart or cause conditions​ like:
A. pericardial tamponade.
B. ventricular tachycardia.
C. asphyxial cardiac arrest.
D. ventricular fibrillation.
A

A. pericardial tamponade.

53
Q

CT24) Which of the following should NOT be done during​ defibrillation?
A. Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact
B. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia
C. Performing CPR while the AED is being attached
D. Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact

A

B. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia