CH 32 Musculoskeletal Trauma Flashcards

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1
Q
H-1) In a greenstick​ fracture, the break​ is:
A. incomplete.
B. straight through the bone.
C. through the skin.
D. in several places.
A

A. incomplete

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2
Q
H-2) A muscle injury resulting from overstretching or overexertion of the muscle is​ a:
A. dislocation.
B. fracture.
C. sprain.
D. strain.
A

D. strain.

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3
Q
H-3) When the end of a bone is involved in forming a​ ball-and-socket joint, it will​ be:
A. rounded.
B. angled.
C. sharp.
D. flat.
A

A. rounded.

When the end of a bone is involved in forming a​ ball-and-socket joint, it will be rounded to allow for rotational movement. This rounded​ end, called the head of the​ bone, is connected to the shaft by the neck.

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4
Q
H-4) The muscles that are of chief concern in trauma and musculoskeletal injury are the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or​ voluntary, muscles.
A. cardiac
B. involuntary
C. skeletal
D. smooth
A

C. skeletal

The muscles that are of chief concern in trauma and musculoskeletal injury are the​ skeletal, or​ voluntary, muscles. These muscles control all conscious or deliberate motions. The skeletal or voluntary muscles include all the muscles that are connected to​ bones, as well as the muscles in the​ tongue, pharynx, and upper esophagus.

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5
Q
H-5) Your patient fell from the roof of a​ one-story building and landed​ flat-footed. Damage to the​ patient's knees would most likely be the result​ of:
A. direct force.
B. rotational force.
C. indirect force.
D. twisting force.
A

C. indirect force

In this​ case, injuries to the​ patient’s knees as well as​ femurs, pelvis, and spine would be the result of indirect force from the impact with the​ ground, whereas direct force would likely cause injuries to the feet and ankles.

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6
Q

H-6) Most injuries to the upper extremities are caused​ by:
A. assault or abuse.
B. athletic injuries.
C. forces applied to an outstretched arm.
D. penetrating trauma.

A

C. forces applied to an outstretched arm

Forces applied to an outstretched arm are the most common cause of upper extremity injuries

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7
Q
H-7) You are summoned to the aid of a​ 45-year-old male who was hunting and fell from a tree stand. When you​ arrive, he is experiencing severe pain in his lower right thigh. On​ examination, you find that an area about three inches above his right knee has an open wound about one inch in diameter that is bleeding minimally. There are no exposed​ bones, but you palpate crepitus and see swelling that makes you suspect bone fracture. You would you classify this as​ a(n):
A. open extremity injury.
B. sprain.
C. closed extremity injury.
D. dislocation.
A

A. open extremity injury

This would be classified as an open extremity​ injury, which is an extremity injury in which the skin has been broken or torn through from the inside by an injured bone or from the outside by something that has caused a penetrating wound with associated injury to the bone

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8
Q
H-8) A patient has been exercising too​ much, which has led to a muscle injury in his right shoulder due to too much strenuous activity involving that muscle. This is​ a:
A. sprain.
B. fracture.
C. strain.
D. dislocation.
A

C. strain

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9
Q

H-9) Your patient fractured her right wrist in a motor vehicle collision. You notice​ swelling, redness, and tenderness distal to the site. The patient is wearing a ring and a bracelet. The ring slides off her finger easily but the bracelet is tight against the swelling. You​ should:
A. slide off the ring and cut off the bracelet.
B. leave both the ring and bracelet in place.
C. cut off the bracelet but leave the ring in place.
D. slide off the ring but leave the bracelet in place.

A

A. slide off the ring and cut off the bracelet

When bones break and soft tissue is​ torn, bleeding causes swelling that may increase the proportions of a deformity.​ Rings, watches, and other jewelry can easily constrict and injure underlying tissue.​ Therefore, slide or cut them off as soon as possible if swelling is likely to occur.

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10
Q
H-10) Which of the following is one of the​ "six Ps" of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is​ suspected?
A. Putrescence
B. Pressure
C. Proximity
D. Probability
A

B. Pressure

Pressure is one of the​ “six Ps” of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected. The others are​ pain, pallor,​ paresthesia, pulses, and paralysis.

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11
Q

H-11) When treating a patient with musculoskeletal​ injuries, after addressing any​ life-threatening conditions,​ splint:
A. injuries to the legs.
B. injuries to the arms.
C. any suspected extremity fracture.
D. any fracture that has broken the skin.

A

C. any suspected extremity fracture

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12
Q

H-12) Why should you not let a grotesque but relatively minor extremity injury sidetrack you or the patient when assessing a patient with musculoskeletal​ injuries?
A. The pain or terrible appearance of an extremity injury may distract the patient and you from awareness of other injuries or symptoms.
B. ​It’s important to remember where you are in the assessment process to make sure you follow the steps correctly.
C. You will treat any musculoskeletal injury the same​ way, and so​ it’s wrong to assign importance to injuries based on appearance.
D. The more apparently gruesome an injury​ is, the less likely it is to actually be serious.

A

A. The pain or terrible appearance of an extremity injury may distract the patient and you from awareness of other injuries or symptoms

In cases of severe extremity​ trauma, injuries can be very obvious.​ However, when treating trauma​ patients, your priority must be to rapidly identify and treat​ life-threatening conditions first. Do not let a grotesque but relatively minor extremity injury sidetrack you - or the patient. The pain or terrible appearance of an extremity injury may distract the patient from awareness of other injuries or​ symptoms, such as abdominal pain from internal bleeding. Be sure to assess the patient fully and ask appropriate questions to avoid missing other injuries.

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13
Q

H-13) As you care for a patient with a possible lower leg​ injury, you should assess the distal​ pulse, motor​ function, and​ sensation:
A. only before applying a splint to the leg.
B. both before and after applying a splint to the leg.
C. every 5 minutes until arrival at the hospital.
D. only after the application of a splint to the leg.

A

B. both before and after applying a splint to the leg

It is important for the EMT to check the​ patient’s distal​ pulses, motor​ function, and sensation both before and after splinting bone and joint injuries. Document your findings in the prehospital care report.

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14
Q

H-14) If the primary assessment reveals an unstable​ patient, splinting of individual extremity​ injuries:
A. must be done with a traction splint applied to all injured extremities as soon as possible.
B. becomes a low priority.
C. must be done for each individual injury site before transport.
D. is done during the assessment of circulation during the primary assessment.

A

B. becomes a low priority

If the primary assessment reveals that the patient is​ unstable, management of individual extremity injuries becomes a low priority. Do not waste time splinting each injury individually. Wasting time splinting individual injuries is often called​ “splinting the patient to​ death.”

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15
Q
H-15) You are treating a​ 17-year-old female who fell while playing basketball. Her right thigh is​ painful, swollen, and deformed. She is in considerable pain. The most appropriate device for splinting her injury would be​ a:
A. inflatable splint.
B. pneumatic​ anti-shock garment.
C. traction splint.
D. pair of long board splints.
A

C. traction splint

When a patient has a suspected isolated femur fracture​ (painful, swollen, and deformed​ thigh, and a leg that is flexed and will not​ straighten), the most appropriate splint is the traction splint

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16
Q

H-16) If a commercial pelvic splint is not​ available, the next best alternative​ is:
A. backboard straps and a long wooden splint.
B. a pelvic wrap improvised from a sheet.
C. a sling and swathe.
D. cot straps and a backboard.

A

B. a pelvic wrap improvised from a sheet

If a commercial pelvic splint is not​ available, an improvised pelvic wrap may be applied using a sheet.

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17
Q

PT-1) To stabilize a hip​ fracture, how should you bind the legs​ together?
A. Place a folded blanket between the​ patient’s legs and bind the legs together with wide​ straps, Velcro-equipped​ straps, or wide cravats.
B. Secure the patient to a long spine board and then bind the​ patient’s ankles together with a wide strap or​ Velcro-equipped strap.
C. Place the patient on a long spine board and bind the​ patient’s legs against the board with wide cravats or straps.
D. Place the patient on an orthopedic stretcher and then bind the ankles and thighs to the stretcher with wide straps.

A

A. Place a folded blanket between the​ patient’s legs and bind the legs together with wide​ straps, Velcro-equipped​ straps, or wide cravats.

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18
Q

PT-2) For a​ high-priority, unstable patient with musculoskeletal​ injuries, you​ should:
A. apply a cervical collar and then splint specific injuries before transport.
B. splint specific injuries before transport.
C. position the patient on the less injured side and then​ “load and​ go.”
D. immobilize the whole body on a long spine board and​ “load and​ go.”

A

D. immobilize the whole body on a long spine board and​ “load and​ go.”

(Page 910)

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19
Q
PT-3) The humerus is an example of​ a(n):
A. appendicular bone.
B. irregular bone.
C. axial bone.
D. flat bone.
A

A. appendicular bone

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20
Q

PT-4) What is the primary concern about a splint that is applied too​ loosely?
A. It could cause pressure sores to develop from skin rubbing against the splint.
B. It could allow the bone fragments to​ move, which could cause further damage.
C. The splint will cut off distal circulation.
D. The patient will lose motor function in that extremity.

A

B. It could allow the bone fragments to​ move, which could cause further damage.

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21
Q

PT-5) The first step in the progression of compartment syndrome is​ that:
A. cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling.
B. pressure and swelling caused by bleeding within a muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure.
C. a fracture or crush injury causes bleeding or swelling in an extremity.
D. blood flow to the area is​ lost, and the limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved.

A

C. a fracture or crush injury causes bleeding or swelling in an extremity.

Page 905

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22
Q
PT-6) A fracture that results in multiple bone pieces at the fracture site is termed​ a:
A. crush fracture.
B. spiral fracture.
C. fracture dislocation.
D. comminuted fracture.
A

D. comminuted fracture.

Page 903

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23
Q

PT-7) Which of the following is the best sign of a pelvic​ injury?
A. Pain in the​ pelvis, significant mechanism of​ injury, obvious deformity
B. Significant mechanism of​ injury, pain in the​ back, no obvious deformity
C. Rotational injury to the​ spine, no pain in the pelvis or obvious deformity
D. Pain in the​ pelvis, no significant mechanism of injury

A

A. Pain in the​ pelvis, significant mechanism of​ injury, obvious deformity

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24
Q

PT-8) To see the effect of direct​ force, you would look​ at:
A. areas adjacent to the point of impact.
B. all areas of the​ patient’s body.
C. the area of the point of impact.
D. any part of the patient that could have rotated from the impact.

A

C. the area of the point of impact.

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25
Q

PT-9) The first effects of a bone injury are swelling of soft tissue​ and:
A. tearing of cartilage connected to the bone.
B. strain of muscles and sprain of ligaments associated with the bone.
C. referred pain from the injury to associated muscle and bone groups.
D. the formation of a blood clot in the area of the fracture.

A

D. the formation of a blood clot in the area of the fracture.

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26
Q

P-10) A 22-year-old female patient slipped running down​ stairs, and has injured her right tibia and fibula. You have used an air splint to splint the injury. To test the​ splint, you​ can:
A. drum your fingers briefly on the side of the splint.
B. gently brush the length of the split with your fingertips.
C. see if you can cause a slight dent in the plastic with fingertip pressure.
D. ask the patient if the splint is tight enough without being painful.

A

C. see if you can cause a slight dent in the plastic with fingertip pressure.

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27
Q
P-11) When palpating a fracture site on a​ patient's mid-thigh, you notice a grating sensation. This is known​ as:
A. crepitus.
B. stridor.
C. bone grind.
D. thrill.
A

A. crepitus

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28
Q
PT-12) A fracture may be classified​ as:
A. common or uncommon.
B. simple or complex.
C. total or partial.
D. open or closed.
A

D. open or closed.

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29
Q

PT-13) If you see angulation when assessing a​ patient, then:
A. the patient is bending the knees or arms.
B. a bone or bones are out of anatomical position.
C. the​ patient’s distal pulse must be reassessed.
D. splinting is unlikely to be of assistance.

A

B. a bone or bones are out of anatomical position.

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30
Q
PT-14) In a dislocation, what structures other than the joint capsule are likely to be​ injured?
A. Muscles
B. Ligaments
C. Skin and subcutaneous tissue
D. Tendons
A

B. Ligaments

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31
Q

PT-15) When treating a patient with an open musculoskeletal injury to the​ thigh, how would you best treat the open​ wound?
A. Cover the open wound with a sterile​ dressing, pack it with​ ice, and wrap it with​ self-adhesive bandages.
B. Cover the open wound with a sterile​ dressing, elevate the​ extremity, and apply a cold pack to the area to help reduce swelling.
C. Cover the wound with bulky​ dressings, keep the extremity​ level, and transport immediately.
D. Splint the​ wound, cover it with compression​ bandages, and transport as soon as possible.

A

B. Cover the open wound with a sterile​ dressing, elevate the​ extremity, and apply a cold pack to the area to help reduce swelling.

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32
Q
PT-16) A​ 14-year-old girl has fallen from her bicycle. She sustained injuries when she landed with her arm extended to catch her fall. According to the principles of indirect mechanisms of​ injury, which of the following bones is least likely to have been injured in this​ fall?
A. Ulna
B. Thoracic vertebra
C. Clavicle
D. Radius
A

B. Thoracic vertebra

33
Q

PT-17) To realign an​ extremity, an EMT grasps the distal extremity while a partner places one hand above and one hand below the injury​ site, and​ then:
A. the partner supports the site while the first EMT creates gentle manual traction in the direction of the long axis of the extremity.
B. each EMT pulls in a sudden sharp motion away from the site of injury along the long axis of the extremity.
C. each EMT exerts gentle manual traction on either side of the injured site until the limb snaps into place.
D. the partner immobilizes the site with a splint before the first EMT creates gentle manual traction in the direction of the long axis of the extremity.

A

A. the partner supports the site while the first EMT creates gentle manual traction in the direction of the long axis of the extremity.

34
Q
CT-1) The strong white fibrous material called the​ periosteum:
A. protects the perineum.
B. surrounds the heart.
C. surrounds the abdominal cavity.
D. covers the bones.
A

D. covers the bones.

35
Q

CT-2) Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic​ wrap?
A. It can be used if the pelvis shows instability.
B. You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury​ (MOI).
C. It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity.
D. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

A

D. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

36
Q

CT-3) A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal​ injuries?
A. Possible fracture of the humerus
B. Suspected multiple fractures of the​ femur, tibia, and fibula
C. Possible fracture of the cervical spine
D. Possible fracture of the femur

A

D. Possible fracture of the femur

37
Q

CT-4) Which of the following statements is not​ true?
A. An angulated break is when the broken bone segments are at an angle to one another.
B. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.
C. A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone.
D. A fracture is any break in a bone.

A

B. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.

38
Q

CT-5) Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the​ field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false​?
A. The posterior hip dislocation is the most common.
B. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward.
C. A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose.
D. Often there is lack of sensation in the limb.

A

B. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward.

39
Q
CT-6) Which of the following bones is found in the​ chest?
A. Ilium
B. Metacarpals
C. Tarsals
D. Sternum
A

D. Sternum

40
Q
CT-7) Your patient is a​ 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the​ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. ​forearm; humerus
B. ​wrist; elbow
C. ​fingertips; shoulder
D. ​wrist; shoulder
A

A. ​forearm; humerus

41
Q
CT-8) Where could you find the phalange​ bones?
A. Skull and neck
B. Arms
C. Hands and feet
D. Legs
A

C. Hands and feet

42
Q
CT-9) The part of the skeleton that includes the skull and spinal column is called​ the:
A. appendicular skeleton.
B. axial skeleton.
C. boney skeleton.
D. torso.
A

B. axial skeleton.

43
Q

CT-10) Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a​ painful, swollen extremity of a conscious​ patient?
A. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side
B. Gently attempting to flex the​ mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation
C. Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity
D. Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation

A

A. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

44
Q
CT-11) Which of the following is a complication of bone​ fractures?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Nerve damage
C. Swelling
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

45
Q
CT-12) One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as​ follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition​ called?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Crushing syndrome
C. Fracture syndrome
D. Perfusing syndrome
A

A. Compartment syndrome

46
Q

CT-13) Your patient is a​ 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this​ patient’s extremities prior to​ transport?
A. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.
B. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard.
C. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower​ extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures.
D. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and a PASG for the lower extremities.

A

A. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

47
Q
CT-14) Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at​ joints?
A. Ligaments
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cartilage
D. Tendons
A

C. Cartilage

48
Q

CT-15) Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured​ extremity?
A. Converting a closed fracture to an open one
B. Ignoring​ life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
C. Compromising circulation to the extremity
D. All of the above

A

B. Ignoring​ life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

49
Q

CT-16) A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is best managed by which of the following​ techniques?
A. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body
B. Using a​ long-arm air splint
C. Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the​ extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist
D. Using an upper extremity traction splint

A

A. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

50
Q

CT-17) Which of the following is not a principle of splinting that must be considered by the​ EMT?
A. Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it.
B. Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting.
C. Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher.
D. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

A

D. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

51
Q

CT-18) Which one of the following definitions is not​ true?
A. Another name for manual traction is tension.
B. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments.
C. Joints are places where bones articulate.
D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

A

D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

52
Q

CT-19) Your patient is a​ 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a​ third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal​ stimuli, is pale in color with moist​ skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the best sequence of intervention for this​ patient?
A. Provide immediate manual​ in-line stabilization of the cervical​ spine; apply​ high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask; perform a focused history and​ assessment; apply the cervical​ collar; apply a padded board​ splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm​ injury; and transport.
B. Provide manual​ in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of​ breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant​ hemorrhage; apply​ high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma​ exam; immobilize to a long​ backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport.
C. Provide manual​ in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of​ breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant​ hemorrhage; apply​ high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma​ exam; immobilize to a long​ backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.
D. Open the​ airway; assess​ breathing; check the carotid​ pulse; splint the forearm​ injury; immobilize the patient to a long​ backboard; apply​ high-concentration oxygen; and transport.

A

C. Provide manual​ in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of​ breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant​ hemorrhage; apply​ high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma​ exam; immobilize to a long​ backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.

53
Q
CT-20) The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is​ called:
A. angulation.
B. crepitus.
C. paresthesia.
D. deformity.
A

B. crepitus

54
Q

CT-21) A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the​ shoulder, it​ “pops back into​ place.” What should your next step​ be?
A. Check distal​ CSM, apply a sling and​ swathe, and transport the patient.
B. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
C. Check distal​ CSM, apply a traction​ splint, and transport the patient.
D. Report the popping sound to the receiving physician when you arrive at the hospital.

A

A. Check distal​ CSM, apply a sling and​ swathe, and transport the patient.

55
Q

CT-22) Your patient is a​ 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a​ painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of​ action?
A. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.
B. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
C. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.
D. Explain to the patient​ that, because you cannot detect circulation in his​ foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.

A

B. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

56
Q
CT-23) Which of the following is a muscle injury caused by overstretching or overexertion of the​ muscle?
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Fracture
D. Luxation
A

A. Strain

57
Q

CT-24) The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected​ injuries?
A. None of the above
B. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine
C. Hip dislocation
D. Fractured pelvis

A

D. Fractured pelvis

58
Q

CT-25) Which one of the following statements is not​ true?
A. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
B. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.
C. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.
D. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.

A

A. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

59
Q

CT-26) There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of​ splinting?
A. Align​ long-bone injuries to anatomical position.
B. In order to avoid loss of use of a​ limb, it is important to splint before​ moving, even if the patient is unstable.
C. Assess distal CSM.
D. Expose the injury.

A

B. In order to avoid loss of use of a​ limb, it is important to splint before​ moving, even if the patient is unstable.

60
Q

CT-27) Which of the following best describes the compartment​ syndrome?
A. A​ life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels
B. A​ non-life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels
C. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure
D. A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments

A

C. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure

61
Q

CT-28) Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee​ injury?
A. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.
B. Fractures can occur to the patella.
C. There could be pain and tenderness.
D. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

A

D. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

62
Q
CT-29) A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six​ Ps?
A. Pain
B. Pallor
C. Parenthesis
D. Paresthesia
A

C. Parenthesis

63
Q
CT-30) Your patient is a​ 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her​ forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following​ mechanisms?
A. Twisting motion
B. Sudden acceleration
C. Direct force
D. Indirect force
A

D. Indirect force

64
Q
CT-31) Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal​ injury?
A. Twisting or rotational forces
B. Extensive force
C. Indirect force
D. Direct force
A

B. Extensive force

65
Q
CT-32) Blood at the meatus of the penis​ (opening of the​ urethra) is a sign​ of:
A. priapism.
B. pelvic dislocation syndrome.
C. spinal fracture or injury.
D. pelvic​ trauma/fracture.
A

D. pelvic​ trauma/fracture.

66
Q

CT-33) Your patient is a​ 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you​ do?
A. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is​ X-rayed at the emergency​ department, then splint the ankle.
B. Explain to the patient that her ankle is​ fractured, and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain.
C. Transport the patient immediately to a trauma​ center, applying​ high-concentration oxygen en route.
D. Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury.

A

A. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is​ X-rayed at the emergency​ department, then splint the ankle.

67
Q
CT-34) You are treating a​ 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this​ injury?
A. During the primary exam
B. En route to the hospital
C. Immediately
D. During the secondary exam
A

D. During the secondary exam

68
Q

CT-35) A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his​ partner, “How much traction should I​ pull?” The​ partner’s best reply is which of the​ following?
A. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds.
B. No traction splint applied in the field pulls true​ traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction.
C. Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain.
D. The amount of traction applied should be roughly​ 10% of the​ patient’s body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

A

D. The amount of traction applied should be roughly​ 10% of the​ patient’s body weight and not exceed 15 pounds..

69
Q

CT-36) When the EMT is assessing compromise to an​ extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic​ injury, the EMT should initially check what​ “six Ps”?
A. ​Pain, pallor,​ position, pulses,​ placement, and pressure
B. ​Pain, pallor,​ paresthesia, pulses,​ placement, and pressure
C. ​Pain, pallor,​ paresthesia, pulses,​ paralysis, and pressure
D. ​Pain, pallor,​ position, pulses,​ placement, and pad

A

C. ​Pain, pallor,​ paresthesia, pulses,​ paralysis, and pressure

70
Q

CT-37) Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction​ splint?
A. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch
B. ​Pelvis, hip, or knee injury
C. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity
D. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

A

D. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

71
Q

CT-38) Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective​ tissues?
A. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury.
B. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments.
C. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
D. It reduces pain.

A

C. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

72
Q

CT-39) Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not​ true?
A. You should always check for a distal pulse.
B. In a patellar​ dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
C. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency.
D. In a knee​ dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur.

A

B. In a patellar​ dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

73
Q

CT-40) Which of the following describes an open extremity​ injury?
A. A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone.
B. Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside.
C. The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation.
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

74
Q

CT-41) Your patient is an​ 11-year-old male who has a​ swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured​ extremity?
A. Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist.
B. Check​ pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.
C. Use an upper extremity traction splint.
D. Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting.

A

B. Check​ pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.

75
Q

CT-42) What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal​ injuries?
A. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque​ appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from​ life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
B. Splints do not adequately fit the​ patient’s extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization.
C. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.
D. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.

A

A. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque​ appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from​ life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

76
Q

CT-43) Your patient is a​ 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should you​ anticipate?
A. Patient cannot lift legs when lying supine.
B. Patient demonstrates signs of shock.
C. Patient feels the need to empty his bladder.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

77
Q

CT-44) A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is​ effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness​ is:
A. it is hard to access distal pulses after application.
B. it requires three people to apply.
C. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance.
D. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.

A

D. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.

78
Q
CT-45) Which of the following structures connect bone ends and allow for a stable range of​ motion?
A. Tendons
B. Ligaments
C. Periosteum
D. Cartilage
A

B. Ligaments

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