CH 38 EMS Operations Flashcards
H-1) Some states use the standard of which of the following organizations for their ambulances? A. AAA B. NFPA C. NREMT D. NAEMSE
B. NFPA
Some states use the National Fire Protection Association 1917 Standard for Automotive Ambulances.
H-2) Your agency requires an extremely rugged ambulance with a gross vehicle weight in excess of that of most ambulances. Which type of ambulance will it likely need? A. Type A B. Medium duty C. Type I D. Type II
B. Medium duty
Medium-duty ambulances are very rugged and much heavier than most.
H-3) Which of the following pieces of equipment is optional basic equipment?
A. Pulse oximeter with pediatric and adult probes
B. Cervical collar
C. Glucose meter
D. Obstetrical kit
C. Glucose meter
H-4) What is an example of extrication equipment more often found on a heavy rescue vehicle than on the primary responding ambulance? A. Adjustable wrench B. Short impervious backboard C. Head-immobilization device D. Lower-extremity traction device
A. Adjustable wrench
An adjustable wrench is an example of extrication equipment more often found on a heavy rescue vehicle than on the primary responding ambulance.
H-5) Which of the following is included in the daily inspection of the ambulance? A. Checking the turn signals B. Changing the engine oil C. Rotating the tires D. Recharging the fire extinguishers
A. Checking the turn signals
H-6) When inspecting the body of your ambulance, you would:
A. check for worn wheel rims.
B. check the operation of every door.
C. report any damage that may be evident.
D. inspect the windows and mirrors.
C. report any damage that may be evident.
When inspecting the body of the ambulance, report any damage that may be evident, and indicate past damage that has not been repaired.
H-7) An Emergency Medical Dispatcher is trained to provide:
A. prearrival medical instructions to callers.
B. standing orders for field care.
C. advanced life support.
D. medical direction.
A. prearrival medical instructions to callers.
H-8) Which of the following would NOT likely happen for a call involving a nonbreathing and unconscious patient?
A. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher instructs the ambulance to respond “cold.”
B. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher calls for the maximum response.
C. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher advises lights-and-siren mode.
D. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher relays prearrival medical instructions to the caller.
A. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher instructs the ambulance to respond “cold.”
A “cold” response would be normal speed, and would not be appropriate for a nonbreathing and unconscious patient, who should receive a “hot” response in emergency, lights-and-siren mode.
Equivalent would be Code 1
H-9) All of the following are attributes of a safe ambulance operator except which one? A. Able to perform under stress B. Positive attitude C. Physically fit D. Risk taker
D. Risk taker
H-10) Why should the lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box blink in unison?
A. To indicate the size of the ambulance
B. To alert other drivers to pass
C. To signal a turn
D. To signal that the ambulance has stopped
A. To indicate the size of the ambulance
The large lights on the outermost corners of the box should blink in unison, rather than alternating. This helps the driver who is approaching from a distance identify the full size of your vehicle.
H-11) If you are dispatched to a collision in lights-and-siren emergency mode and discover the patient is stable with no immediate life threats, then you should:
A. transport the patient without lights and siren at normal speed.
B. clear the patient for no transport by performing a rapid assessment on scene.
C. have the patient sign a refusal of care form, and return to service.
D. transport as dispatched in lights-and-siren emergency mode.
A. transport the patient without lights and siren at normal speed.
If you are dispatched to a collision in lights-and-siren emergency mode and discover the patient is stable with no immediate life threats, then you should transport the patient without lights and siren at normal speed, because the situation is no longer a true emergency.
H-12) When are emergency vehicle operators typically authorized to disregard traffic laws? A. When traffic is heavy B. When responding to an emergency C. When authorized by medical direction D. Whenever they choose to
B. When responding to an emergency
H-13) For safety at roadway incidents, you should wear:
A. the level of protection worn by other responders.
B. full turnout clothing.
C. an ANSI-approved safety vest and a helmet.
D. anything you would wear on any other call.
A. the level of protection worn by other responders.
If there is no extrication in progress, wear an ANSI-approved safety vest and a helmet. If extrication is indicated, then you should wear full turnout clothing. The basic idea is this: EMS workers should match the level of protection being worn by other responders, such as fire department personnel.
H-14) Backing up an ambulance:
A. is the standard means of exiting an emergency scene.
B. typically works best when you have spotters at the front and rear of the ambulance.
C. is indicated only after a proper scene size-up.
D. should be avoided if possible.
D. should be avoided if possible.
As an operator of an emergency vehicle, you should avoid backing up, if possible, especially during emergencies. There are large blind spots in your mirrors, and a danger of striking a pedestrian, an object, or another vehicle. If you must back up, position someone at the rear of the ambulance as a spotter to guide the backing process.
H-15) If a patient-carrying device has a fourth strap, then this would typically be positioned where? A. Across the upper extremities B. Across the lower extremities C. At chest level D. At hip or waist level
C. At chest level
A patient-carrying device should have a minimum of three straps for securely holding the patient. The first should be at the chest level, the second at hip or waist level, and the third on the lower extremities. Sometimes there is a fourth strap, if two are crossed at the chest.
H-16) Newer stretchers have straps that act as a harness to restrain: A. the lower body. B. the upper body. C. the waist. D. the entire body.
B. the upper body.
Newer stretchers have straps that act as a harness and restrain the upper body. Combining over-the-shoulder straps with encircling straps more securely holds the patient on the stretcher in the event of a collision. If your stretcher has this type of harness, make sure to use it each time.
H-17) If the patient is at risk for developing cardiac arrest during transport, the EMT should: A. place the patient prone. B. apply the AED. C. delay transport. D. have a short spine board positioned.
D. have a short spine board positioned.
If the patient is likely to develop cardiac arrest, position a short spine board or CPR board underneath the mattress prior to starting the trip. Then, if arrest does occur, time will not be wasted locating and positioning the board.
H-18) During patient transport, you should: A. anticipate complications. B. delay further assessment. C. remain unbelted. D. stop the ambulance to assess vitals.
A. anticipate complications.
Anticipate possible complications, and prepare accordingly.
H-19) Which of the following actions is taken after arriving at the receiving hospital facility?
A. Report back in service as soon as you reach the receiving facility.
B. Ask about the patient’s treatment plan in life-threatening emergencies.
C. Leave the ED as soon as you have turned your patient over to the staff, so that you are available for another call.
D. Complete your prehospital care report.
D. Complete your prehospital care report.
As soon as you are free from patient care activities, you should prepare the prehospital care report.
H-20) For transfer of a patient’s personal effects, you should:
A. drop them off with the front desk receptionist.
B. give them to the receiving physician.
C. bag them and keep them with the patient.
D. hand them to a responsible emergency staff member.
D. hand them to a responsible emergency staff member.
If a patient’s valuables or other personal effects were entrusted to your care, transfer them to a responsible emergency department staff member. Some services have policies that involve obtaining a written receipt from emergency department personnel as protection from a charge of theft. Make sure to document any transfer of patient belongings.
H-21) When you have a supply replacement agreement with a hospital, then you should replace expendable items:
A. on a one-for-one basis.
B. with as many new items as you think you might need.
C. only if authorized by emergency department staff.
D. only if they are needed upon return to the station.
A. on a one-for-one basis.
If you have a supply replacement agreement with the hospital, replace expendable items from hospital storerooms on a one-for-one basis, such as sterile dressings, bandaging materials, towels, disposable oxygen masks, disposable gloves, sterile water, and oral airways.
H-22) Ambulance refuel is typically:
A. done at the discretion of the EMT.
B. done only when the gauge reaches the halfway mark.
C. dictated by local policy.
D. done after each call, no matter the distance.
C. dictated by local policy.
Local policy usually dictates the frequency with which an ambulance is refueled. Some services require the operator to refuel after each call, regardless of the distance traveled. In other services, the policy is to refuel when the gauge reaches a certain level. At any rate, the fuel should be at such a level that the ambulance can respond to an emergency and get to the hospital without fear of running out.
H-23) An approach area for a helicopter is: A. head-on from the tail. B. on the right of the tail. C. head-on from the front. D. on the left of the tail.
C. head-on from the front.
From the front or the sides of the body of a helicopter are acceptable approach areas, but not from the sides of or behind the tail.
H-24) When approaching an EMS helicopter parked on a hillside, you must NOT:
A. approach the helicopter from the front.
B. wait to approach until directed to do so by the pilot.
C. approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone.
D. remove your hat.
C. approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone.
The rotor blades are closer to the ground on the uphill side of an uneven landing zone.
PT-1) Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the ambulance: A. at the head. B. only in an emergency. C. at the foot. D. at both ends.
D. at both ends.
PT-2) Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe driving?
A. Wear your seat belts.
B. Ignore GPS and other distractions.
C. Come to a complete stop at intersections.
D. Minimize lights-and-siren “hot” responses.
B. Ignore GPS and other distractions.
PT-3) Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. ALS B. BLS C. Medium duty D. Type A
C. Medium duty
PT-4) After you clean up blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly in:
A. a nearby wastebasket.
B. a red biohazard bag.
C. a clear plastic bag marked “disposables.”
D. any biohazard container nearby.
B. a red biohazard bag.
PT-5) If resuscitation is required, a patient with a suspected spinal injury:
A. can be transported in a sitting position, for comfort.
B. can be propped on the right side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth.
C. can be propped on the left side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth.
D. must remain supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.
D. must remain supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.
PT-6) How many straps should a patient-carrying device have? A. At least three B. At least four C. At least one D. At least two
A. At least three
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PT-7) Before removing any pressure caps, you should: A. pull the ambulance from quarters. B. turn on the engine. C. chock the wheels. D. allow the engine to cool.
D. allow the engine to cool.
PT-8) At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be performed?
A. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift
B. On returning to service after the first call of the shift
C. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift
D. At the beginning of your shift, before your first call
D. At the beginning of your shift, before your first call
PT-9) If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the highway, you should:
A. set up your staging area on a crossover.
B. use your vehicle to protect the scene.
C. set up a safe area to stage behind the incident.
D. wait in your vehicle for additional units.
B. use your vehicle to protect the scene.
PT-10) Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following except: A. prevent infection. B. prevent exposure to the elements. C. ensure privacy. D. maintain body temperature.
A. prevent infection.
PT-11) You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example of: A. providing a written report. B. patient advocacy. C. transfer of care. D. abandonment.
D. abandonment.
PT-12) Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained to:
A. provide prearrival medical instructions.
B. provide medical direction.
C. administer advanced life support.
D. review EMS encounter forms.
A. provide prearrival medical instructions.
