Question 1

``` H-1) Some states use the standard of which of the following organizations for their​ ambulances? A. AAA B. NFPA C. NREMT D. NAEMSE ```

Accepted Answer

B. NFPA Some states use the National Fire Protection Association 1917 Standard for Automotive Ambulances.

Question 2

``` H-2) Your agency requires an extremely rugged ambulance with a gross vehicle weight in excess of that of most ambulances. Which type of ambulance will it likely​ need? A. Type A B. Medium duty C. Type I D. Type II ```

Accepted Answer

B. Medium duty ​Medium-duty ambulances are very rugged and much heavier than most.

Question 3

H-3) Which of the following pieces of equipment is optional basic​ equipment? A. Pulse oximeter with pediatric and adult probes B. Cervical collar C. Glucose meter D. Obstetrical kit

Accepted Answer

C. Glucose meter

Question 4

``` H-4) What is an example of extrication equipment more often found on a heavy rescue vehicle than on the primary responding​ ambulance? A. Adjustable wrench B. Short impervious backboard C. ​Head-immobilization device D. ​Lower-extremity traction device ```

Accepted Answer

A. Adjustable wrench An adjustable wrench is an example of extrication equipment more often found on a heavy rescue vehicle than on the primary responding ambulance.

Question 5

``` H-5) Which of the following is included in the daily inspection of the​ ambulance? A. Checking the turn signals B. Changing the engine oil C. Rotating the tires D. Recharging the fire extinguishers ```

Accepted Answer

A. Checking the turn signals

Question 6

H-6) When inspecting the body of your​ ambulance, you​ would: A. check for worn wheel rims. B. check the operation of every door. C. report any damage that may be evident. D. inspect the windows and mirrors.

Accepted Answer

C. report any damage that may be evident. When inspecting the body of the​ ambulance, report any damage that may be​ evident, and indicate past damage that has not been repaired.

Question 7

H-7) An Emergency Medical Dispatcher is trained to​ provide: A. prearrival medical instructions to callers. B. standing orders for field care. C. advanced life support. D. medical direction.

Accepted Answer

A. prearrival medical instructions to callers.

Question 8

H-8) Which of the following would NOT likely happen for a call involving a nonbreathing and unconscious​ patient? A. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher instructs the ambulance to respond​ "cold." B. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher calls for the maximum response. C. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher advises​ lights-and-siren mode. D. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher relays prearrival medical instructions to the caller.

Accepted Answer

A. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher instructs the ambulance to respond​ "cold." A​ "cold" response would be normal​ speed, and would not be appropriate for a nonbreathing and unconscious​ patient, who should receive a​ "hot" response in​ emergency, lights-and-siren mode. Equivalent would be Code 1

Question 9

``` H-9) All of the following are attributes of a safe ambulance operator except which​ one? A. Able to perform under stress B. Positive attitude C. Physically fit D. Risk taker ```

Accepted Answer

D. Risk taker

Question 10

H-10) Why should the lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box blink in​ unison? A. To indicate the size of the ambulance B. To alert other drivers to pass C. To signal a turn D. To signal that the ambulance has stopped

Accepted Answer

A. To indicate the size of the ambulance The large lights on the outermost corners of the box should blink in​ unison, rather than alternating. This helps the driver who is approaching from a distance identify the full size of your vehicle.

Question 11

H-11) If you are dispatched to a collision in​ lights-and-siren emergency mode and discover the patient is stable with no immediate life​ threats, then you​ should: A. transport the patient without lights and siren at normal speed. B. clear the patient for no transport by performing a rapid assessment on scene. C. have the patient sign a refusal of care​ form, and return to service. D. transport as dispatched in​ lights-and-siren emergency mode.

Accepted Answer

A. transport the patient without lights and siren at normal speed. If you are dispatched to a collision in​ lights-and-siren emergency mode and discover the patient is stable with no immediate life​ threats, then you should transport the patient without lights and siren at normal​ speed, because the situation is no longer a true emergency.

Question 12

``` H-12) When are emergency vehicle operators typically authorized to disregard traffic​ laws? A. When traffic is heavy B. When responding to an emergency C. When authorized by medical direction D. Whenever they choose to ```

Accepted Answer

B. When responding to an emergency

Question 13

H-13) For safety at roadway​ incidents, you should​ wear: A. the level of protection worn by other responders. B. full turnout clothing. C. an​ ANSI-approved safety vest and a helmet. D. anything you would wear on any other call.

Accepted Answer

A. the level of protection worn by other responders. If there is no extrication in​ progress, wear an​ ANSI-approved safety vest and a helmet. If extrication is​ indicated, then you should wear full turnout clothing. The basic idea is​ this: EMS workers should match the level of protection being worn by other​ responders, such as fire department personnel.

Question 14

H-14) Backing up an​ ambulance: A. is the standard means of exiting an emergency scene. B. typically works best when you have spotters at the front and rear of the ambulance. C. is indicated only after a proper scene​ size-up. D. should be avoided if possible.

Accepted Answer

D. should be avoided if possible. As an operator of an emergency​ vehicle, you should avoid backing​ up, if​ possible, especially during emergencies. There are large blind spots in your​ mirrors, and a danger of striking a​ pedestrian, an​ object, or another vehicle. If you must back​ up, position someone at the rear of the ambulance as a spotter to guide the backing process.

Question 15

``` H-15) If a​ patient-carrying device has a fourth​ strap, then this would typically be positioned​ where? A. Across the upper extremities B. Across the lower extremities C. At chest level D. At hip or waist level ```

Accepted Answer

C. At chest level A​ patient-carrying device should have a minimum of three straps for securely holding the patient. The first should be at the chest​ level, the second at hip or waist​ level, and the third on the lower extremities. Sometimes there is a fourth​ strap, if two are crossed at the chest.

Question 16

``` H-16) Newer stretchers have straps that act as a harness to​ restrain: A. the lower body. B. the upper body. C. the waist. D. the entire body. ```

Accepted Answer

B. the upper body. Newer stretchers have straps that act as a harness and restrain the upper body. Combining​ over-the-shoulder straps with encircling straps more securely holds the patient on the stretcher in the event of a collision. If your stretcher has this type of​ harness, make sure to use it each time.

Question 17

``` H-17) If the patient is at risk for developing cardiac arrest during​ transport, the EMT​ should: A. place the patient prone. B. apply the AED. C. delay transport. D. have a short spine board positioned. ```

Accepted Answer

D. have a short spine board positioned. If the patient is likely to develop cardiac​ arrest, position a short spine board or CPR board underneath the mattress prior to starting the trip.​ Then, if arrest does​ occur, time will not be wasted locating and positioning the board.

Question 18

``` H-18) During patient​ transport, you​ should: A. anticipate complications. B. delay further assessment. C. remain unbelted. D. stop the ambulance to assess vitals. ```

Accepted Answer

A. anticipate complications. Anticipate possible​ complications, and prepare accordingly.

Question 19

H-19) Which of the following actions is taken after arriving at the receiving hospital​ facility? A. Report back in service as soon as you reach the receiving facility. B. Ask about the​ patient's treatment plan in​ life-threatening emergencies. C. Leave the ED as soon as you have turned your patient over to the​ staff, so that you are available for another call. D. Complete your prehospital care report.

Accepted Answer

D. Complete your prehospital care report. As soon as you are free from patient care​ activities, you should prepare the prehospital care report.

Question 20

H-20) For transfer of a​ patient's personal​ effects, you​ should: A. drop them off with the front desk receptionist. B. give them to the receiving physician. C. bag them and keep them with the patient. D. hand them to a responsible emergency staff member.

Accepted Answer

D. hand them to a responsible emergency staff member. If a​ patient's valuables or other personal effects were entrusted to your​ care, transfer them to a responsible emergency department staff member. Some services have policies that involve obtaining a written receipt from emergency department personnel as protection from a charge of theft. Make sure to document any transfer of patient belongings.

Question 21

H-21) When you have a supply replacement agreement with a​ hospital, then you should replace expendable​ items: A. on a​ one-for-one basis. B. with as many new items as you think you might need. C. only if authorized by emergency department staff. D. only if they are needed upon return to the station.

Accepted Answer

A. on a​ one-for-one basis. If you have a supply replacement agreement with the​ hospital, replace expendable items from hospital storerooms on a​ one-for-one basis, such as sterile​ dressings, bandaging​ materials, towels, disposable oxygen​ masks, disposable​ gloves, sterile​ water, and oral airways.

Question 22

H-22) Ambulance refuel is​ typically: A. done at the discretion of the EMT. B. done only when the gauge reaches the halfway mark. C. dictated by local policy. D. done after each​ call, no matter the distance.

Accepted Answer

C. dictated by local policy. Local policy usually dictates the frequency with which an ambulance is refueled. Some services require the operator to refuel after each​ call, regardless of the distance traveled. In other​ services, the policy is to refuel when the gauge reaches a certain level. At any​ rate, the fuel should be at such a level that the ambulance can respond to an emergency and get to the hospital without fear of running out.

Question 23

``` H-23) An approach area for a helicopter​ is: A. ​head-on from the tail. B. on the right of the tail. C. ​head-on from the front. D. on the left of the tail. ```

Accepted Answer

C. ​head-on from the front. From the front or the sides of the body of a helicopter are acceptable approach​ areas, but not from the sides of or behind the tail.

Question 24

H-24) When approaching an EMS helicopter parked on a​ hillside, you must​ NOT: A. approach the helicopter from the front. B. wait to approach until directed to do so by the pilot. C. approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone. D. remove your hat.

Accepted Answer

C. approach the helicopter from the uphill side of the landing zone. The rotor blades are closer to the ground on the uphill side of an uneven landing zone.

Question 25

``` PT-1) Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the​ ambulance: A. at the head. B. only in an emergency. C. at the foot. D. at both ends. ```

Accepted Answer

D. at both ends.

Question 26

PT-2) Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe​ driving? A. Wear your seat belts. B. Ignore GPS and other distractions. C. Come to a complete stop at intersections. D. Minimize​ lights-and-siren "hot" responses.

Accepted Answer

B. Ignore GPS and other distractions.

Question 27

``` PT-3) Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. ALS B. BLS C. Medium duty D. Type A ```

Accepted Answer

C. Medium duty

Question 28

PT-4) After you clean up​ blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your​ ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly​ in: A. a nearby wastebasket. B. a red biohazard bag. C. a clear plastic bag marked​ "disposables." D. any biohazard container nearby.

Accepted Answer

B. a red biohazard bag.

Question 29

PT-5) If resuscitation is​ required, a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury: A. can be transported in a sitting​ position, for comfort. B. can be propped on the right​ side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth. C. can be propped on the left​ side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth. D. must remain​ supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

Accepted Answer

D. must remain​ supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

Question 30

``` PT-6) How many straps should a​ patient-carrying device​ have? A. At least three B. At least four C. At least one D. At least two ```

Accepted Answer

A. At least three page 1160

Question 31

``` PT-7) Before removing any pressure​ caps, you​ should: A. pull the ambulance from quarters. B. turn on the engine. C. chock the wheels. D. allow the engine to cool. ```

Accepted Answer

D. allow the engine to cool.

Question 32

PT-8) At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be​ performed? A. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift B. On returning to service after the first call of the shift C. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift D. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call

Accepted Answer

D. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call

Question 33

PT-9) If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the​ highway, you​ should: A. set up your staging area on a crossover. B. use your vehicle to protect the scene. C. set up a safe area to stage behind the incident. D. wait in your vehicle for additional units.

Accepted Answer

B. use your vehicle to protect the scene.

Question 34

``` PT-10) Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following​ except: A. prevent infection. B. prevent exposure to the elements. C. ensure privacy. D. maintain body temperature. ```

Accepted Answer

A. prevent infection.

Question 35

``` PT-11) You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are​ busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example​ of: A. providing a written report. B. patient advocacy. C. transfer of care. D. abandonment. ```

Accepted Answer

D. abandonment.

Question 36

PT-12) Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained​ to: A. provide prearrival medical instructions. B. provide medical direction. C. administer advanced life support. D. review EMS encounter forms.

Accepted Answer

A. provide prearrival medical instructions.

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CH 38 EMS Operations Flashcards

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