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Mid-Term Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of these patients would be categorized as a toddler?

  1. 28 month old
  2. 4 1/2 y/o
  3. 6 month old
  4. 48 month old (4 y/o)
A
  1. 28 month old
Infant - 0-12 months
Toddler - 12 - 36 months (1-3 y/o)
Pre-School Age - 3 - 5 y/o
School Age - 6 - 12 y/o
Adolescence - 13-18 y/o
Early Adulthood - 19 - 40 y/o
Mid Adulthood - 41-60 y/o
Late Adulthood - 61 -
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2
Q

Which attribute of a person would NOT likely work out well in the EMS profession?

  1. Being able to adapt to a situation when things become chaotic
  2. Inability or no desire to “take charge”
  3. Willingness to hold what is learned about patients, good and bad, in confidence
  4. Being able to make good decisions with minimal information
A
  1. Inability or no desire to “take charge”
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3
Q

You have been asked to sit on your service’s quality improvement (QI) committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that in this role you will be involved in projects that are primarily designed to:

  1. Recruit and educate EMTs about the Emergency Medical Services profession
  2. Communicate with insurance companies for increased reimbursement
  3. Identify and reeducate EMTs who routinely do not provide proper care
  4. Develop ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved
A
  1. Develop ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved
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4
Q

Which statement about emergency medical services in the United States is true?

  1. Each state has control of its own EMS system, independent of the federal government
  2. The EMS system is controlled and governed by the National Highway Transport and Safety Administration (NHTSA)
  3. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services establishes curricula for all levels of EMS education
  4. The federal government oversees all aspects of EMS in the United States
A
  1. The EMS system is controlled and governed by the National Highway Transport and Safety Administration (NHTSA)
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5
Q

You have arrived at the scene of a medical emergency and find a woman lying on the floor of a grocery store. As you approach her, you know that your FIRST priority as an EMT is:

  1. Public safety
  2. Personal safety
  3. Patient Advocacy
  4. Patient Care
A
  1. Personal safety
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6
Q

What would be a logical project to be undertaken and developed by a quality improvement (QI) committee?

  1. Termination of EMTs who are chronically late to work
  2. Community fundraiser to raise money for new EMS equipment
  3. Monthly continuing education programs in which seldom-used skills are practiced
  4. A program by which pay raises are based on performance and attitude
A
  1. Monthly continuing education programs in which seldom-used skills are practiced
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7
Q

You are by the side of a confused patient who has diabetes and a low blood sugar level. You know that the patient needs orally administered sugar, so you contact medical control and request permission to administer it. This request is an example of:

  1. On-line medical direction
  2. standing orders
  3. off-line medical direction
  4. medical cooperation
A
  1. On-line medical direction
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8
Q

Perfusion is best described as:

  1. Delivery of essential products and nutrients to the cells
  2. Availability of oxygen in the lungs for movement into the blood
  3. An adequate number of white blood cells to carry oxygen to the cells
  4. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood
A
  1. Delivery of essential products and nutrients to the cells
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9
Q

What is required for normal perfusion to occur?

  1. Airway patency, proper amounts of carbon dioxide, and adequate glucose levels
  2. Intact breathing, an ample number of red blood cells, and body temperature of 98.6°F
  3. Adequate breathing, sufficient numbers of red blood cells, and sufficient heart function
  4. Patent airway, sufficient breathing, high amounts of glucose, and good heart function
A
  1. Adequate breathing, sufficient numbers of red blood cells, and sufficient heart function
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10
Q

What is the BEST description of minute ventilation?

  1. Amount of oxygen needed by the body in 1 minute
  2. Number of breaths a patient breathes in 1 minute
  3. Total milliliters of air moving into and out of the lungs in one breath
  4. Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs in 1 minute
A
  1. Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs in 1 minute
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11
Q

What is the primary way in which oxygen is transported to the cells?

  1. White blood cells
  2. Platelets
  3. Plasma
  4. Red Blood Cells
A
  1. Red Blood Cells
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12
Q

You are caring for a 66-year-old male patient who is severely dehydrated. How does severe dehydration affect the cardiovascular system?

  1. It reduces the hemoglobin available to carry O2
  2. It slows the production of white blood cells to fight infection
  3. It impairs the ability of O2 to diffuse from the lungs to the blood
  4. It decreases the blood volume available for circulation
A
  1. It decreases the blood volume available for circulation
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13
Q

You are checking the oxygen tank in the ambulance and note that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi. You should recognize that the tank is:

  1. Leaking
  2. Almost empty
  3. Overfilled
  4. Half Full
A
  1. Half Full
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14
Q

When does hypoxia occur?

  1. When carbon dioxide is excreted too rapidly from the lungs
  2. If inadequate amounts of O2 are available to the cells
  3. If the respiratory rate decreases to less than 12 breaths per minute
  4. When carbon dioxide accumulates within the body
A
  1. If inadequate amounts of O2 are available to the cells
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15
Q

What is obstructing the airway when snoring is heard?

  1. Fluid in the upper airway
  2. The tongue
  3. Swelling of the larynx
  4. Bronchospasm
A
  1. The tongue
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16
Q

On arrival at a lethargic patient’s side, you note her to have gurgling respirations. What is the BEST treatment for this condition?

  1. Jaw-thrust maneuver
  2. Suction
  3. Oropharyngeal airway
  4. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
A
  1. Suction
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17
Q

In a healthy person, the primary stimulus to breathe is:

  1. Diaphragm position
  2. Carbon dioxide levels
  3. Oxygen levels in the arteries
  4. Lung pressures
A

2.Carbon dioxide levels

If the body starts to change over (i.e. in a COPD patient), to use the levels of O2 as a drive for respiration, it is called HYPOXIC drive

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18
Q

The EMT should use the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway for the patient with which type of presentation?

  1. Cardiac arrest in bed
  2. Overdose with snoring respirations
  3. Unresponsive after falling from a porch
  4. Stroke with gurgling respirations
A
  1. Unresponsive after falling from a porch
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19
Q

A patient with chest discomfort has the following vital signs: pulse, 88; respirations, 14 breaths/min; blood pressure, 154/84 mmHg; and pulse-ox of 97% on room air. In this situation, the EMT would address oxygen therapy by:

  1. Using a nasal cannula with flow of 4 LPM
  2. Providing O2 via a NRB at 15 LPM
  3. Administering blow-by O2 at 5 LPM
  4. Withholding the use of O2
A
  1. Using a nasal cannula with flow of 4 LPM
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20
Q

You are transferring an unresponsive patient from her house to the ambulance on the stretcher. An oral airway has been placed and ventilations with the bag-valve mask are being administered. Suddenly, the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:

  1. Reassure and calm the patient
  2. Leave the airway in, but stop ventilations
  3. Suction the airway
  4. Remove the oral airway
A
  1. Remove the oral airway
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21
Q

A 21-year-old female patient has overdosed on an unknown drug. She has snoring respirations and has a gag reflex. She has weak respiratory effort and is slightly cyanotic. Given these assessment findings, your care should include:

  1. oxygen via nonrebreather face mask
  2. transport of the patient in the lateral recumbent (recovery) position
  3. placement of an oropharyngeal airway
  4. insertion of a nasal airway
A
  1. insertion of a nasal airway
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22
Q

A 52-year-old male patient who has gone into respiratory arrest, but still has a pulse and blood pressure. You assign the task of ventilating the patient to a new Emergency Medical Responder. How will you instruct him to ventilate the patient?

  1. Administer 6-8 breaths per minute
  2. Give the patient 18-20 breaths per minute
  3. Give the patient 24-26 breaths per minute
  4. Deliver 10-12 breaths per minute
A
  1. Deliver 10-12 breaths per minute
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23
Q

What is the preferred method of providing high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient in the prehospital setting?

  1. Simple face mask
  2. Nasal Cannula
  3. Nonrebreather facemask
  4. Venturi mask
A
  1. Nonrebreather facemask
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24
Q

What is a benefit of using a humidification system when administering oxygen?

  1. Oxygen therapy is less drying to the upper respiratory tract
  2. A higher flow rate can be used with a nasal cannula when humidification is added
  3. Increased diffusion of oxygen occurs across the respiratory membrane
  4. Humidification reduces the chances of respiratory infection
A
  1. Oxygen therapy is less drying to the upper respiratory tract
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25
Q

A listless and lethargic 84-year-old male patient responds to physical stimuli with garbled speech. His respirations show poor effort and are rapid and labored, with a pulse-ox of 84%. The BEST form of oxygen therapy for this patient would be:

  1. Positive pressure ventilation
  2. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
  3. Oxygen at 2 lpm via nasal cannula initially and increase the liter flow as needed
  4. High-concentration oxygen via a nonrebreather mask
A
  1. Positive pressure ventilation
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26
Q

A coworker is suffering from post-traumatic stress. Which statement made by you would be the MOST appropriate and beneficial to the coworker?

  1. “How about taking a Benadryl before bed to promote restful sleep?”
  2. “Maybe you can get the medical director to write a prescription for some medication.”
  3. “It would be best to take a few weeks off from work.”
  4. “I think that it would be best if you saw a mental health professional.”
A
  1. “I think that it would be best if you saw a mental health professional.”
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27
Q

A patient informs you that he was recently diagnosed with HIV, but has yet to develop AIDS. Given this information, which statement is TRUE?

  1. Family members should not share the patient’s hand towels or utensils
  2. Gloves and eye protection will be enough protection under most conditions unless body fluids are present
  3. The hepatitis B and C vaccines provide the EMT with limited protection from transmission of HIV
  4. Until the patient develops AIDS, he is not infectious
A
  1. Gloves and eye protection will be enough protection under most conditions unless body fluids are present
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28
Q

While you are assessing a patient with abdominal pain, the patient informs you that he is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B. His skin is not jaundiced, nor does he have a fever. As an EMT, you realize:

  1. A mask must be placed over the patient’s mouth
  2. The patient’s blood and body fluids are infectious
  3. The hepatitis B vaccine will not protect you if you are exposed to the virus
  4. The patient has the disease but is not infectious
A
  1. The patient’s blood and body fluids are infectious

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29
Q

You are accidentally stuck with a needle used to administer a medication to a patient. Which statement is true?

  1. You need to report the needle stick to your supervisor as soon as possible
  2. You have complete protection from hepatitis B and no further action is needed
  3. You have two weeks from the time of exposure to start medical care for a potential infection
  4. You will have to get another series of three vaccines to give you protection in the future
A
  1. You need to report the needle stick to your supervisor as soon as possible
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30
Q

You are treating a patient with active tuberculosis. What will afford you the BEST protection from the disease while you care for the patient?

  1. Purified protein derivative injection
  2. High-efficiency filtered mask
  3. Surgical mask with a face shield
  4. Gloves, gown, and goggles
A
  1. High-efficiency filtered mask
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31
Q

A 38-year-old male is complaining of generalized weakness and fatigue. Assessment findings include abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of the eyes. Given these signs and symptoms, you would be suspicious of

  1. West Nile Virus
  2. Tuberculous
  3. AIDS
  4. Hepatitis
A
  1. Hepatitis
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32
Q

A young girl with end-stage cancer is unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. Her mother and father are by her side, both crying as you start resuscitation. Which statement indicates the MOST appropriate thing you could say to the parents as you begin?

  1. “It is important not to cry since she may still be able to hear you and needs you to be strong for her.”
  2. “If you feel comfortable, it’s okay to stay and watch how we care for your daughter.”
  3. “I think that it would be best for you both to leave the room so we can care for your daughter.”
  4. “I can show you how to do chest compressions so that you can take part in caring for your daughter.”
A
  1. “If you feel comfortable, it’s okay to stay and watch how we care for your daughter.”
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33
Q

A reaction to death or dying where the patient asserts “Not me!” is recognized as which stage of grieving?

  1. Depression
  2. Denial
  3. Bargaining
  4. Anger
A
  1. Denial
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34
Q

You are assessing a 61-year-old male patient who is confused. During the primary assessment, you cannot locate a radial pulse. Your immediate action should be to

  1. Apply the AED
  2. Check for a carotid pulse
  3. Call for ALS assistance
  4. Start CPR
A
  1. Check for a carotid pulse
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35
Q

A blood pressure is reported as 116/68 mmHg. Given this finding, which of these statements is true?

  1. The diastolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg
  2. The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg
  3. The systolic pressure is determined by subtracting 68 from 116
  4. The top number reflects the diastolic blood pressure
A
  1. The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg
36
Q

During the primary assessment, you locate the radial pulse. What should you do next?

  1. Establish the patient’s level of consciousness
  2. Assess the patient’s breathing
  3. Determine the rate and quality
  4. Obtain a blood pressure
A
  1. Determine the rate and quality
37
Q

To assess a patient’s blood pressure, the EMT will need a:

  1. Pair of gloves and stethoscope
  2. Pulse oximeter
  3. Sphygmomanometer
  4. Pulse oximeter and stethoscope
A
  1. Sphygmomanometer
38
Q

You determine a patient’s radial pulse is readily palpable, but has uneven intervals between beats. This finding would BEST be documented on the prehospital care report as:

  1. Thready and regular
  2. Prominent and bounding
  3. Strong and irregular
  4. Bounding and regular
A
  1. Strong and irregular
39
Q

You determine a patient’s heart rate to be 48 beats/min. That heart rate would be categorized as:

  1. Normal
  2. Tachycardic
  3. Tachypneic
  4. Bradycardic
A
  1. Bradycardic
40
Q

When evaluating a patient’s skin color, the EMT should:

  1. Look at the skin on the upper chest and feel it for warmth
  2. Examine the skin color of the face and compare it with the color of the arms
  3. Observe the nail beds and/or mucous membranes inside the eyelids
  4. Examine the change in skin color when applying, then releasing pressure to the nail beds
A
  1. Examine the change in skin color when applying, then releasing pressure to the nail beds
41
Q

Your patient is 82 years old and has diabetes. Which assessment parameter is the LEAST reliable sign indicating this patient’s peripheral circulatory status?

  1. Capillary refill
  2. Skin temperature
  3. Pulse strength
  4. Skin color
A
  1. Capillary refill
42
Q

En route to the hospital, you start the reassessment of a 22-year-old trauma patient. You should begin this assessment by:

  1. Repeating the primary assessment
  2. Checking all interventions
  3. Rechecking vital signs
  4. Assessing for additional injuries
A
  1. Repeating the primary assessment
43
Q
  1. You and your partner are first on the scene of a bleacher collapse at a local raceway. As you exit the ambulance, you note several patients seated throughout the debris. In this situation, which action would you perform FIRST?
  2. Determine the severity of injuries
  3. Wait for additional units to arrive
  4. Determine the number of patients
  5. Notify the local hospitals of a mass-casualty incident
A
  1. Determine the number of patients
44
Q

If a scene becomes unsafe after you have entered, you should FIRST:

  1. Call for assistance on the radio
  2. Notify the EMS supervisor
  3. Remove yourself from the scene
  4. Attempt to neutralize the threat
A
  1. Remove yourself from the scene
45
Q

You have been dispatched to an apartment for an elderly male complaining of shortness of breath. When do you start the process of forming a general impression about this patient?

  1. Following the completion of vital signs
  2. As you and your partner approach him
  3. After completing the primary assessment
  4. As soon as you obtain his chief complaint
A
  1. As you and your partner approach him
46
Q

Forming a general impression is essential in the assessment of any patient because it:

  1. Determines the stability or instability of a patient
  2. Helps to determine the clinical status of a patient
  3. Indicates whether a primary assessment is required
  4. Reveals the injuries the patient has suffered
A
  1. Helps to determine the clinical status of a patient
47
Q

Forming the general impression starts during which phase of patient assessment?

  1. Reassessment
  2. Secondary assessment
  3. Care transfer in the emergency department
  4. Primary assessment
A
  1. Primary assessment
48
Q

The EMT is using the OPQRST mnemonic to gather information from a patient with abdominal pain. Which of these patient statements is a response to the “P” component of this memory aid?

  1. “My pulse feels as though it is racing.”
  2. “I have a past history of asthma.”
  3. “It hurts worse when I take a deep breath.”
  4. “The pain started about 2 hours ago.”
A
  1. “It hurts worse when I take a deep breath.”
49
Q

A 28-year-old female patient has fallen 20 feet from the roof a house. She is lying supine and does not appear to be conscious or breathing. On arrival at her side, what should the EMT do FIRST?

  1. Start positive pressure ventilation after placing an OPA or NPA
  2. Apply manual in-line spinal motion restriction
  3. Open her airway and assess her circulation
  4. Open her airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
A
  1. Apply manual in-line spinal motion restriction
50
Q

The EMT determines the medications a patient takes during which phase of the patient assessment?

  1. Chief complaint
  2. Primary assessment
  3. SAMPLE history
  4. OPQRST exam
A
  1. SAMPLE history
51
Q

A 5-year-old boy has been vomiting profusely for two days. Your assessment indicates that his airway is open, respirations adequate, and radial pulse fast and weak. His skin is cool and moist, and the capillary refill time is 5 seconds. This patient is MOST likely:

  1. Poorly perfused
  2. Malnourished
  3. Hypoxic
  4. Feverous
A
  1. Poorly perfused
52
Q

During the primary assessment, how should you best determine the adequacy of a patient’s breathing?

  1. Calculate the number of breaths per minute
  2. Compare the respirations and pulse rate
  3. Determine the patient’s mental status
  4. Examine the rise and fall of the chest
A
  1. Examine the rise and fall of the chest
53
Q

You have been called for an 83-year-old female patient who is having difficulty breathing. She informs you that she has congestive heart failure and feels as though she is filling up with fluid. When performing a secondary assessment, which sign related to heart failure would you specifically look for when examining this patient’s neck?

  1. Deviated trachea
  2. Jugular vein distention
  3. Bruising to the neck
  4. Posterior tenderness on palpation
A
  1. Jugular vein distention
54
Q

You are assessing an 8-month-old child whose mother states that he has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking normally. When assessing the pulse, you should check which site?

  1. Brachial
  2. Radial
  3. Femoral
  4. Temporal
A
  1. Brachial
55
Q

When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her:

  1. Legs
  2. Back
  3. Arms
  4. Abdomen
A
  1. Legs
56
Q

When an EMT places his palm and all fingers in contact with the object being lifted, he is using the:

  1. Power grip
  2. Power lift
  3. Lock grip
  4. Squat grip
A
  1. Power grip
57
Q

A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has critical injuries and must be removed from the car for care and transport to the hospital. Prior to removing the patient from the vehicle, what MUST be done?

  1. Application of a vest-type immobilization device
  2. Application of a cervical collar
  3. Completion of the primary assessment and vital signs
  4. Completion of the primary and secondary exams
A
  1. Application of a cervical collar
58
Q

A patient has fallen in his upstairs bathroom and is lying on the floor. Assessment indicates no life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation; however, the patient does have pain, deformity, and bruising to his right hip. In this situation, the EMT should recognize the need for which type of move?

  1. Emergency
  2. Non-urgent
  3. Passive
  4. Urgent
A
  1. Non-urgent
59
Q

When carrying equipment, the EMT should:

  1. Bend backward for counterbalance
  2. Keep his or her back straight as best possible
  3. Tilt his body to the right side
  4. Lean to the left side for compensation
A
  1. Keep his or her back straight as best possible
60
Q

When lifting the stretcher with a patient secured to it, the EMT must avoid which action?

  1. Maintaining a straight back
  2. Contracting the abdominal muscles
  3. Lifting with the thigh muscles
  4. Bending over at the waist
A
  1. Bending over at the waist
61
Q

When transferring a patient from a bed to a wheeled stretcher, an EMT uses proper body mechanics when he or she:

  1. Transfers the patient to the stretcher all at once, not in stages
  2. Keeps his arms locked and the patient away from his body during the transfer
  3. Primarily uses the muscles of his back to move the patient
  4. Aligns his shoulder, hips, and feet when moving the patient
A
  1. Aligns his shoulder, hips, and feet when moving the patient
62
Q

One advantage of using the wheeled stretcher is:

  1. It rolls smoothly over rough terrain
  2. It can be safely moved by one EMT with a patient on it
  3. It can be adjusted to different positions or heights
  4. It cannot become unbalanced on a slope or rough terrain
A
  1. It can be adjusted to different positions or heights
63
Q

When reaching forward to perform a logroll, the EMT should:

  1. Use the shoulder muscles
  2. Keep the back flexed
  3. Lean from the waist
  4. Reach no more than 30 inches
A
  1. Use the shoulder muscles
64
Q

A 46-year-old man who is conscious and is refusing treatment despite crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He states that the hospital will not do anything for him and he does not want you to treat or transport him. The EMT should recognize that the:

  1. Patient will need to be transported against his will
  2. Police will need to be called so the patient can be transported in custody
  3. Patient’s family can give consent to transport the patient
  4. Patient has a right to refuse treatment and transport
A
  1. Patient has a right to refuse treatment and transport
65
Q

Which patient may be treated under the guideline of implied consent?

  1. A 47-year-old female with severe abdominal pain who is refusing transport after placing the call to 911 for help
  2. An unresponsive 33-year-old female who is suspected of taking recreational drugs
  3. An adult patient with chest pain and shortness of breath who is refusing treatment and transport by EMS
  4. A 2-year-old boy who fell down a flight of stairs and whose parents want him taken to the hospital
A
  1. An unresponsive 33-year-old female who is suspected of taking recreational drugs
66
Q

What BEST illustrates the EMT’s failure to meet the standard of care when treating a patient with chest pain?

  1. Failing to start an IV on the patient
  2. Failing to notify the patient’s primary care physician
  3. Failing to give the patient oxygen if needed.
  4. Failing to assist the patient in taking her heart palpitation medication
A
  1. Failing to give the patient oxygen if needed.
67
Q

A 62-year-old male is short of breath. The EMT asks the patient if it would be okay to assess him, including taking his vital signs. The patient agrees by nodding the head “yes.” As such, which is true?

  1. Informed consent has been obtained by the EMT
  2. The EMT has gained implied consent
  3. The patient can be transported without further permission
  4. The EMT has obtained expressed consent
A
  1. The EMT has obtained expressed consent
68
Q

You have been called for a 96-year-old female with altered mental status. At the scene, you find that the patient is unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. The family provides you with a valid DNR order. What could you document as a presumptive sign of her death?

  1. Poor or weak reflexes
  2. Closed eyes
  3. Dilated pupils
  4. Absent blood pressure
A
  1. Absent blood pressure
69
Q

Your BEST protection when an alert and oriented patient refuses EMS care or transport is to:

  1. Inform the patient’s family physician of what happened
  2. Contact the patient at a later time to see how she is doing
  3. Thoroughly document the incident
  4. Have your partner sign the refusal form as a witness
A
  1. Thoroughly document the incident
70
Q

Your legal right to function as an EMT is contingent upon:

  1. Gaining paid employment by a public EMS system
  2. Completing an approved EMT program
  3. Avoiding civil liability
  4. Following standing orders and protocols, as approved by medical direction
A
  1. Completing an approved EMT program
71
Q

The EMT gains the greatest protection from consent-related legal issues by:

  1. Notifying the emergency physician or medical direction of the patient’s consent
  2. Documenting the patient’s consent for treatment on the prehospital care report
  3. Asking the patient twice if it is okay to assess and treat him or her
  4. Having his or her partner serve as a witness to the consent
A
  1. Documenting the patient’s consent for treatment on the prehospital care report
72
Q

A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system while swallowing. Knowing that the suffix “itis” refers to inflammation, what is this patient’s condition?

  1. Pharyngitis
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Epiglottitis
  4. Tracheitis
A
  1. Epiglottitis
73
Q

A female patient has a muscular disease and cannot walk, so she requires a wheelchair. What kind of muscles are involved?

  1. Smooth
  2. Voluntary
  3. Cardiac
  4. Involuntary
A
  1. Voluntary
74
Q

A patient complains of pain to the upper jaw. This would be documented as pain in the:

  1. Mastoid
  2. Maxilla
  3. Zygoma
  4. Mandible
A
  1. Maxilla
75
Q

A patient informs you that he has had his gallbladder removed. Based on the physiology of the gallbladder, which statement is MOST true regarding this patient?

  1. He will be more prone to gastric ulcers
  2. He cannot store glycogen produced by the liver
  3. He must avoid meals high in complex carbohydrates
  4. He may have difficulty digesting large amounts of fats
A
  1. He may have difficulty digesting large amounts of fats
76
Q

When palpating a pulse on top of the foot, the EMT is assessing blood flow in which vessel?

  1. Posterior tibial vein
  2. Coronary artery
  3. Femoral vein
  4. Dorsalis pedis artery
A
  1. Dorsalis pedis artery
77
Q

What is the primary function of the left atrium?

  1. It pumps blood to the body
  2. It receives blood from the vena cava
  3. It pumps blood to the lungs
  4. It receives blood from the pulmonary veins
A
  1. It receives blood from the pulmonary veins
78
Q

What is the term that refers to the structure of the body?

  1. Metabolism
  2. Combining forms
  3. Anatomy
  4. Physiology
A
  1. Anatomy
79
Q

The structure containing a person’s “voice box” is termed the:

  1. Trachea
  2. Pharynx
  3. Sternum
  4. Larynx
A
  1. Larynx
80
Q

A patient has fractured bones in his leg. Which bones could be involved in this injury?

  1. Orbit, lumbar, or shin
  2. Femur, tibia, or fibula
  3. Radius, ulna, humerus, or carpals
  4. Acetabulum, calcaneus, or carpals
A
  1. Femur, tibia, or fibula
81
Q

A patient has experienced a burn to the skin. Based on the function of the skin, he is now more susceptible to:

  1. Fluid overload
  2. Infection
  3. Endocrine disorders
  4. Heart problems
A
  1. Infection
82
Q

The terms “occipital,” “parietal,” and “frontal” can refer collectively to which part of the body?

  1. Pelvis
  2. Spine
  3. Cranium
  4. Chest
A
  1. Cranium
83
Q

After you apply and use the AED, a patient regains his pulse and has adequate respirations. The paramedic asks you to place the patient in a lateral recumbent position. How should you position this patient?

  1. Supine with his head turned left
  2. On his side
  3. On his stomach
  4. On his back
A
  1. On his side
84
Q

The spinal column is composed of which sections, described in order from most superior to most inferior?

  1. Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
  2. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
  3. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
  4. Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
A
  1. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
85
Q

A patient’s blood glucose (sugar) level begins to drop. Which organ would be affected first?

  1. Spleen
  2. Muscles
  3. Brain
  4. Heart
A
  1. Brain
86
Q

A patient suffering a carpal bone fracture would MOST likely complain of pain in her:

  1. Wrist
  2. Knee
  3. Elbow
  4. Ankle
A
  1. Wrist

emt - b (41 decks)

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