Neurologic Diseases of Ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in the menace response?

A

cranial nerves II and VII

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2
Q

what causes cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

pestivirus
BVDV in cattle
border disease virus in small ruminants

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3
Q

what is the incubation period of rabies?

A

3 weeks to 6 months

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4
Q

what is polioencephalomalacia?

A

necrosis of the grey matter

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5
Q

what are the signs of polioencephalomalacia?

A

cerebral signs:
star-gazing
altered mentation
blindness with intact PLR

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6
Q

what are the risk factors for thiamine deficiency?

A

hypo/anorexia
poor roughage diet
ingestion of thiaminases

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7
Q

what does excess sulfur inhibit?

A

mitochondrial electron transport chain

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8
Q

what can be seen on a blood smear with lead toxicity?

A

anemia with RBC basophilic stippling

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9
Q

what are the common causes of salt toxicity?

A

inappropriate milk replacer without free choice water
high salinity well water/softeners
inaccessible water sources

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10
Q

what are the clinical signs of hypomagnesemia?

A

aggression
seizures
facial twitching

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11
Q

what are the three important mechanisms of bacterial meningoencephalitis?

A

general sepsis associated
Histophilus somni associated thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
Chlamydophila pecorum biotype 2

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12
Q

what is the pathophysiology of bacterial meningoencephalitis Histophilus somni?

A

part of bovine respiratory disease complex
thromboembolic vasculitis- polyserositis

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13
Q

what is mad cow/transmissible spongiform encephalopathies/prion?

A

bovine spongiform encephalopathy

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14
Q

is Listeriosis zoonotic?

A

yes

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15
Q

how is vitamin A derived?

A

from fresh green grass and stored in liver

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16
Q

how can you diagnose Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

neurologic deficits localizing to spinal cord, can be anywhere
CSF show eosinophilic pleocytosis 50% of timee

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17
Q

what is radial nerve paralysis commonly due to?

A

prolonged recumbency, falls, or restraint injury

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18
Q

what is the most common peripheral nerve injury?

A

sciatic nerve

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19
Q

what is the brainstem involved in?

A

arousal

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20
Q

what is the thalamocortex involved in?

A

behavior: mental status, menace response, nasal septum tactile response

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21
Q

what is involved in the menace response?

A

cranial nerve II
cortex
cerebellum
cranial nerve VII

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22
Q

what is involved in the pupillary light reflex?

A

cranial nerve II
cranial nerve III

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23
Q

what is involved in position of the eye in the orbit and eye movement?

A

cranial nerve III, IV, VI

24
Q

what is involved in physiologic nystagmus?

A

cranial nerves III, IV, VI, VIII

25
Q

what is involved in palpebral reflexes?

A

cranial nerve V, VII
symmetry of the face: cranial nerve VII

26
Q

what is involved in food prehension?

A

cranial nerve XII
masticatory movement: cranial nerve V

27
Q

what is involved in dysphagia and laryngeal problems?

A

cranial nerve IX and X

28
Q

how can you diagnose cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

cerebellar ataxia, nystagmus
pre-colostral antibody titers for BVDV
blood, skin, tissue antigen- false negatives possible
necropsy

29
Q

how can you prevent cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

test and remove clinically affected neonates
BVDV vaccination of dams
biosecure management

30
Q

what is cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

born normal and cerebellum atrophies at <1 year of age

31
Q

what is cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

cerebellum incompletely developed from birth

32
Q

how can you diagnose rabies?

A

identification of negri bodies or IFAT on CNS tissue

33
Q

what are the four etiologies of polioencephalomalacia?

A

thiamine deficiency
sulfur toxicity
lead toxicity
salt toxicity

34
Q

what supplies thiamine to ruminants?

A

rumen microbes

35
Q

what is the prognosis of thiamine deficiency?

A

good if treatment initiated early

36
Q

what are the sources of excess sulfur?

A

well contamination
feeding sugar by-products

37
Q

how can you diagnose sulfur toxicity?

A

identify high sulfur source in feed
rumen gas cap hydrogen sulfide often low
post-mortem changes are identical to thiamine deficiency or polioencephalomalacia

38
Q

how can you treat sulfur toxicity?

A

thiamine supplementation
supportive care

39
Q

what is the pathophysiology of lead toxicity?

A

lead interferes with calcium signaling and multiple enzymes requires for ATP production

40
Q

how can you diagnose lead toxicity?

A

whole blood levels reliable
radiographic lead lines
blood smear changes

41
Q

how can you treat lead toxicity?

A

thiamine supplementation
supportive care
EDTA administration to chelate lead

42
Q

how can you treat salt toxicity?

A

thiamine supplementation
supportive care
slow correction of hyponatremia
dextrose and isotonic sodium bicarbonate

43
Q

what can cause metabolic cerebral disease?

A

nervous ketosis
hypomagnesemia

44
Q

how can you prevent bacterial meningioencephilitis from Histophilus somni?

A

vaccine
oxytetracycline metaphylaxis on feedlot

45
Q

how can you diagnose transmissible spongiform eencephalopathies- bovine?

A

histologic of immunohistochemical evaluation of the OBEX for abnormal protein aggregates and histologic changes

46
Q

is transmissible spongiform encephalopathies- scrapie- associated with feeding practices?

A

no

47
Q

is ante-mortem biopsy of peripheral lymphoid tissue diagnostic of scrapie?

A

yes- affected protein accumulates throughout lymphoid tissues of body

48
Q

what are the parasitic cerebral diseases?

A

nervous coccidiosis
coenurus cerebralis
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

49
Q

what are the main brainstem/cranial nerve diseases?

A

listeriosis
otitis interna
vitamin A deficiency

50
Q

is Listeriosis zoonotic?

A

yes

51
Q

how can you diagnose Listeriosis?

A

CSF mononuclear pleocytosis and elevated protein
post-mortem: micro-abscesses

52
Q

which antibiotics do not work on Listeriosis?

A

cephalosporins

53
Q

how can you prevent otitis media/interna from M. bovis?

A

minimize respiratory disease in calves
milk/colostrum management: feed only commercial or pasteurized colostrum and milk

54
Q

what is vitamin A important for?

A

bone, retinal, epithelial metabolism

55
Q

why does blindness occur with vitamin A deficiency?

A

blindness due to retinal degeneration and compression of the optic chiasm due to boney hyperplasia

56
Q

what is spinal lymphosarcoma often from?

A

BLV-associated

57
Q

how can you treat Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

high dose fenbendazole
supportive care
monthly ivermectin