MODULE II STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

this type of toxicity interferes with prokaryotic cell structure or function not present in eukaryotes

more difficult to find differences between eukaryotic pathogens and human cells

basis of antibiotic therapy

A

selective toxicity

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2
Q

antibiotics can attack these important parts of the cell?

A

`cell wall
DNA gyrase
DNA polymerase
protein synthesis

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3
Q

what are the primary structural and functional differences of the noncellular prototypic viruses?

A

protective protein coat surrounding a piece of genetic information

genetic encoding for replication and redirection

susceptible host cells

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4
Q

name this type of viral pathogenesis?

A

direct cellular damage

dysfunction of host cell

immunologic damage to infected host cell

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5
Q

this microscopy term is when there is the ability to differentiate two closely positioned points?

A

resolving power

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6
Q

what is the effect on the resolving power where there is shorter wavelengths?

A

more resolution

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7
Q

how is magnification defined?

A

ocular lens power x objective lens power

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8
Q

name this visible light microscopy:

visible light wavelengths
organisms dark against white grey field
stains simple, differential or negative

A

bright field

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9
Q

basic stains, acidic stains and negative stains are what type of stains?

A

simple stains

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10
Q

when we use two dyes what type of stain is this?

ex. primary and secondary counterstain

A

differential stains

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11
Q

when we decrease numerical aperture, what is the effect on the resolving power?

A

decrease resolving power

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12
Q

how does light affect brightfield, darkfield and phase contrast microscopes, all types of light microscopes?

A

through

refracted

diffracted at different speeds

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13
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Visible light wavelengths
introduced at an angle so that
only light refracted by the
specimen enters the lens

Organism appears white against
dark surrounding area.

A

darkfield

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14
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Visible light wavelengths
introduced through specimen out
of phase or non-parallel. Variation
in density of cellular materials
refract light differently.
A

phase contrast and Nomarski interference microscopy

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15
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Use shorter wavelength UV to improve
Resolving power and increase
magnification. Use fluorescent dye to
fluoresce when exposed to specific
wavelengths. Could use as a bioindicator
control organism
A

UV and fluorescent microscopy

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16
Q

name this type of microscopy:

TEM transmission

Uses streams of electrons focused by
electromagnets to significantly improve
resolving power and magnification..
Requires significant preparation of
specimen.

SEM scanning

Streams of electrons are bounced off of
surface of specimen

A

electron microscopy

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17
Q

name this microbial group?

protein coat (DNA or RNA)
protein coat
envelope
no self contained enzymes
only grown in specific living cells, not on media
A

viruses - noncellular

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18
Q

name this microbial group?

free living 
peptidoglycan
endospores
asexual
grown on lab media
A

bacteria (Eubacteria) or prokaryotes

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19
Q

name this microbial group?

specialized waxy material
acid fast
reproduce slowly
grow much slower on lab media

A

mycobacteria

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20
Q

name this microbial group?

obligate intracellular parasites
inside of infected cell
incomplete metabolic potential
poor survival outside
transmitted by arthropod vector
do not grow on lab media
A

rickettsia and chlamydia

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21
Q

name this microbial group?

lack bacterial cell wall
sterols
poor survival in the environment
grown slowly on enriched lab media containing sterols

A

mycoplasma

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22
Q

name this microbial group?

free living cells growing as single cells or filamentous chains of cells
chitinous cell wall
reproduction by budding or apical growth
asexual spores that are easily disseminated in the air and resistant to the environment
grow on lab media

A

fungi-eukaryotic

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23
Q

name this microbial group?

lack of cell wall but animal cell type of membrane 
free living or intracellular parasites
many have complex life cycles
some transmitted by insects
can't be grown on lab media
A

protozoa- Eukaryotes

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24
Q

name this microbial group?

multicellular 
produce environmentally resistant ova
compete for nutrients in host
can have complex life cycles with sexual stages
can't be grown on lab media
A

helminths-eukaryotes

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25
name this microbial group? aka ectoparasites, blood sucking like ticks, mice, mosquitos
arthropods-eukaryotes
26
what is the nucleus of pathogen transmission?
host vector pathogen
27
this is the infection point between healthy and infectious
dysbiosis
28
degree of pathogenicity and ability to cause disease?
virulence of the pathogen
29
what does degree of virulence equal too?
degree of pathogenicity
30
what are some enzymes from bacteria damage human cells?
alphahemolysin antistrepsolysin 0- others include collagenase, protease, lipase from C. perfringens, clostridial sp., S. aureus, S. pyogenes
31
what are the arsenal systems of viruses? Fungi?
cytolysis, dysfunctional cell, unchecked replication, immunopathologic tissue destruction secondary resistance, direct extension of growth, immunopathologic tissue destruction
32
these are toxins produced inside pathogenic bacteria, most commonly gram positive bacteria.
exotoxins
33
these toxins are the lipid portions of lipopolysaccharides that are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria?
endotoxins
34
what does endotoxin activate in the body?
activates macrophages activates complements activates tissue factors
35
what types of shock are triggered as a result of endotoxins?
``` toxic shock syndrome (S aureus, S. pyogenes) septic shock (from gram negatives caused by bacteremia) ```
36
name this carrier state: shedding during symptomatic phase
symptomatic carrier
37
name this carrier state: shedding prior to symptoms (chicken pox/flu/HIV)
incubatory carrier
38
name this carrier state: shedding after primary symptoms disappears like typhoid fever and syphilis?
convalescent
39
name this carrier state: shedding without overt symptoms like mumps and S. aureus
asymptomatic carrier
40
what is the course of infectious disease?
``` access-establishment incubation prodormal period acute period host response escape and survival convalescent period ```
41
what are the different types of infectious disease patterns/
acute primary infection chronic infection latent infection subclinical infection
42
what is the simplified process for inflammation?
vascular response fluid exudation cellular exudation- PMN and macrophages chemotaxis and migration
43
normal WBC count?
4000-11000
44
WBC count for Leucocytopenia?
<4000
45
WBC count for leucocytosis?
>11000
46
what is the significance of a differential count?
``` takes into consideration neutrophilia eosinophils basophils monocytes lymphocytes ```
47
when is fever not Lethal?
<109 degrees F
48
what is the febrile convulsive response reaction?
self-limiting tonic clonic seizure 20-60 sec up to 15 min brain stem synaptic immaturity neurologically and environmentally healthy no impact on cognitive fxn 6 mo-5 yrs
49
what are the fever benefits?
``` increased cell mediated immune activity strengthens interferon effect increase iron binding response to infection IL-6, IL-1, TNF-alpha, IFN-g, cAMP ```
50
mutation in the RYR1 gene 19q13.1 Ca channels release disruption volatile anesthetics gases and depolarizing muscle relaxants
malignant hypothermia caused by hyper catabolic state
51
examples of fevers from unknown origins?
``` 40% infection 20% neoplasm 15% connective tissue 15% immune 10% undiagnosed ```
52
what are the sepsis steps?
``` 4 steps SIRS SEPSIS SEVERE SEPSIS SEPTIC SHOCK ```
53
what is DIC?
inappropriate activation of the clotting system leading to bleeding
54
what is the iceberg concept of infection?
host and cell responses divided up into discernible effect and below visual change. The cell response has both lysis of the cell and death of the organism
55
in the lysis of the cell under cell response, what are the discernible effects? below visual changes?
inclusion oof body formation cell transformation cell dysfunction viral multiplication, incomplete viral maturation exposure without attachment or cell entry
56
in the death of the organism, under host response, what is the discernible effect? below visual changes
classic and severe disease moderate severity and mild illness infection without clinical illness exposure without infection
57
green non sulfur bacteria, gram positives, purple bacteria, cyanobacteria, flavobacteria, thermotogales are examples of what type of microbial group?
bacteria
58
Euryarchaeota, Crenarchaeota, Halophiles are examples of what microbial group?
archaeons
59
animals, fungi, slime molds, ciliates, plants, flagellates are examples of what microbial group?
eukaryotes
60
encapsulated bacterial pneumonia
S. Pneumoniae
61
A top 5 STD-piliated
N. gonorrhea
62
this is used in nonrecognition, resistance to intracellular destruction, and kills WBCs?
leukocidins
63
Klebsiella pneumo is this type of encapsulated bacteria?
mucosal
64
strept pneumo is this type of encapsulated bacteria?
mucosal
65
what are the encapsulated bacteria that can be treated with vaccine?
A popular mnemonic to remember most of the encapsulated bacteria is the SHiNE SKiS bacteria (S. pneumo, Hib, N. meningitidis, E. Coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Group B Strep)
66
what are the actions of the antibodies?
agglutination opsonization neutralization
67
this affect of an antibody reduces #s?
agglutination
68
this affect of an antibody increases phagocytosis?
increases phagocytosis
69
this affect of an antibody blocks the active site?
neutralization
70
this encapsulated bacteria impacts opsonization by destroying the C3 convertase (complement pathway) and has this protein that inhibits phagocytosis?
streptococcus M-protein
71
this encapsulated bacteria has a waxy cell wall made of mycotic acids and disrupts the digestion of a cell wall and lives in macrophages?
Mycobacterium (TB)
72
these bacteria have Biofilm and endospores
S. Aureus B. anthracis, C. dfficile
73
bacteria have enzymes that have these functions?
damage human cells, degrade intracellular materials or inactive signaling factors, trigger immunopathologic damage of tissues
74
how does S. Aureus act as when toxic shock syndrome occurs because endotoxin is released?
it acts as a super antigen
75
what are the effects of endotoxins?
fever- interleukin 1 hypotension- bradykinin, NO inflammation- C3a, C5a, complement cascade coagulation- activates hageman factor
76
what do antigens trigger?
cytokine storm release
77
what are the biologic resistance mechanisms that allow host to resist encroachment, colonization or infection?
``` skin antimicrobial substances low pH lysozyme normal microbial flora ```
78
examples of carrier states?
symptomatic carrier incubatory carrier convalescent carrier asymptomatic carrier
79
what are the specific immune response mechanisms?
immunoglobins (Ig)- antibodies cells (T-cell) recognize and attache infected cells
80
general states of health?
nutrition leading to immunodeficiency stress physiologic state
81
how does phagocytosis occur, list out the steps?
attach through cytokine receptor fusion of phagosome and lysosome production of phagolysosome
82
what are the antimicrobial assets of the cell?
definsins superoxide anions myeloperoxidase, halides. peroxidase non peroxide elements
83
what are the reasons why microbial cell may not be recognized?
capsule protection | fibrin coating
84
what is a reason for protection against intracellular destruction?
acid fast cell wall prevention of degranulation lack of ability of the cell to destroy
85
these WBCs have bands vs segs?
neutrophils
86
these WBCs release histamines during an allergic reaction, Binds with IgE (also mast cells)
basophils
87
these WBCs are involved in parasite, allergy, cancer and infection?
eosinophils
88
the febrile response is autonomic T/F? if so, what is released?
T PGE2
89
what are some fever patterns?
spiking chronic low grade recurrent sustained
90
what age does the febrile convulsive response reaction happen?
6 mo- 5 years
91
describe how NSAIDs work?
tissue injury to phospholipids to arachidonic acid can be used to form leukotrienes and also COX-1, COX-2
92
COX-1 is constitutional or inducible?
constitutional
93
COX-2 is constitutional or inducible?
inducible
94
COX-1 releases cytoprotective prostaglandins or inflammatory prostaglandins?
cytoprotective prostaglandins
95
COX-2 releases cytoprotective prostaglandins or inflammatory prostaglandins?
inflammatory prostaglandins
96
response to inflammatory response IL-1 stimulates liver to produce them marker of inflammation and chemotaxis
acute phase proteins- CRP
97
reduced RBC count destruction of RBC impairment of synthesis
anemia- not common manifestation
98
uncontrolled formation and deposition of fibrin thrombi leading to clotting which also leads to bleeding disorders and hemorrhage especially seen in septicemias
disseminated intravascular coagulation
99
usually associated with gram negative septicemias
septic shock
100
what are the other nonspecific general body responses?
anorexia malaise- discomfort myalgia- muscle pain arthralgia- joint pain