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KSUCPM MEDMICRO > MODULE II STUDY GUIDE > Flashcards

MODULE II STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

this type of toxicity interferes with prokaryotic cell structure or function not present in eukaryotes

more difficult to find differences between eukaryotic pathogens and human cells

basis of antibiotic therapy

A

selective toxicity

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2
Q

antibiotics can attack these important parts of the cell?

A

`cell wall
DNA gyrase
DNA polymerase
protein synthesis

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3
Q

what are the primary structural and functional differences of the noncellular prototypic viruses?

A

protective protein coat surrounding a piece of genetic information

genetic encoding for replication and redirection

susceptible host cells

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4
Q

name this type of viral pathogenesis?

A

direct cellular damage

dysfunction of host cell

immunologic damage to infected host cell

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5
Q

this microscopy term is when there is the ability to differentiate two closely positioned points?

A

resolving power

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6
Q

what is the effect on the resolving power where there is shorter wavelengths?

A

more resolution

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7
Q

how is magnification defined?

A

ocular lens power x objective lens power

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8
Q

name this visible light microscopy:

visible light wavelengths
organisms dark against white grey field
stains simple, differential or negative

A

bright field

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9
Q

basic stains, acidic stains and negative stains are what type of stains?

A

simple stains

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10
Q

when we use two dyes what type of stain is this?

ex. primary and secondary counterstain

A

differential stains

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11
Q

when we decrease numerical aperture, what is the effect on the resolving power?

A

decrease resolving power

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12
Q

how does light affect brightfield, darkfield and phase contrast microscopes, all types of light microscopes?

A

through

refracted

diffracted at different speeds

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13
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Visible light wavelengths
introduced at an angle so that
only light refracted by the
specimen enters the lens

Organism appears white against
dark surrounding area.

A

darkfield

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14
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Visible light wavelengths
introduced through specimen out
of phase or non-parallel. Variation
in density of cellular materials
refract light differently.
A

phase contrast and Nomarski interference microscopy

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15
Q

name this type of microscopy:

Use shorter wavelength UV to improve
Resolving power and increase
magnification. Use fluorescent dye to
fluoresce when exposed to specific
wavelengths. Could use as a bioindicator
control organism
A

UV and fluorescent microscopy

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16
Q

name this type of microscopy:

TEM transmission

Uses streams of electrons focused by
electromagnets to significantly improve
resolving power and magnification..
Requires significant preparation of
specimen.

SEM scanning

Streams of electrons are bounced off of
surface of specimen

A

electron microscopy

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17
Q

name this microbial group?

protein coat (DNA or RNA)
protein coat
envelope
no self contained enzymes
only grown in specific living cells, not on media
A

viruses - noncellular

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18
Q

name this microbial group?

free living 
peptidoglycan
endospores
asexual
grown on lab media
A

bacteria (Eubacteria) or prokaryotes

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19
Q

name this microbial group?

specialized waxy material
acid fast
reproduce slowly
grow much slower on lab media

A

mycobacteria

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20
Q

name this microbial group?

obligate intracellular parasites
inside of infected cell
incomplete metabolic potential
poor survival outside
transmitted by arthropod vector
do not grow on lab media
A

rickettsia and chlamydia

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21
Q

name this microbial group?

lack bacterial cell wall
sterols
poor survival in the environment
grown slowly on enriched lab media containing sterols

A

mycoplasma

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22
Q

name this microbial group?

free living cells growing as single cells or filamentous chains of cells
chitinous cell wall
reproduction by budding or apical growth
asexual spores that are easily disseminated in the air and resistant to the environment
grow on lab media

A

fungi-eukaryotic

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23
Q

name this microbial group?

lack of cell wall but animal cell type of membrane 
free living or intracellular parasites
many have complex life cycles
some transmitted by insects
can't be grown on lab media
A

protozoa- Eukaryotes

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24
Q

name this microbial group?

multicellular 
produce environmentally resistant ova
compete for nutrients in host
can have complex life cycles with sexual stages
can't be grown on lab media
A

helminths-eukaryotes

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25
Q

name this microbial group?

aka ectoparasites, blood sucking like ticks, mice, mosquitos

A

arthropods-eukaryotes

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26
Q

what is the nucleus of pathogen transmission?

A

host
vector
pathogen

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27
Q

this is the infection point between healthy and infectious

A

dysbiosis

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28
Q

degree of pathogenicity and ability to cause disease?

A

virulence of the pathogen

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29
Q

what does degree of virulence equal too?

A

degree of pathogenicity

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30
Q

what are some enzymes from bacteria damage human cells?

A

alphahemolysin

antistrepsolysin 0-

others include collagenase, protease, lipase from C. perfringens, clostridial sp., S. aureus, S. pyogenes

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31
Q

what are the arsenal systems of viruses? Fungi?

A

cytolysis, dysfunctional cell, unchecked replication, immunopathologic tissue destruction

secondary resistance, direct extension of growth, immunopathologic tissue destruction

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32
Q

these are toxins produced inside pathogenic bacteria, most commonly gram positive bacteria.

A

exotoxins

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33
Q

these toxins are the lipid portions of lipopolysaccharides that are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria?

A

endotoxins

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34
Q

what does endotoxin activate in the body?

A

activates macrophages
activates complements
activates tissue factors

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35
Q

what types of shock are triggered as a result of endotoxins?

A 
toxic shock syndrome (S aureus, S. pyogenes)
septic shock (from gram negatives caused by bacteremia)
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36
Q

name this carrier state:

shedding during symptomatic phase

A

symptomatic carrier

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37
Q

name this carrier state:

shedding prior to symptoms (chicken pox/flu/HIV)

A

incubatory carrier

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38
Q

name this carrier state:

shedding after primary symptoms disappears like typhoid fever and syphilis?

A

convalescent

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39
Q

name this carrier state:

shedding without overt symptoms like mumps and S. aureus

A

asymptomatic carrier

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40
Q

what is the course of infectious disease?

A 
access-establishment
incubation
prodormal period
acute period 
host response
escape and survival 
convalescent period
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41
Q

what are the different types of infectious disease patterns/

A

acute primary infection
chronic infection
latent infection
subclinical infection

42
Q

what is the simplified process for inflammation?

A

vascular response
fluid exudation
cellular exudation- PMN and macrophages
chemotaxis and migration

43
Q

normal WBC count?

A

4000-11000

44
Q

WBC count for Leucocytopenia?

A

<4000

45
Q

WBC count for leucocytosis?

A

> 11000

46
Q

what is the significance of a differential count?

A 
takes into consideration neutrophilia
eosinophils
basophils
monocytes
lymphocytes
47
Q

when is fever not Lethal?

A

<109 degrees F

48
Q

what is the febrile convulsive response reaction?

A

self-limiting tonic clonic seizure 20-60 sec up to 15 min
brain stem synaptic immaturity
neurologically and environmentally healthy
no impact on cognitive fxn
6 mo-5 yrs

49
Q

what are the fever benefits?

A 
increased cell mediated immune activity
strengthens interferon effect
increase iron binding
response to infection
IL-6, IL-1, TNF-alpha, IFN-g, cAMP
50
Q

mutation in the RYR1 gene 19q13.1
Ca channels release disruption
volatile anesthetics gases and depolarizing muscle relaxants

A

malignant hypothermia caused by hyper catabolic state

51
Q

examples of fevers from unknown origins?

A 
40% infection
20% neoplasm
15% connective tissue
15% immune
10% undiagnosed
52
Q

what are the sepsis steps?

A 
4 steps
SIRS
SEPSIS
SEVERE SEPSIS
SEPTIC SHOCK
53
Q

what is DIC?

A

inappropriate activation of the clotting system leading to bleeding

54
Q

what is the iceberg concept of infection?

A

host and cell responses divided up into discernible effect and below visual change.

The cell response has both lysis of the cell and death of the organism

55
Q

in the lysis of the cell under cell response, what are the discernible effects?

below visual changes?

A

inclusion oof body formation

cell transformation

cell dysfunction

viral multiplication, incomplete viral maturation

exposure without attachment or cell entry

56
Q

in the death of the organism, under host response, what is the discernible effect?

below visual changes

A

classic and severe disease

moderate severity and mild illness

infection without clinical illness

exposure without infection

57
Q

green non sulfur bacteria, gram positives, purple bacteria, cyanobacteria, flavobacteria, thermotogales are examples of what type of microbial group?

A

bacteria

58
Q

Euryarchaeota, Crenarchaeota, Halophiles are examples of what microbial group?

A

archaeons

59
Q

animals, fungi, slime molds, ciliates, plants, flagellates are examples of what microbial group?

A

eukaryotes

60
Q

encapsulated bacterial pneumonia

A

S. Pneumoniae

61
Q

A top 5 STD-piliated

A

N. gonorrhea

62
Q

this is used in nonrecognition, resistance to intracellular destruction, and kills WBCs?

A

leukocidins

63
Q

Klebsiella pneumo is this type of encapsulated bacteria?

A

mucosal

64
Q

strept pneumo is this type of encapsulated bacteria?

A

mucosal

65
Q

what are the encapsulated bacteria that can be treated with vaccine?

A

A popular mnemonic to remember most of the encapsulated bacteria is the SHiNE SKiS bacteria

(S. pneumo, Hib, N. meningitidis, E. Coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Group B Strep)

66
Q

what are the actions of the antibodies?

A

agglutination
opsonization
neutralization

67
Q

this affect of an antibody reduces #s?

A

agglutination

68
Q

this affect of an antibody increases phagocytosis?

A

increases phagocytosis

69
Q

this affect of an antibody blocks the active site?

A

neutralization

70
Q

this encapsulated bacteria impacts opsonization by destroying the C3 convertase (complement pathway) and has this protein that inhibits phagocytosis?

A

streptococcus

M-protein

71
Q

this encapsulated bacteria has a waxy cell wall made of mycotic acids and disrupts the digestion of a cell wall and lives in macrophages?

A

Mycobacterium (TB)

72
Q

these bacteria have Biofilm and endospores

A

S. Aureus

B. anthracis, C. dfficile

73
Q

bacteria have enzymes that have these functions?

A

damage human cells, degrade intracellular materials or inactive signaling factors, trigger immunopathologic damage of tissues

74
Q

how does S. Aureus act as when toxic shock syndrome occurs because endotoxin is released?

A

it acts as a super antigen

75
Q

what are the effects of endotoxins?

A

fever- interleukin 1
hypotension- bradykinin, NO
inflammation- C3a, C5a, complement cascade
coagulation- activates hageman factor

76
Q

what do antigens trigger?

A

cytokine storm release

77
Q

what are the biologic resistance mechanisms that allow host to resist encroachment, colonization or infection?

A 
skin
antimicrobial substances
low pH
lysozyme
normal microbial flora
78
Q

examples of carrier states?

A

symptomatic carrier
incubatory carrier
convalescent carrier
asymptomatic carrier

79
Q

what are the specific immune response mechanisms?

A

immunoglobins (Ig)- antibodies

cells (T-cell) recognize and attache infected cells

80
Q

general states of health?

A

nutrition leading to immunodeficiency

stress physiologic state

81
Q

how does phagocytosis occur, list out the steps?

A

attach
through cytokine receptor
fusion of phagosome and lysosome
production of phagolysosome

82
Q

what are the antimicrobial assets of the cell?

A

definsins
superoxide anions
myeloperoxidase, halides. peroxidase
non peroxide elements

83
Q

what are the reasons why microbial cell may not be recognized?

A

capsule protection

fibrin coating

84
Q

what is a reason for protection against intracellular destruction?

A

acid fast cell wall
prevention of degranulation
lack of ability of the cell to destroy

85
Q

these WBCs have bands vs segs?

A

neutrophils

86
Q

these WBCs release histamines during an allergic reaction, Binds with IgE (also mast cells)

A

basophils

87
Q

these WBCs are involved in parasite, allergy, cancer and infection?

A

eosinophils

88
Q

the febrile response is autonomic T/F? if so, what is released?

A

T

PGE2

89
Q

what are some fever patterns?

A

spiking
chronic low grade
recurrent
sustained

90
Q

what age does the febrile convulsive response reaction happen?

A

6 mo- 5 years

91
Q

describe how NSAIDs work?

A

tissue injury to
phospholipids to
arachidonic acid can be used to form leukotrienes and also COX-1, COX-2

92
Q

COX-1 is constitutional or inducible?

A

constitutional

93
Q

COX-2 is constitutional or inducible?

A

inducible

94
Q

COX-1 releases cytoprotective prostaglandins or inflammatory prostaglandins?

A

cytoprotective prostaglandins

95
Q

COX-2 releases cytoprotective prostaglandins or inflammatory prostaglandins?

A

inflammatory prostaglandins

96
Q

response to inflammatory response
IL-1 stimulates liver to produce them
marker of inflammation and chemotaxis

A

acute phase proteins- CRP

97
Q

reduced RBC count
destruction of RBC
impairment of synthesis

A

anemia- not common manifestation

98
Q

uncontrolled formation and deposition of fibrin thrombi leading to clotting which also leads to bleeding disorders and hemorrhage especially seen in septicemias

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

99
Q

usually associated with gram negative septicemias

A

septic shock

100
Q

what are the other nonspecific general body responses?

A

anorexia
malaise- discomfort
myalgia- muscle pain
arthralgia- joint pain

KSUCPM MEDMICRO (52 decks)

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