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General Microbiology > Microbiolab Supplemental > Flashcards

Microbiolab Supplemental Flashcards

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1
Q

⚫Also an indicator of spoilage

A

microbial counts

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2
Q

how many ul of inoculum is placed in a hemocytometer

A

10 ul

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3
Q

how many ul of inoculum is placed in pour plating

A

1 ml

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4
Q

how many ul is placed in spread plating

A

0.1 ml

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5
Q

direct count formula

A

(5)(10)(1000)(DF)

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6
Q

cfu/ml formula

A

number of colonies * DF/volume plated

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7
Q

⚫Anaerobic to Facultative bacteria will grow.

what kind of bacteria lcount

A

pour plating

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8
Q

⚫Usually lower count than Spread Plating because of the
hot medium poured into the bacterial suspension

A

pour plating

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9
Q

can be used to measure
aerobic to facultative anaerobes

A

spread plating

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10
Q

measures anaerobic to facultative anaerobe

A

pour plating

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11
Q

⚫It is possible that ___ plating method will give a lower
count because the melted medium can kill the cells.

A

pour

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12
Q

cell wall synthesis

A

cycloserine
vancomycin
bacitracin
penicillin
cephalosporins
monobactams
carbapenems

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13
Q

dna gyrase

A

nalidixic acid
ciproflaxin
novobiocin

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14
Q

quinolones include

A

nalidixic acid
ciproflaxin

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15
Q

rna elongation

A

actinomycin

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16
Q

cycloserine
vancomycin
bacitracin
penicillin
cephalosporins
monobactams
carbapenems

what do they inhibit

A

cell wall synthesis

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17
Q

nalidixic acid
ciproflaxin
novobiocin

what do they inhibit

A

dna gyrase

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18
Q

actinomycin

what do they inhibit

A

RNA elongaton

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19
Q

inhibit dna-directed rna polymerase

A

rifampin
streptovaricins

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20
Q

rifampin
streptovaricins

what do they inhibit

A

DNA-directed rna polymerase

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21
Q

50s inhibitors

A

erythromycin
chloramphenicol
clindamycin
lincomycin

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22
Q

erythromycin
chloramphenicol
clindamycin
lincomycin

what do they inhibit

A

50s inhibitors (protein synthesis)

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23
Q

30s inhibitors

A

Tetracyclines
Spectinomycin
Streptomycin
Gentamicin
Amikacin
Kanamycin
Nitrofurans

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24
Q

Tetracyclines
Spectinomycin
Streptomycin
Gentamicin
Amikacin
Kanamycin
Nitrofurans

what do they inhibit

A

30s inhibitors

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25
Q

inhibits tRNA in protein synthesis

A

Mupirocin
Puromycin

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26
Q

Mupirocin
Puromycin

inhibits what

A

protein synthesis tRNA

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27
Q

inhibits cytoplasmic memtrane structure

A

polymyxin
daptomycin

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28
Q

polymyxin
daptomycin

inhibits

A

cytoplasmic membrane structure

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29
Q

inhibit folic acid metabolism

A

trimetroprim
sulfonamides

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30
Q

trimetroprim
sulfonamides

inhibits

A

folic acid metabolism

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31
Q

Causes bacterial cell lysis
and death;

A

penicillin

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32
Q

:Stops bacterial
protein synthesis, leading to inhibited growth

A

tetracyclines

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33
Q

Causes DNA fragmentation and bacterial cell death;

A

quinolones

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34
Q

Prevents protein elongation, stopping bacterial
growth

A

macrolides

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35
Q

:Results in defective proteins and bacterial cell
death.

A

aminoglycosides

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36
Q

:Prevents bacterial DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis;

A

sulfonamides

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37
Q

:Prevents cell wall cross-linking, causing bacterial cell lysis

A

glycopeptides

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38
Q

example of penicillin

A

penicillin
amoxicillin

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39
Q

example of tetracyclines

A

tetracycline
doxycycline

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40
Q

example of quinolones

A

ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

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41
Q

examples of macrolides

A

erythromycin
azithromycin

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42
Q

example of aminoglycosides

A

gentamicin
streptomycin

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43
Q

example of sulfonamides

A

sulfamethoxazole

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44
Q

example of glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

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45
Q

is determined by comparing the zone of inhibition with MIC values in a standard
table

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

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46
Q

MIC that is sensitive

A

<= 1

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47
Q

MIC that is intermediate

A

2-4

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48
Q

MIC that is resistant

A

> =8

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49
Q

The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits visible growth of a
microorganism.

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

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50
Q

allows
the chemotherapeutic agent
to diffuse freely.

A

Mueller Hinton Agar

51
Q

Provide the necessary nutrients for bacterial
growth;

what component of MHA

A

beef extract

52
Q

Absorbs any toxic metabolites produced by bacteria, helping to maintain
the integrity of the antibiotic;

what component of MHA

A

starch

53
Q

Solidifying agent

what component of MHA

A

agar

54
Q

: Allows for easy observation of the zones of inhibition around
antibiotic disks

what property of MHA

A

clear and colorless

55
Q

Supports the growth of a wide range of bacteria
without favoring any particular type.

what property of MHA

A

non-selective, non-differential

56
Q

During incubation, the chemotherapeutic agent __from the disk, from an area of high
concentration to an area of lower concentration

A

diffuses

57
Q

: The antibiotic may be somewhat
effective in inhibiting the growth of the bacteria, but not
as strongly as for strains classified as “sensitive.”

what kind of effectiveness

A

moderate sensitive

58
Q

means that the bacterial strain being
tested shows a moderate level of sensitivity to the
antibiotic.

A

intermediate

59
Q

“mid (temp) loving”; mostly
pathogens; causes most
food spoilage; 20
– 400C

A

mesophiles

60
Q

have midrange temperature
optima (optimum
environmental conditions)

A

mesophiles

61
Q

found in warm
-blooded
animals; in terrestrial;
and aquatic environments
in temperate and tropical
latitudes

A

mesophiles

62
Q

example of mesophiles

A

e.coli
b.subtilis

63
Q

“cold loving”; can
grow at 00C

A

psychrophiles

64
Q

0 – 20oC

A

psychrophiles

65
Q

subgroups of psychrophiles

A

true psychrophiles
psychrotrophs
psychrotolerant

66
Q

psychrobacter is __

A

psychrotroph

67
Q

athrobacter is a ___

A

psychrotolerant

68
Q

heat loving”; 45 – 90C

A

thermophiles

69
Q

(extreme thermophiles);

A

hyperthermophiles

70
Q

have
evolved to grow optimally
under very hot or very
cold conditions

A

extremophiles

71
Q

example of thermophiles

A

thermotoga maritima
geobacilus stearothermophilus

72
Q

optimum is 150C; max is
below 200C

A

pscyhrophiles

73
Q

optimum 200C to 400C

A

psychrotolerant

74
Q

optima range is 0oC to
35oC

A

psychrotrophs

75
Q

Thermococcus celer;
Methanopyrus kandleri;
Pyrolobus fumarii (1060C)

what kind

A

hyperhermophiles

76
Q

cells are composed of what percent o fwater

A

80-90

77
Q

Lactobacilli

what kind of pH

A

acidophiles

78
Q

Bacillus,
Micrococcus,
Pseudomonas,
and
Streptomyces

what kind of pH

A

alkaliphiles

79
Q

: thrives in the presence of carbon dioxide

A

capnophiles

80
Q

example of strict aerobes

A

m. luteus
alcaligenes faecalis

81
Q

example of facultative anaerobes

A

e.coli
e. faecalis

82
Q

example of aerotolerant anerobes

A

l. bulgaricus

83
Q

example of microaerophile

A

campylobacter haemophilus

84
Q

example of obligate anaerboes

A

c. sporogenes

85
Q

A liquid medium designed
to promote growth of a
wide variety of fastidious
microorganisms.

A

fluid thioglycollate medium

86
Q

compounds that act as surfactants
that alter membrane permeability of
some bacteria and fungi (Not
sporicidal)

A

quaternary ammonia

87
Q

most resistant to least resistant

A

prions
endospores of bacteria
mycobacteria
cyst of protozoa
vegetative protozoa
gram-negative bacteria
fungi (incl. most fungal spore forms)
viruses without envelopes
gram-positive bacteria
viruses with lipid envelopes

88
Q

water quality parameters is divided into 3

A

physical
chemical
microbial

89
Q

water intended
for direct human consumption or
use in food preparation

A

drinking water

90
Q

– water suitable
(both health and acceptability
considerations) for drinking and
cooking purposes .

A

potable water

91
Q

other water aside from drinking and potable

A

recreational
marine
coastal

92
Q

family of e coli

A

enterobacteriaceae

93
Q

lactose fermenters of enterobacteriaceae

A

e. coli
citrobacter
kliebsella
enterobacter

94
Q

non-lactose fermenters of enterobacteriaceae

A

salmonelli
shigella
proteus
yersinia

95
Q

By gram staining or
Using selective medium for g-neg i.e
EMB, Endo agar, MacConkey

what does it detect

A

rod-shaped, non-spore forming gram negative bacteria

96
Q

Gas production caught in the Durham
tubes; dark colonies pink, red, purple
with green metallic sheen.

what does it detect

A

lactose fermenter at 37

97
Q

___ pH cause yellow coloration in
Lactose broth; metallic sheen and
purple surrounding with low pH on
plates

A

acidic

98
Q

Dark coloration of colonies attribute dto

A

acetaldehyde

99
Q

total coliforms should be at a conformity lvel of __

A

<1 cfu/100 ml

100
Q

e coli test must give a result of

A

<1.1 mpn/100ml

101
Q

<50MPN/100 mL means

A

conformity, low, and intermediate risk level

102
Q

v<50MPN/100 mL what treatment needed

A

disinfection alone

103
Q

> 50MPN/100mL and <5,000 MPN/1000 mL

A

high and very high risk leve>50MPN/100mL and <5,000 MPN/1000 mLls

104
Q

> 50MPN/100mL and <5,000 MPN/1000 mL

what treatment

A

complete treatment

105
Q

selective, differential agar
medium used for isolation of
gram-negative rods in a variety
of specimen types

A

EMBA

106
Q

inhibits the gram
+ bacteria in EMBA

A

methylene blue

107
Q

changes
color to a dark purple, when the
medium around the colony
becomes very acidic

what component of EMBA

A

eosin

108
Q

key nutrient;
fermented by coliforms to
produce acid

A

lactose

109
Q

Gram neg,
Darkened purple with strong acids produced from lactose
Metallic green with low pH – rapid fermenter
Fecal coliform

what is present in EMBA

A

green metallic sheen: e.coli

110
Q

Gram neg,
Darkened with strong acids produced from lactose
No Metallic green, pH did not lower – slow fermented
Coliform, but non-fecal

what is present

A

dark pink/red

enterobacter aerogenes

111
Q

Gram neg,
Did not darken - no acids produced from lactose
No Metallic green, pH did not lower – non-fermenter
Non-coliform

what is present in EMBA

A

light pink/colorless

P.aeruginosa

112
Q

is a technique that uses a physical
barrier (usually a porous membrane
or filter) to separate particles and
microorganisms suspended in a fluid
sample including food, air and
water.

A

membrane filtration technique

113
Q

filter membranes retain
particles or microorganisms larger
than their pore size primarily by
surface capture

what kind of filter membranes

A

cellulose nitrate
cellulose acetate

114
Q

major advantage of the membrane filtration
technique over the MPN technique is that it

A

isolates discrete colonies of bacteria

115
Q

what agar is used for membrane filtration technique

A

Endo agar or EMB

116
Q

provide results
on bacterial count within
24 hours unlike the MPN
technique that takes
several days to conclude.

A

membrane filtration technique

117
Q

goals of testing are to detect possible drug
resistance in common pathogens and to assure
susceptibility to drugs of choice for particular
infections

A

antimicrobial assay

118
Q

method used for antimicrobial assay

A

broth microdilution
disk diffusion
gradient diffusion

119
Q

MIC or zone diameter
value used to categorize an organism
as susceptible, susceptible-dose
dependent, intermediate, nonsusceptible, or resistant.

A

breakpoint

120
Q

category
derived from microbiology
characteristics,
pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamics
parameters, and clinical outcome
data, when available

A

interpretive category

121
Q

–breakpoint that implies that isolates with an MIC at
or below; or zone diameters at or above the susceptible breakpoint
inhibited by the usually achievable concentrations of antimicrobial
agent when the dosage recommended to treat the site of infection
is used, resulting in likely clinical efficacy.

A

susceptible

122
Q

breakpoint that implies that
susceptibility of an isolate is dependent on the dosing regimen that
is used in the patient. I

A

suceptible-dose dependent

123
Q

–breakpoint that includes isolates with MICs or
zone diameters within the intermediate range

A

intermediate

124
Q

breakpoint that implies that isolates with an MIC at or above
or zone diameters at or below the resistant breakpoint

A

resistant

General Microbiology (25 decks)

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