Growth and Reproduction in Prokaryotes Flashcards

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1
Q

bacterial cells do not divide by meiosis and mitosis. Instead, most bacteria grow asexually by a process known as ___

A

binary fission

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2
Q

Describe the process of Binary fission

A

bacterium copies it chromosome
elongates, and splits off into two daughter bacteria with a genetic makeup identical to the parental bacterium

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3
Q

when dormant bacteria are transferred to a fresh medium with plenty of nutrients, they spend some time switching their metabolic machinery from a dormant state called

A

lag phase

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4
Q

can last from less than an hour to days, depending on the species of bacteria

A

lag phase

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5
Q

during the ___ phase, the bacteria are actively undergoing binary fission

A

log phase

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6
Q

the bacteria double their numbers every ___ ____

A

generation period

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7
Q

can range from 20 minutes to days, depending on the species

A

generation period

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8
Q

as long as there are plenty of nutrients and little waste buildup, the bacteria will continue growing ___

A

exponentially

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9
Q

it is convenient to represent the growth of the bacteria on a ___ graph, because the numbers of bacteria increase very rapidly with each subsequent generation

A

logarithmic graph

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10
Q

after the bacteria have grown for a while and they are starting to deplete the nutrients in the growth medium, some of the cells begin to die

A

stationary phase

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11
Q

phase where number of cells dying = new cells

A

stationary phase

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12
Q

after the bacteria have depleted most of their nutrients and their waste buildup is too great, the bacteria begins to deplete in larger numbers than are made

what phase

A

death phase

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13
Q

if a cell is to survive, it must switch its metabolism back to a ___ state

A

dormant

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14
Q

increase in cellular constituents

A

growth

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15
Q

§ Increase in cellular constituents
that may result in: (2)

A

increase in cell number
increase in cell size

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16
Q

If ____ ____ at the back of
your throat, a sore
throat.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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17
Q

Growth of
microorganisms in
refrigerator shortens/lengthns the
shelf life of the food

A

shortens

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18
Q

can produce beer, wine, cheese, yogurt, and other products

A

bacterial growth

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19
Q

most bacterial chromosomes are shaped __

A

circular

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20
Q

proceeds in both directions from the origin

A

DNA replication

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21
Q

after DNA replication, what happens to the cell?

A

elongation

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22
Q

formation of cross walls between daughter cells and cells separate

A

septation

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23
Q

types of bacterial division (4)

A

Binary Fission
Budding
Certain actinomycetes by conidiospores
Fragmentation

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24
Q

is a complex molecular machine responsible for DNA replication, ensuring that the genetic material is accurately duplicated before cell division

A

replisome

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25
Q

time required for the population to double in size

A

generation (doubling) time

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26
Q

§ varies depending on species of microorganism and
environmental conditions

A

generation (doubling) time

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27
Q

range is from 10 minutes for some bacteria to several days for
some eukaryotic microorganisms

A

generation (doubling) time

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28
Q

generation time is calculated during the ___ phase

A

log (growth)

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29
Q

what temperature can speed up generation time

A

room temp

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30
Q

what temp prolong doubling time

A

lower temperature

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31
Q

Microbial populations show a characteristic type of growth pattern called

A

exponential growth

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32
Q

convert to logarithmic number if arithmetic number is 1024

A

3.01

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33
Q

convert logarithmic number 6.02 to arithmetic

A

1047128.548

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34
Q

formula for the number of generation

A

= log no. of cells (end) - log no of cells (start) / 0.301 (constant)

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35
Q

constant number for number of generation

A

0.301

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36
Q

generation time is calculated using

A

= time lapse in minutes or (min/generation) / number of generations

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37
Q

if 100 cells growing for 5 hours produced 1,720,320 cells:

what is the number of generations

A

14.07

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38
Q

if 100 cells growing for 5 hours produced 1,720,320 cells:

what is the generation time

A

21.32 min/generation

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39
Q

final cell count formula

A

initial cell count*2^number of generations

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40
Q

pastry chef accidentally inoculated a cream pie with six S. aureus cells. If S. aureus has a generation time of 60 minutes, how many cells would be in the cream pie after 7 hours?

A

768 cells

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41
Q

Clostridium and Streptococcus are both catalase-negative. Streptococcus grows by fermentation. Why is Clostridium killed by oxygen, whereas Streptococcus is not?

A

This happens because Clostridium and Streptococcus have distinct responses to oxygen due to their metabolic pathways and enzyme profiles. Clostridium is categorized as an obligate anaerobe, meaning it cannot live in the presence of oxygen as it lacks defensive enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase resulting in oxidative damage and cell death. Contrastingly, Streptococcus is classified as a facultative anaerobe or microaerophile–it can thrive in both the presence and absence of oxygen. They contain partial enzymatic defenses against reactive oxygen species, allowing them to survive in low-oxygen environments. In terms of their metabolic processes, Clostridium relies on fermentation for energy while Streptococcus can switch between fermentation and aerobic respiration depending on oxygen availability, allowing for efficient ATP production

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42
Q

Flask A contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C with aeration. Flask B contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C in an anaerobic jar. The yeasts are facultative anaerobes.

Which culture produced more ATP?

A

Flask A produced more ATP than Flask B. This is because flask A uses aeration for aerobic respiration allowing yeast to fully oxidize glucose through glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. The theoretical maximum yield of ATP from aerobic respiration is 30 to 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. Flask B, on the other hand, utilizes an anaerobic environment, requiring yeast to rely only on fermentation for ATP production (the yield of ATP from fermentation is lower producing only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule).

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43
Q

Flask A contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C with aeration. Flask B contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C in an anaerobic jar. The yeasts are facultative anaerobes.

Which culture produced more alcohol?

A

Flask A (aerobic condition), yeast undergoes respiration which is more efficient for energy production but does not favor alcohol production. In flask B (anaerobic condition), yeast relies on fermentation to convert glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide, which is less effective in terms of energy yield but produces a greater concentration of alcohol as a byproduct.

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44
Q

Flask A contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C with aeration. Flask B contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C in an anaerobic jar. The yeasts are facultative anaerobes.

Which culture had the shorter generation time

A

The culture with the shorter generation time is Flask A (Aerobic). This is because Aerobic conditions generally promote faster growth rates for facultative anaerobes due to the higher energy yield from aerobic respiration compared to fermentation, which occurs in anaerobic conditions.

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45
Q

Flask A contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C with aeration. Flask B contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C in an anaerobic jar. The yeasts are facultative anaerobes

Which culture had the greater cell mass

A

The culture with greater cell mass is Flask A (Aerobic). This is because the efficient energy production from aerobic respiration allows for more rapid cell division and biomass accumulation compared to the slower fermentation process in anaerobic conditions

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46
Q

Flask A contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C with aeration. Flask B contains yeast cells in glucose–minimal salts broth incubated at 30°C in an anaerobic jar. The yeasts are facultative anaerobes.

Which culture had the higher absorbance?

A

The culture with higher absorbance is Flask A (Aerobic). This is because in yeast cultures, absorbance at 600 nm (OD600) correlates with cell density; thus, the higher growth rate and biomass in aerobic conditions would result in a higher absorbance measurement compared to the anaerobic culture

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47
Q

As essential
nutrients are depleted or toxic products build up, growth ceases, and the
population enters the

A

stationary phase

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48
Q

longest time in the growth curve

A

stationary growth

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49
Q

soil bacteria would constantly be in ___ phase since the soil has a lot of nutrients

A

stationary

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50
Q

Cell synthesizing new components

what phase

A

lag phase

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51
Q

Cell synthesizing new components
for what reason (2)

A

replenish spent materials
adapt to new medium or conditions

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52
Q

some cases can be short or even absent

what phase

A

lag phase

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53
Q

lag phase can also depend on the ___ of the medium (is it selective or enrichment, or what temp is the medium in)

A

harshness

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54
Q

The general rule of thumb is that
microbes adapt to a shift to
improved conditions _______
rapidly than they do to a shift to
poorer conditions.

A

much more

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55
Q

Also called log phase or log
growth phase

A

exponential phase

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56
Q

Rate of growth and division is
constant and maximal

A

exponential phase

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57
Q

Population is most uniform in
terms of chemical and physical
properties during this phase

A

exponential phase

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58
Q

Bacteria from this stage would
be used for studies

A

exponential phase

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59
Q

Closed system population growth
ceases due to
§ Nutrient limitation
§ accumulation of a waste product.
§ Limited oxygen availability
§ Critical population density reached
§ Bacteria die off and liberate some
nutrients

A

stationary phase

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60
Q

§ no change in the number of viable
cells, active cells stop reproducing
or reproductive rate is balanced by
death rate

A

stationary phase

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61
Q

can last for a long period since microbes in microbes in nutrient-poor environments (like soils and many
aqueous environments) probably
spend most of their time in stationary
phase

A

stationary phase

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62
Q

Cell numbers begin to decline due to
§ DNA or protein damage or
§ perhaps exhaustion of energy reserves
§ Accumulation of toxic waste

what phase

A

death phase

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63
Q

Bacteria are dying off opposite to ___ growth phase

A

log

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64
Q

do bacteria die all at once?

A

no

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65
Q

two alternative hypothesis for death phase

A

cells are viable but not culturable (VBNC)

cells alive, but dormant, capable of new growth when conditions are right

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66
Q

fraction of the population genetically programmed to die

A

programmed cell death

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67
Q

can microbes regulate their internal temp?

A

no

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68
Q

temperature with minimum growth

A

minimum temperature

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69
Q

growth rate will spike into exponential growth with what temp

A

optimum temp

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70
Q

growth rate will slow down with what temp (after optimum temp)

A

maximum temp

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71
Q

major environmental factor controlling microbial growth

A

temperature

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72
Q

are the minimum, optimum, and maximum temperatures at which each organism grows

A

cardinal temprature

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73
Q

optimum is 15C
and max is below 20 C

what microbes

A

psychropiles

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74
Q

opt. 20C to 40C

what microbes

A

psychrotolerant

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75
Q

0 oC to 35 oC

which microbes

A

psychrotrophs

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76
Q

which is more tolerant of chaging temperatures

psychrotrophs
psychrotolerant

A

psychrotrophs

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77
Q
  • optima in the 20 oC
    to 45 oC range
A

mesophiles

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78
Q

s have optima from
45 oC to 80 oC

A

thermophiles

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79
Q

optima,
above 80 C

A

extreme thermophiles

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80
Q

which microbes has the optimum temp at room temp

A

mesophile

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81
Q

core temp of body

A

37 degrees

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82
Q

surface temp of the body

A

35 degrees

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83
Q

which have midrange temperature optima, are found in warmblooded animals and in terrestrial and aquatic environments in temperate and
tropical latitudes

A

mesophiles

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84
Q

have evolved to grow optimally under very
hot or very cold conditions

A

extremophiles

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85
Q

Organisms with cold temperature optima are called

A

psychrophiles

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86
Q

most extreme representatives inhabit permanently cold environments.

A

psychrophiles

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87
Q

have evolved biomolecules that function best at cold
temperatures but that can be unusually sensitive to warm temperatures

A

psychrophiles

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88
Q

Organisms that grow at 0ºC but have optima of 20ºC to 40ºC are called

A

psychrotolerant

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89
Q

Organisms with growth temperature optima between 45ºC and 80ºC are called

A

thermophiles

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90
Q

optima greater than 80°C

A

hyperthermophiles

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91
Q

These organisms inhabit hot environments up to and including boiling hot
springs, as well as undersea hydrothermal vents that can have temperatures in
excess of 100ºC.

A

hyperthermophiles

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92
Q

Thermophiles and hyperthermophiles produce heat-stable macromolecules,
such as

A

taq polymerase

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93
Q

which is used to automate the repetitive steps in the
polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique.

A

Taq polymerase

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94
Q

temperature where membrane is gelling; transport processes so slow that growth cannot occur

A

minimum temp

95
Q

temperature where enzymatic reactions are occuring at maximal possible rate

A

optimum

96
Q

what temperature where protein denaturation occurs; collapse of the cytoplasmic membrane; thermal lysis occurs

A

maximum temp

97
Q

refers to the process where a liquid or sol forms a gel-like structure when it comes into contact with a membrane

A

membrane gelling

98
Q

blood pH becomes ___ when you are sick

A

acidic

99
Q

§ In water, the hydrogen ion concentration will range from 1 x 10-
14 M (a pH of 14) to 1 M (a pH of 0).

A

hydrogen ion concentration (pH)

100
Q

Microbes are found at almost any conceivable pH, with most
common bacteria growing at or near

A

neutral pH (7)

101
Q

ome organisms have evolved to grow best at low or high pH, but most
organisms grow best between pH

A

6 and 8

102
Q

. The internal pH of a cell must
stay relatively close to ___ even though the external pH is highly
acidic or basic

A

neutral

103
Q

Organisms that grow best at low pH are called

A

acidophiles

104
Q

those that
grow best at high pH are called a

A

alkaliphiles

105
Q

-pH optima 1-5.4

A

acidophiles

106
Q

pH optima 5.5-7.9

A

Neutrophiles

107
Q

pH optima between 0-2

A

extreme acidophiles

108
Q

pH optima between 11-14

A

extreme alkalophiles

109
Q

causes lactic acid formations

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

110
Q

The normal pH of blood is between

A

7.35 to 7.45

111
Q

what processes can make water unavailable

A

high salt intake
freezing
evaporation

112
Q

is a measurement of how
much free water is available

A

water availability

113
Q

Pure water has a water activity of ___%

A

100

114
Q

water activity decreases when ___ are added to the solution

A

solutes

115
Q

(lower osmotic concentration)

A

hypotonic solution

116
Q

what happens when the outside has a hypotonic solution

A

water enters the cell

117
Q

occur when cell swells and burst (hypotonic solution)

A

plasmoptysis

118
Q

higher osmotic concentration

A

hypertonic

119
Q

water leaves the cell; membrane shrinks from the cell wall

what concentration

A

hypertionic

120
Q

cells shrinking from membrane

A

crenation

121
Q

he process by which a cell’s protoplasm bursts through its cell wall, releasing colloidal and liquid substances

A

plasmoptysis

122
Q

the process by which cells lose water and shrink

A

plasmolysis

123
Q

which happens when cell has an hypertonic solution outside

A

plasmolysis

124
Q

which happens when cell has an hypotonic solution inside

A

plasmoptysis

125
Q

aw stands for

A

water activity

126
Q

bacteria are less tolerant of ___ water activity

A

less

127
Q

an extremophile that thrives in high salt concentrations.

A

halophile

128
Q

15-30% NaCl concentration

A

extreme halophiles

129
Q

6-15% NaCl

A

moderate halophiles

130
Q

1-6% NaCl

A

mild halophiles

131
Q

– endures NaCl; organisms can tolerate some
reduction in the water activity of their environment but
generally grow best in the absence of the added solute.

A

halotolerant

132
Q

– lives in high sugar

A

osmophiles

133
Q

– microbes in dry environments

A

xerophiles

134
Q

have evolved to grow best
at reduced water potentia

A

halophiles

135
Q

require high levels of salts for growth

A

extreme halophiles

136
Q

Water activity becomes limiting to an organism when the dissolved
solute concentration in its environment increases/decreases

A

increases

137
Q

to counteract low water activity, organisms produce or accumulate

A

intracellular compatible solutes

138
Q
A
139
Q

Many microbes and most eukaryotes need
___ for growth as it is the terminal
electron acceptor.

A

oxygen

140
Q

§Others microbes can live without it and some
cannot even tolerate its presence.

A

oxygen

141
Q

with this, oxygen requirement for microorganisms are divided into five

A

obligate aerobes
facultative anaerobes
microaerophiles
aerotolorant anaerobes
strict anaerobes

142
Q

require oxygen to live

A

aerobes

143
Q

s do not and may
even be killed by oxygen.

A

anaerobes

144
Q

e organisms can live with or without oxygen.

A

facultative aerobes

145
Q

s are aerobes that can use oxygen only when it is
present at levels reduced from that in air.

A

microaerophiles

146
Q

use oxygen lower than 21 percent

A

mircoaerophiles

147
Q

can tolerate oxygen and grow in its presence
even though they cannot use it

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

148
Q

are able to use
oxygen in metabolic processes and generate more energy per
mole of energy source consumed.

A

strict aerobes and facultative anaerobes

149
Q

do not use
oxygen in their metabolism and typically have a lower energy
yield and slower growth rates.

A

aerotolerant anaerobes
strict anaerobes

150
Q

requires oxygen

A

obligate aerobe

151
Q

oxygen not required, but growth is better with O2

A

facultative aerobe

152
Q

oxygen required at levels but at levels lower than atmospheric

A

microaerophilic

153
Q

oxygen not required, growth no better when O2 is present

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

154
Q

oxygen is harmful or lethal

A

obligate anaerobe

155
Q

A reducing agent
such as
___ can be
added to a medium
to test an organism’s
requirement for
oxygen

A

thiogylcolate

156
Q

Several toxic forms
of oxygen can be
formed in the cell,
but enzymes are
present that can
neutralize most of
them

example of toxic oxygen

A

superoxide

157
Q

O2 + e- becomes

A

O2- superoxide

158
Q

superoxide with addition of e- and 2H becomes

A

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

159
Q

H2O2 + e- + H+

A

hydroxy radical + water

160
Q

are molecules thjat help protect your body from damage caused by harmful molecules called free radicals

A

antioxidant

161
Q

enzymes that destroy toxic forms of oxygen (5)

A

catalase
peroxidase
superoxide dismutase
superoxide dismustase + catalase
superoxide reductase

162
Q

convert two molecules of hydrogen peroxide to waste rand oxygen

A

catalase

163
Q

an enzyme that catalyzes the oxidation of various substances using peroxides, particularly hydrogen peroxide

A

peroxidase

164
Q

requirement for nutrition of microorganisms

A

macronutrients
micronutrients
trace elements
temperature
pH
osmotic pressure (Aw)
Oxygen

165
Q

macronutrients needed by oxygen (5)

A

Carbon
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Phosphorus

166
Q

Main constituent of cellular material

A

carbon

167
Q

list out the macronutrients based on % of dryweight (highest to lowest)

A

Carbon
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Phosphorus

168
Q

Constituent of cell material and cell
water; O2 is electron acceptor in
aerobic respiration

A

oxygen

169
Q

Constituent of amino acids, nucleic
acids nucleotides, and
coenzymes

A

nitrogen

170
Q

Constituent of organic compounds
and cell water. Also important in
energy generation as protons.

A

hydrogen

171
Q

Constituent of nucleic acids,
nucleotides, phospholipids, LPS,
teichoic acids

A

phosphorus

172
Q

micronutrients present (5)

A

sulfur
potassium
magnesium
calcium
iron

173
Q

list the micronutrients from highest to lowest based on % of dryweight

A

Sulfur
Potassium
Magnesium
Calcium
Iron

174
Q

Constituent of cysteine, methionine,
glutathione, several coenzymes

A

sulfur

175
Q

Main cellular inorganic cation and
cofactor for certain enzymes

A

potassium

176
Q

Inorganic cellular cation, cofactor
for certain enzymatic reactions

A

magnesium

177
Q

Inorganic cellular cation, cofactor
for certain enzymes and a
component of endospores

A

calcium

178
Q

Component of cytochromes and
other proteins and a cofactor for
some enzymatic reactions

A

iron

179
Q

In amino acids,
proteins
Most bacteria
decompose proteins
Some bacteria use
NH4
+ or NO3
-
A few bacteria use N2
in nitrogen fixation

what element

A

nitrogen

180
Q

In amino acids,
thiamine, biotin
Most bacteria
decompose proteins
Some bacteria use
SO4
2- or H2S

what element

A

sulfur

181
Q

In DNA, RNA, ATP, and
membranes
PO4
3- is a source of
phosphorus

what element

A

phosphorus

182
Q

trace element that play a role in metabolism (5)

A

Cobalt
Zinc
Molybdenum
Copper
Manganese
Nickel

183
Q

Part of vitamin B12, which is used to carry
methyl groups

A

cobalt

184
Q

Structural role in many enzymes including
DNA polymerase

A

Zinc

185
Q

Certain reactions involving nitrogen
assimilation. Found in nitrate reductase and
nitrogenase

A

Molbydenum

186
Q

Catalytic role in some enzymes that react
with oxygen for example cytochrome
oxidase.

A

copper

187
Q

Required by a number of enzymes in
catalytic sites. Certain photosynthetic
enzymes use manganese to split water into
oxygen and protons.

A

manganese

188
Q

Several different enzymes including some
involved in carbon monoxide metabolism,
urea metabolism and methanogenesis

A

Nickel

189
Q

§ Some examples of growth factors include (3)

A

vitamins
amino acids
nucleic acid

190
Q

are non-protein components of many enzymes

A

vitamins

191
Q

Inorganic elements required in small amounts
§ Usually as enzyme cofactors

A

trace elements

192
Q

nutritional classification of microbes based on energy

A

phototrophic
chemotrophic

193
Q

nutritional classification of microbes based on carbon

A

autotrophs
heterotrophs

194
Q

nutritional classification of microbes based on electron

A

organotrophs
lithotrophs

195
Q

utilize
light as a source of
energy

A

photorophic

196
Q

obtain
energy by the oxidation
of either inorganic or
organic compounds.

A

chemtrophs

197
Q

obtain
their carbon from
carbon dioxide

A

autotrophs

198
Q

rely on
pre-made organic
compounds for carbon.

A

heterotrophs

199
Q

obtain
their electrons from
organic compounds

A

organotrophs

200
Q
  • obtain
    electrons from inorganic
    compounds
A

lithotrophs

201
Q

nutritional type of cyanobacteria

A

Photoautothropic lithotrophs

202
Q

most bacteria and some archea have this nutritional type

A

chemoheterotrophic organotrophs

203
Q

check the drawing of sir wilson

A

+1

204
Q

§ Parameters used as a measure of growth of a population of
bacteria. They include (3)

A

change in cell number
change in turbidity or light scattering
change in amount of cell component

205
Q

three types of measurement of microbial growth

A

microscopic count
viable counting method
measurement of cell mass

206
Q

three methods of microscopic counts

A

counting chambers
electronic counters - flow cytometry
on membrane filters

207
Q

three methods of viable counting methods

A

spread and pour plate thechnique
membrane filter
turbidity for most probable number (MPN)

208
Q

three methods of measurement of cell mass

A

dry weight analysis
measurement of cell components
turbidity

209
Q

Easy, inexpensive, and
quick
§ Useful for counting both
eukaryotes and prokaryotes
§ Cannot distinguish living
from dead cells

A

direct count: counting chambers

210
Q

§ Microbial suspension forced through small orifice with a
laser light beam

what method

A

direct count: flow cytometry

211
Q

§ Movement of microbe through orifice impacts electric
current that flows through orifice

what method of direct count

A

flow cytometry

212
Q

Instances of disruption of current are counted = result in
count of individual cells.

what direct count

A

flow cytometry

213
Q

limitations of direct count

A

§ (1) Without special staining techniques dead cells cannot be
distinguished from live cells.
§ (2) Small cells are diffi- cult to see under the microscope, and some
cells are inevitably missed.
§ (3) Precision is difficult to achieve.
§ (4) A phase-contrast microscope is required if the sample is not
stained.
§ (5) Cell suspensions of low density (less than about 106
cells/milliliter) have few if any bacteria in the microscope field
unless a sample is first concentrated and resuspended in a small
volume.
§ (6) Motile cells must be immobilized before counting.
§ (7) Debris in the sample may be mistaken for microbial cells

214
Q

VBNC stand sfor

A

viable but not culturable

215
Q

diluted sample of bacteria is spread over solid agar surface or
mixed with agar and poured into Petri plate

A

spread plate

216
Q

after incubation the numbers of organisms are determined by
counting the number of colonies multiplied by the dilution factor
§ results expressed as colony forming units (CFU)

A

spread and pour plate

217
Q

can only be used when it has a specified amount of inoculum in the loop

A

spread and pour plate techniques

218
Q

optimal number of CFU

A

30-300

219
Q

bacteria from aquatic samples are
trapped on membranes
§ membrane placed on culture media
§ colonies grow on membrane
§ colony count determines # of bacteria in
sample

what technique

A

membrane filter technique

220
Q

medium selective for gram-negative bacteria

A

endo agar

221
Q

determined to yield the most probable number
(MPN)

A

turbidity

222
Q

MPN means

A

most probable number

223
Q

small test tube used in microbiology to detect the production of gas by microorganisms

A

durhan tumbe

224
Q

can be highly unreliable when used to assess
total cell numbers of natural samples such as soil and water

A

plate counts

225
Q

typically reveal
far more organisms than are recoverable on plates of any
given culture medium.

A

direct count

226
Q

Direct microscopic counts of natural samples typically reveal
far more organisms than are recoverable on plates of any
given culture medium.

is called what phenomenon

A

great plate count anomaly

227
Q

occurs because direct microscopic methods count dead cells
whereas viable methods do not, and different organisms in
even a very small sample may have vastly different
requirements for resources and conditions in laboratory
culture.

A

great plate count anomaly

228
Q

measurement of cell mass can be done by (3)

A

dry weight
quantity of particular cell constituent
turbidometric measures

229
Q

§ time consuming and not very sensitive

what measurement of cell mass

A

dry weight

230
Q

what measurement of cell mass

e.g., protein, DNA, ATP, or chlorophyll
§ useful if amount of substance in each cell is constant

A

quantity of a particular cell constituent

231
Q

what measurement of cell mass

quick, easy, and sensitive

A

turbidometric measures (light scattering)

232
Q

are an indirect but very rapid and useful
method of measuring microbial growth

A

turbidity measurements

233
Q

However, to relate
a direct cell count to a turbidity value, a ____ curve must first be
established

A

standard