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Micro- Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of GN and GP are the major cytokine inducers?

A

GN: lipid A- TNF, IL1
GP: LTA- TNF, IL1

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2
Q

Describe the cell membrane/ cell wall of mycoplasma

A

contains sterols

no cell wall

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3
Q

Describe the cell membrane/cell wall of mycobacteria

A

contains mycolic acid

high lipid content

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4
Q

What staining can be used to detect Legionella?

A

silver stain

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5
Q

What does Ziehl-neelsen staining detect?

A

acid fast organisms

Nocardia, Mycobacterium

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6
Q

What does india ink staining detect?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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7
Q

What does sabouraud agar culture?

A

Fungi

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8
Q

What does Thayer-martin agar culture?

A

Neisseria

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9
Q

What does Bordet-Gengou agar culture?

A

B. pertussis

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10
Q

What Tellurite agar culture?

A

C. diptheria

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11
Q

What does Lowenstein-Jenson agar culture?

A

M. tuberculosis

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12
Q

What does Eaton agar culture?

A

M. pneumonia

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13
Q

What does charcoal yeast extract agar culture?

A

Legionella

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14
Q

What are 3 examples of obligate anaerobes? What are some clinical features of them?

A

Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces

foul smelling, produce gas in tissue, dont treat with aminoglycosides

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15
Q

What are 2 examples of obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

Chlamydia, Rickettsia

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of Protein A and what organism expresses it?

A

Binds Fc region IgG, prevents opsonization and phagocytosis

S. aureus

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17
Q

What organisms express IgA protease? What is this important to colonize?

A

S. pneumo, H. flu, Neisseria

imp for colonizing resp tract

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18
Q

What does M protein do and what organism expresses it?

A

GAS

prevents phagocytosis

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19
Q

What toxin does C. diptheria produce? What is mechanism?

A

Diptheria toxin

Inactivation of elongation factor (EF-2)

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20
Q

What toxin does P. auruginosa produce? What is the mechanism

A

Exotoxin A

Inactivation of elongation factor (EF-2)

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21
Q

What toxin does shigella produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Shiga toxin
inactivate 60s ribosome- remove adenine from rRNA
HUS

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22
Q

What toxin does EHEC produce? What is the mechanism

A

Shiga-like toxin
inactivate 60s ribosome- remove adenine from rRNA
HUS

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23
Q

What toxins do ETEC produce? What are mechanisms?

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT)- incr cAMP (via adenylate cyclase)- Cl- secretion
Heat-stable toxin (LT)- incr cGMP- decr NaCL resorption

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24
Q

What toxin does vibrio cholerae produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Cholera toxin
incr cAMP by permanently activating Gs
incr CL- secretion

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25
Q

What toxin does Bordetella pertussis produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Pertussis toxin

incr cAMP by disabling Gi, impairs phagocytosis

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26
Q

What toxin does Clostridium tetani produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Tetanospasmin- protease cleaves SNARE prot

spacticity, lock jaw- act on inhibitory neuronotransmitters (GABA, glycine)

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27
Q

What toxin does Clostridium botulinum produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Botulinum toxin- protease cleaves SNARE prot

flaccid paralysis- act on stimulatory neuronotransmitters (Ach)

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28
Q

What toxin does Clostridum perfinges produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Alpha toxin
phospholipase- degrades tissue and cell membranes
gas gangrene, hemolysis

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29
Q

What toxin does S. pyogenes produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Streptolysin O
Degrades cell membranes
Lyses RBC

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30
Q

What superantigen does S. aureus produce? What is the mechanism?

A

TSST-1

Bring MHC II and TCR in proximity

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31
Q

What superantigen does S. pyogenes produce? What is the mechanism?

A

Exotoxin A

Bring MHC II and TCR in proximity

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32
Q

Compare generalized vs specialized transduction

A

Generalized- packaging event, lytic phage

specialized- excision event, lysogenic phage

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33
Q

Novobiocin sensitive

A

S. epidermidis

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34
Q

Optochin sensitive

A

S. pneumOnia

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35
Q

Bacitracin sensitive

A

S. pyogenes

group A strep

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36
Q

Catalase negative, a hemolytic (2)

A

S. pneumoniae

Viridans streptococci

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37
Q

GP, catalase negative, a hemolytic, bile insoluble

A

Viridans streptococci

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38
Q

GP, catalase negative, non-hemolytic (2)

How differentiate?

A 
Group D (enterococcus- E. faecalis)- Grow in 6.5% NaCl
Nonenterococcus (S. bovis)- Don't grow in 6.5% NaCl
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39
Q

b-hemolytic GP rod

A

Listeria

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40
Q

What GP organism is likely to cause abscesses? What is the mechanism?

A

S. aureus

forms fibrin clots around self (coagulase and other toxins)

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41
Q

What GP organism is likely to cause dental carries?

A

S. mutans

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42
Q

What GP organism makes dextrans? What does this cause?

A

S. sanguinis

endocarditis (via binding to fibrin-platelet aggregates)

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43
Q

What 4 diseases is S. pneumo the most common cause of?

A 
MOPS
Meningitis
Otitis media 
Pneumonia
sinusitis
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44
Q

CAMP test +

A

Group B strep

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45
Q

ELEK test

A

C. diptheria

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46
Q

What vaccine is given to prevent diphtheria?

A

Toxoid vaccine

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47
Q

Causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis with grayish-white membrane. What are other risks?

A

Diphtheria

myocarditis and arrhythmia

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48
Q

What is the only bacteria with a polypeptide capsule?

A

B. anthracis

contains D-glutamate

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49
Q

What is woolsorter’s disease?

A

inhalation of anthrax spores from contaminated wool

50
Q

What food poisoning is associated with rice and past? What is toxin?

A

B. cereus

cereulide toxin- preformed- 1-5h after eating

51
Q

Flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulm hemorrhage, mediastinitis, shock

A

pulmonary anthrax

52
Q

What is the only gram positive organism to produce LPS?

A

Listera monocytogenes

53
Q

What are the GP branching filament organisms? How differentiate?

A

Actinomyces- Anaerobe, not acid fast

Nocardia- Aerobe, acid fast

54
Q

What causes amnionitis, septicemia, and spontaneous abortion and mild gastroenteritis in adults?

A

L. monocytogenes

55
Q

What is the common source of Listeria?

A

unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats

56
Q

What is the treatment for listeria?

A

Ampicillin

57
Q

What is used to treat Actinomyces?

A

penicillin

58
Q

What is used to treat Nocardia?

A

sulfonamides

59
Q

What are the virulence factors of mycobacteria do?

A

Cord factor- inhibits macrophage maturation, induces release of TNFa
Sulfatides- inhibit phagoysosomal fxn

60
Q

What is the prophylactic treatment for MAC?

A

azithromycin

61
Q

What is the treatment for lepromatous vs tuberculoid Tb?

A

Lepromatous- dapsone, rifampin, clofazimine 2-5yrs

Tuberculoid- dapsone, rifampin, 6mo

62
Q

Oxidase+, comma shaped, grows in 42 deg

A

Campylobacter

63
Q

Oxidase+, comma shaped, grows alkaline media

A

vibrio cholerae

64
Q

Oxidase+, comma shaped, produces urease

65
Q

Gram Neg diploccoci, Maltose fermenter

A

N. menigitidis

66
Q

Gram Neg diploccoci, non-maltose fermenter

A

N. gonorrhea

67
Q

GNR, NLF, Ox+

A

Pseudomonas

68
Q

GNR, LF (2)

A

Klebsiella, E coli

69
Q

GNR, NLF, Ox- (4)

A

Shigella
Salmonella
Proteus
Yersinia

70
Q

EMB agar- LF vs NLF

A

LF- purple/black colonies

71
Q

Treatment of Neisseria

A

ceftriaxone (or penicillin G)

72
Q

H. flu treatment
mucosal
menigitis
menigitis prophylaxis

A

mucosal: amoxicillin +/- calvulanate
menigitis: ceftriaxone
menigitis prophylaxis: rifampin

73
Q

What causes epiglottitis?

74
Q

GN coccobacilli (2-4)

A

H. flu
Bordetella pertussis
pasteurelis
brucella

75
Q

What type of pneumonia also has hyponatremia?

A

Legionella

76
Q

Treatment of Legionella

A

macrolide or quinolone

77
Q

What causes malignant otitis externa in diabetics?

A

P. arueginosa

78
Q

What causes hot tub folliculitis?

A

P. aeruginosa

79
Q

What is ecthyma gangrenosum? What causes it?

A

necrotic cutaneous lesion, P. aeruginosa

80
Q

What is the treatment of P. aeruginosa?

A

aminoglycoside + extended spectrum penicillin

81
Q

What is the E. coli virulence factor for pneumonia and neonatal meningitis?

82
Q

What is the E. coli virulence factor for cystitis and pyelonephritis?

83
Q

What infection is common for burn patients

A

P. aeruginosa

84
Q

What does EIEC cause?

A

Dysentery

invades intestinal mucosa- necrosis and inflammation

85
Q

What does EPEC cause?

A

Diarrhea, often in childreen

no toxin, adhere to apical surface, flattens villi, prevent absorption

86
Q

What type of E. coli does not ferment sorbitol?

87
Q

What does ETEC cause?

A 
Travelers diarrhea (watery)
heat-labile or heat-stable toxin
88
Q

What commonly causes lobar pneumonia in acoholics and diabetics

A

Klebsiella

89
Q

Where does S. typhi remain in carrier state?

A

Gallbladder

90
Q

What type of inflammatory response is associated with shigella vs salmonella?

A

Salmonella- monocytic

Shigella- PMN

91
Q

What diarrhea causing organism often causes Guillain-Barre and reactive arthritis?

92
Q

Rice water diarrhea

93
Q

Can cause mesenteric adenitis; can get from pets

A

Yersinia enetrcolitica

94
Q

Treatment for H. pylori

A

PPI+clarithromycin+ amoxicillin or metronidazole

95
Q

What are the 3 spirochetes?

A

Borrelia (big)
Leptospira
Treponema

96
Q

Flu-like sx, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion

A

Leptosporosis

97
Q

What is the cause of leptosporosis?

A

Animal urine in water

98
Q

What is Weil disease?

A

severe form of leptosporosis

fever, hemorrhage, anemia (liver + kidney dysfunction)

99
Q

What are the lesions associated with primary vs secondary vs tertiary syphillis?

A

Primary: chancre
Secondary: condyloma lata, rash on palms and soles
Teritary: gumma

100
Q

Presents with saber shins, saddle nose, CNVIII deafness, mulberry molars

A

congenital syphillis

101
Q

What is the natural reservoir of Borrelia burgdorferi?

102
Q

Presents with erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms, facial nerve palsy

A

Lyme disease

103
Q

Presents as monoarthritis, AV nodal block, migratory polyarthritis, neuro

A

Lyme disease

104
Q

Treatment of Lyme disease

A

doxycycline, ceftriaxone

105
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Flu-like sx after starting antibiotics- killed bacteria release pyrogens

106
Q

What organisms are carried by the Ixodes tick?

A

Anaplasmosis

Borrelia burgdorferi

107
Q

What is associated with clue cells?

A

gardnerella vaginalis

108
Q

What is associated with LAD with stellate granulomas with central necrosis?

A

Bartonella henselae (gram neg bacillus)

109
Q

What is the treatment for Ricketssia and vector-borne illness?

A

doxycycline

110
Q

Presents with a rash starting centrally that spreads out, sparing palms and soles

111
Q

What are the vectors for typhus?

A

Endemic (R. typhi)- fleas

Epidemic (R prowazekki)- human body louse

112
Q

Presents as a rash starting at wrists and ankles, spreads to trunk, palms, soles

A

Rickettsia

113
Q

Present with monocytes with morulae in cytoplasm (2), rash rare

A

Ehrilchiosis, anaplasmosis

114
Q

Presents with pneumonia, rash rare, no arthropod vector

A

Q fever

Coxiella burnetti

115
Q

Presents as small painless ulcers on genitals that progress to swollen, painful inguinal LN that ulcerate

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Types L1, L2, L3

116
Q

Treatment for chlamydia

A

azithromycin or doxycycline

117
Q

What are the two forms of chlamydia?

A

Elementary bodies- enters cell via endocytosis, small and dense
Reticulate bodies- replicate in cell by fission

118
Q

Causes blindness due to follicular conjuctivitis in Africa

A

C. trachomatis

Types A, B, C

119
Q

Pneumonia presents with insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate
Common in younger individuals

A

Myocplasma pneumoniae

120
Q

What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumonia

A

macrolide, doxycycline, flouroquinolone

121
Q

positive for RBC agglutination, lysis of RBCs

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

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