Lecture 25 - Alimentary 6

Question 1

What tests are involved in the mininum database?

Answer 1

1. Albumin and globulin
2. SBA (serum bile acids)
3. Na/K
4. Liver enzymes
5. Cholesterol
6. Urea and creatinine
7. Ca and Mg
8. Cats with chronic GIT disease - think FeLV and FIV tests are useful

Question 2

What does panhypoproteinaemia indicate?

Answer 2

Protein loosing enteropathy.

Question 3

When would hypoalmbuminaemia be seen exclusively?

Answer 3

hypoalbuminaemia would be seen exclusively in cases of hepatic insuffciency

Question 4

How would SIBO (small intestinal bacteria overgrowth) be seen on a SBA (serum bile acids)?

Answer 4

SIBO leads to increased unconjugated serum bile acids. (bacteria deconjugate bile acids)

Question 5

What conditions could electroylte abnormalities be a feauture of?

Answer 5

electrolyte abnormalities can be a feature of persistant vomiting, intestinal obstruction, secretory diarrhoea

Question 6

What may be seen in liver enzymes with primary GI disease and reactive/secondary hepatopathy?

Answer 6

A mild to moderate increase in both leakage and biliary/cholestatic marker (induced enzymes)

Question 7

When may increased cholesterol be seen and how can it be used in cases of differential diagnosis?

Answer 7

Increase cholesterol may be associated with protein loosing nephropathy - important differential diganosis for hypoalbuminaemia (need to be differentiated from PLE).

Decreases may be seen with diseases that cause fat malabsorption

Question 8

What gatro-intestinal conditions may high levels of urea and creatinine be associated with?

Answer 8

Numerous GI disease cause vomiting, diarrhoea and inappetance - therefore associated with dehydration and pre-renal azotaemia

Increased urea is associated with gastric/upper intestinal haemorrhage

Question 9

When may decreases in calcium and magnesium be seen?

Answer 9

decreases in calcium and magnesium are typically associated with protein loosing enteropathy

Question 10

What tests may be of benefit for cats with chronic GIT disease

Answer 10

• Serum thyroxine T4
• Feline Leukaemia virus (FeLV)
• Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

Question 11

What tests are conducted in a faecal analysis?

Answer 11

1. West microscopy
2. Gram stain
3. Occult blood
4. Concentration for cycsts and ova (faecal egg count)

Question 12

When may a Faecal C + S be used?

Answer 12

If specific pathogen is suspected - isolating enteropathogens allows ID of active infection + antibiotic susceptibility

Question 13

When might adjunct isolate testing be used?

Answer 13

Helpful when we need to determine the isolates importance. Therfore we are testing for prevalence of virulence genes and toxins - very helpful in determining the clinical importance of an isolate. e.g. clostridium has many pathogenic strains

Question 14

What is faecal PCR and when may it be used?

Answer 14

PCR detects DNA or RNA rather than the living cell. Considered to have a higher sensitivity.

Question 15

What test can be used to test for canine faecal parvovrial antigen and when we it be advisable to conduct a parvoviral test?

Answer 15

ELISA - using fresh faeces

Used in:

• young, unvaccinated, exposed animals
• Clinical signs +/- anorexia, haemotmesis, melaena/haematochezia, pyrexia, luekopenia/neutropenia

Question 16

What are some cirumstances under which false positives and negatives can be attained from canine faecal parvoviral antigen?

Answer 16

False negatives: the virus is only shed very briefly in faeces - only seldom detected 10-12 days post-infection (5-7 days of clinical illness) - in very early infections retest in 36-48 hours

False positives: modified live vaccination results in transient faecal shedding - weak positive - 5-15 days post-vacc

Question 17

Briefly explain the difference between faecal concentration for cysts and ova and faecal egg count:

Answer 17

Faecal concentration for cysts and ova - qualitative not quantitative

Faecal egg count - quantitative