Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

advancement instructions > HM MAN ch 21: Emergency medical care procedures > Flashcards

HM MAN ch 21: Emergency medical care procedures Flashcards

1
Q

what encompasses all international law regulating the conduct of nations and individual engaged in armed conflict?

A

law of armed conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the five priorities for non-tactical triage?

A 
Priority I- Immediate
Priority II- Delayed
Priority III- Minor
Priority IV- Expectant
Priority V- Dead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what priority of non-tactical triage involves casualties whose injuries are critical but who will require only minimal time or equipment to manage and who have a god prognosis for survival?

A

Priority I- Immediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an example of injuries that would fall into Priority I, immediate, for non-tactical triage?

A

compromised airway or massive external hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what priority of non-tactical triage involves casualties whose injuries are debilitating but who do not require immediate management to salvage life or limb.

A

Priority II- delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would be an example of injuries for priority II of non-tactical triage?

A

long bone fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What priority of non-tactical triage involves casualties, often called walking wounded?

A

Priority III- minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what priority of non-tactical triage involves casualties whose injuries are so severe that they have only minimal chance of survival?

A

Priority IV-expectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the four tactical triage categories?

A

immediate
Delayed
Minimal
Expectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two types of suction catheters?

A 
tonsil tip (yankauer)
Flexible (French or whistle tip)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Never suction for how long in an adults mouth?

A

15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Never suction for how long in a child’s mouth?

A

10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Never Suction for how long in an infant’s mouth?

A

5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you measure the appropriate size for a flexible catheter suction?

A

from the patient’s earlobe to the corner of the mouth or center of the mouth to the angle of the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when can a combitube be used?

A

for an unconscious casualty that has no cervical spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what size ET Tube is preferred for use during the field insertion of a cricothyrodiotomy?

A

6.0 to 7.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long of an incision is used and where for a cricothyroidotomy?

A

1-1/2 inch vertical incision through the skin over the cricothyroid membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what size needle is used for chest decompression?

A

3.25 in

14 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the land marks for chest decompresion

A

second intercoastal space

mid clavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

___ is a state of inadequate tissue perfusion resulting in decreased amount of oxygen to vital tissues and organs?

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the three major types of shock?

A

hypovolemic
distributive (vasogenic)
cariogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the three major types of shock is describes as a loss of intravascular volume, which may occur from blood, plasma, or fluid loss.

A

hypovolemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the three major types of shock is describes as hemorrhagic shock?

A

hypovolemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is Hypovolemic shock also known as?

A

hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the three major types of shock is describes as occurring when the vascular container dilates without a proportional increase in fluid volume?

A

distributive or vasogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

As a result of what type of shock, the heart’s preload decreases and thus cardiac output falls leaving the tissues hypoxic and starve for energy

A

distributive or vasogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the three types of distributive shock?

A

neurogenic shock
septic shock
psychogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which type of shock is caused by the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels.

A

Neurogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which type of shock is caused by the presence of severe infection which leads to vasodilation?

A

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which type of shock is typically mediated through the para-sympathetic nervous system?

A

Psychogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which type of shock involves stimulation of the vagus nerve producing bradycardia which can lead to fainting?

A

psychogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the three major types of shock is describes as being caused by the heart failing to pump blood adequately to all vital parts of the body?

A

cardiogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which stage of shock is also known as non-progressive?

A

compensated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which stage of shock is also known as progressive?

A

decompensated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

at what stage of shock is the blood pressure maintained, however there is a narrowing of the pulse pressure?

A

compensated (non-progressive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At what stage of shock is the blood pressure falling because the blood volume has dropped 15-25%?

A

decompensated (progressive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

decompensated (Progressive) stage of shock is caused by the blood volume dropping by what amount?

A

15-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which stage of shock involves the arterial blood pressure to be abnormally low?

A

irreversible shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how much blood does the average adult have?

A

5-6 litters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Normally a loss of how much total blood volume will create a life threatening condition?

A

25-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

massive hemorrhage may be fatal with in how much time?

A

60-120 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

the brain can go how long with out oxygen before permanent damage or death?

A

four to six minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how many classes of hemorrhagic shock are there?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which stage of hemorrhagic shock has few clinical manifestations?

A

Class I shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which stage of hemorrhagic shock is able to maintain blood pressure and tissue perfusion though various mechanisms of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

class II shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which stage of hemorrhagic shock has unfavorable signs begin to appear?

A

class III shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which stage of hemorrhagic shock is severe and truly have only minutest to live?

A

class IV shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what causes septic shock?

A

a systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how is septic shock dangerous?

A

toxins cause the blood vessels in the periphery to dilate which pulls the blood away from critical areas like the brain and heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how long does it typically take for septic shock to develop?

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

the casualty with neurogenic shock, in the absence of traumatic brain injury, is alert, orientated, and lucid when in what position?

A

supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the treatment for psychogenic shock?

A

place the casualty in a horizontal position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

cardiogenic shock can be caused by what two factors?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is a CVA?

A

cerebrovascular accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the name for a stoke or apoplexy?

A

CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Emergency treatment for a cerebrovascular accident is mainly what?

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how should a CVA patient be placed?

A

a semi reclining position
or
on the paralyzed side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

convulsive episodes occur in what percent of the general population?

A

1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

___ is a condition characterized by an abnormal focus of activity in the brain that produces severe motor responses or changes in consciousness.

A

epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

___ is the more serious type of epilepsy.

A

grand mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Grand mal seizures may be but is not always preceded by what?

A

an aura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

___ seizures are short in duration and are characterized by an altered state of awareness or partial LOC, and muscular contrations.

A

Petit mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

which type of seizure has a warning?

A

grand mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

which type of seizure has no memory of the attack after it is over?

A

petit mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is OPQRST?

A 
Onset
Provocation
Quality
Radiation
Severity
Time
Interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are three conditions that are commonly referred to as heart attacks?

A

angina pectoris,
acute myocardial infarction
Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what causes angina pectoris?

A

insufficient oxygen being circulated to the heart muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how is angina differentiated from other forms of heart problems?

A

angina’s pain is a result of exertion and subsides with rest

69
Q

what is the cause of an acute MI?

A

when a coronary artery is severely occluded by arteriosclerosis or completely blocked by a clot.

70
Q

The pain associated with ___ is similar to that of angina pectoris but is longer in duration, not related to exertion or relieved by nitro, and leads to death of heart muscle tissue.

A

Acute MI

71
Q

which heart condition is accompanied with an overwhelming feeling od doom?

A

Acute MI

72
Q

which heart condition is caused by prolonged hypertension, valve disease, or heart disease?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

73
Q

in CHF the heart will try to compensate for decreased function by doing what?

A

increasing the size of the left ventricular pumping chamber and increasing the heart rate.

74
Q

in CHF patients, ___ leads to rapid shallow respirations, the appearance of pink frothy bubbles at the nose and mouth and distinctive rattling sounds in the chest?

A

Pulmonary edema caused by hypertension

75
Q

how much IV fluids do PTs with CHF need?

A

as little as possible.

slowest rate possible

76
Q

which solution of epinephrine is used as treatment for an anaphylactic reaction?

A

1:1000

77
Q

after administering epi to an anaphylactic patient, vital signs must be assessed how frequent?

A

every 3-5 minutes until the casualty is stable.

78
Q

what is the usual adult dose of activated charcoal?

A

25-50 grams

79
Q

Adults and children: __ grams of activated charcoal/kg of body weight

A

1

80
Q

what is the usual pediatric dose of activated charcoal?

A

12.5-25 grams

81
Q

Activated charcoal is contraindicated for patients that have an altered mental status that are suspected of swallowing what? or have an inability to swallow

A

acids or alkalis

82
Q

what is the most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

forgetting to take insulin or from taking too little insulin to maintain a balanced condition

83
Q

The lack of glucose in the cells leads to an increase in metabolic acids in the blood. What is this called?

A

acidosis

84
Q

what is the most common of all diabetic emergencies?

A

hypoglycemia

85
Q

what is a concussion cause by?

A

a violent jar or shock to the head

86
Q

what is a contusion?

head injury

A

an internal bruise or injury

87
Q

If the time between contraction is less than ___, then delivery is approaching.

A

less than 3 minuets

88
Q

in a breech delivery, if the head does not emerge within 3 minutes what must you do?

A

try to maintain an airway by gently pushing fingers into the vagina. then push the vaginal away from the baby’s face and open their mouth with one finger.

89
Q

what must be done if the umbilical cord precedes the baby?

A

protect it with moist, sterile wraps

90
Q

in the case on a prolapsed cord during child birth, if the physician cannot be reached quickly what must be done for the mother?

A

put her in an extreme shock position and give her oxygen

91
Q

in combat, if a PT has a penetrating eye trauma ensure that they take what medication?

A

400 mg moxifloxacin tablet

found in the combat pill pack

92
Q

what two medications should be carried by the combatant and self administered as soon as possible after the wound is sustained?

A

Mobic 15mg PO

Tylenol 650mg

93
Q

what is the most effective of all pain relieving drugs?

A

morphine

94
Q

how is morphine most commonly available?

A

in pre measured doses in syrettes or tubexes

95
Q

what is the adult does of morphine?

A

10-20 mg repeated if necessary in no less than 4 hours

96
Q

what type of wound are torn, rater than cut?

A

laceration

97
Q

what type of wound is the tearing away of tissue from a body part?

A

avulsion

98
Q

what is hematemesis?

A

vomiting right red blood

99
Q

what is it called when a patient vomits bright red blood?

A

hematemesis

100
Q

what is hemoptysis?

A

coughing up bright red blood

101
Q

what is it called when a patient coughs up bright red blood?

A

hemoptysis

102
Q

what is melena?

A

excretion of tarry black stools

103
Q

what is it called if a PT excretes tarry black stools?

A

melena

104
Q

what is hematochezia?

A

excretion of bright red blood from the rectum

105
Q

what is it called when a patient excretes bright red blood from the rectum

A

hematochezia

106
Q

what is epistaxis?

A

nose bleed

107
Q

what is a nose bleed?

A

eepistaxis

108
Q

what is ecchymosis?

A

pooling of the blood near the skin surface

109
Q

what is pooling of the blood near the skin surface called?

A

ecchymosis

110
Q

what is the advice to HMs regarding the suturing of wounds?

A

DO NOT ATTEMPT IT

111
Q

what is the medical word for brining together?

A

coaptation

112
Q

what are the four types of non-absorbable sutures?

A 
silk
cotton
linen
synthetic materials
rust-proof metal
113
Q

which type of suture frequently reacts with tissue and can be “spit” from the wound?

A

silk

114
Q

Which type of suture loses tensile strength with each autoclaving?

A

cotton

115
Q

which type of suture is better than silk or cotton but more expensive?

A

linen

116
Q

what is an example of synthetic material sutures?

A

nylon

dermalon

117
Q

rust proof metal sutures are made of what?

A

stainless steel wire

118
Q

what is an example of an absorbable suture?

A

catgut

119
Q

though it is referred to as “catgut”, surgical gut is derived from what?

A

submucosal connective tissue of the first one-third of the small intestine of health government-inspected sheep

120
Q

what are the available sizes of catgut?

A

6.0-0
1 to 4
4 being the largest

121
Q

what are the four types of gut?

A

A: plain
B: Mild
C: medium
D: extra

122
Q

what is the absorption time for type A gut?

A

10 days

123
Q

what is the absorption time for type B gut?

A

20 days

124
Q

what is the absorption time for type C gut?

A

30 days

125
Q

what is the absorption time for type D gut?

A

40 days

126
Q

what are the four characteristics of suture needles?

A

size
taper point
cutting edge point
atraumatic

127
Q

what is the most common local anesthetic used?

A

xylocain

128
Q

what are the various strengths of xylocain?

A

0.5%
1%
2%

129
Q

Xylocain with Epi is contraindicated for patients with what four diagnosis?

A

hypertension
diabetes
CHF

130
Q

what are the thre methods of anesthesia administrations?

A

topical
local infiltration
nerve block

131
Q

what size needle is used to infiltrate into the lateral and medial aspects of the base of the digit for anesthesia?

A

25 or 26 gauge

132
Q

what is the maximum recommended amount of Xylocain t be used?

A

50 ml for 1% solution or the equivalent

133
Q

what is the general rule for time to apply sutures?

A

6-14 hours old may be closed if they are not grossly contaminated and are meticulously cleaned
14-24 hours old should not be closed

134
Q

what suture size should be used to suture in G- tube or chest tubes?

A

2-0

135
Q

what suture size should be used on the foot or deeply in the chest, abd, or back?

A

3-0

136
Q

what suture size should be used on the scalp, chest, abd, foot, extemiteies?

A

4-0

137
Q

what suture size should be used on the scalp, brown, oral, chest, abd, hands, penis

A

5-0

138
Q

what suture size should be used on the ear, lids, brow, nose, lip, face, penis?

A

6-0

139
Q

what suture size should be used on eyelids, lips, or face?

A

7-0

140
Q

as a general rule how many days should you wait to remove facial sutures?

A

4 or 5

141
Q

as a general rule how many days should you wait to remove body and scalp sutures?

A

7 days

142
Q

as a general rule how many days should you wait to remove sutures on the soles, palms, back, or over joints?

A

10 days

143
Q

as a general rule how many days should you wait to remove wire sutures?

A

10-14 days

144
Q

When a bone is forcibly displaced from it joint, the injury is called what?

A

dislocation

145
Q

___ are injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint.

A

sprain

146
Q

___ are injuries caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of muscles

A

strain

147
Q

___ is characterized by ischemia and muscle damage.

A

crush syndrome

148
Q

with ____ there is an efflux of potassium, nephrotoxic metabolites, myopglobin, purine,, and phosphorous into the circulation, resulting in cardiac and renal dysfunction.

A

rhabdomyolysis

149
Q

what is rabies sometimes called?

A

hydrophobia

150
Q

is rabies in man fatal?

A

normally yes

151
Q

When a person has been bitten by an animal what should be done to that animal?

A

every effort must be made to catch the animal and keep it confined for a minimum of 8-10 days
DO NOT kill it

152
Q

First degree burns affect what layer of skin?

A

epidermal layer

153
Q

second degree burns affect what layer of skin?

A

epidermal and dermis

154
Q

which type of burn is referred to as full thickness?

A

third degree

155
Q

what are two names for white phosphorus?

A

WP

Willy Peter

156
Q

what is the treatment for White phosphorus?

A

continually flush the area and pull out the WP with tweezers

157
Q

Under no circumstances should copper sulfate be applied to what?

A

a wet dressing

158
Q

What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments?

A

heat exhaustion

159
Q

what is the mortality rate for heat stroke?

A

20%

160
Q

what is the temperature of a heat stock victim?

A

105

161
Q

death results as the core temperature approaches what?

A

80 degrees F

162
Q

___ is a mild cold injury caused by prolonged and repeated exposure for several hours to air temperatures from above freezing to as high as 60 degree

A

chilblain

163
Q

____ occurs in the hands and feel as a result from prolonged exposure to wet cold at temperatures ranging from just above freezing to 50 degrees F.

A

immersion foot

164
Q

Never do what to a frostbite area?

A

rub it

165
Q

___ is defined as damage to tissues caused by a change in ambient pressure.

A

barotrauma

166
Q

what is the most common type of barotrauma and how can it be experienced?

A

middle ear squeeze

simply jumping in a swimming pool and swimming to the bottom

167
Q

what is barotrauma of the lungs?

A

pulmonary over inflation syndrome (POIS)

168
Q

___ is the tearing of the lung with air leaking out and remaining inside the chest cavity.

A

mediastinal emphysema

169
Q

___ is tearing of the lung with air leaking out of the lung then migrating up and out the chest cavity and stopping at the base of the neck.

A

subcutaneous emphysema

advancement instructions (55 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions