HM MAN ch 18: pharmacy Flashcards
what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural medications and their constituents?
pharmcognosy
what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications?
pharmacy
what is the study of the dosages of medicines and medications?
posology
what is the study of the action or effects of medications on living organisms?
pharmacodynamics
what is the study of the uses of medications in the treatment of disease?
pharmacotherapeutics
what is the study of poisons, their actions, their detection, and the treatment of the conditions produced by them?
toxicology
what is the science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, treat or cure diseases and infections, or prolong life?
therapeutics
what text sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency and provides standards for medications of therapeutic usefulness and pharmaceutical necessity?
USP-NF
United States Pharmacopeia and National formulary
What text is a comprehensive medication information reference that is organized by therapeutic medication class?
Drug Facts and comparisons
Which publication is used as a reference for in-depth information on pharmaceutical products by healthcare providers and pharmacy personnel?
Drug facts and comparisons
What is an easy to use reference for clinicians and healthcare providers seeking quick and concise medication information?
Drug information handbook
what is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies?
Remington: the science and practice of pharmacy
the Remington is a textbook of _____, ____, and ____.
pharmacology
toxicology
therapeutics
what text is also known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology?
the Remington
the amount of medication to be administered is referred to as the what?
dose
the doses given in the USP-NF are average therapeutic doses and are known as what?
“usual adult doses”
____ is a term applying to the range between the minimum and maximum amounts of a given medication required to produce the desired effect.
dosage range
___ is the least amount of medication required to produce a therapeutic effect.
minimum dose
___ is the largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect.
maximum dose
___ is the least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning.
toxic dose
___ is referred to as the normal adult dose, the usual dose, or average dose.
therapeutic dose
___ is the amount of medication needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect.
therapeutic dose
the therapeutic dose is calculated on an average adult ____ (male/female) of ___ years in age who weighs approximately ___ pounds.
male
24
150
__ is the least amount of medication that can produce death.
minimum lethal dose
what is the most common factor that influences the amount of medication to be given?
age
what is young’s rule?
(age in years/age in years +12) X adult dose= child’s dose
In the calculation of dosages, what has a more direct bearing on the dose than any other factor?
weight
what is Clark’s rule?
(weight in pounds/150) X adult dose= child’s dose
what are 9 factors that influence dosages of medications?
age weight sex race occupation habitual use time of administration frequency of administration mode of administration
what is the most common route of administration of medication?
oral
What are two medication administration methods that are closely associated with oral administration?
sublingual and buccal
define parenteral medications.
medications that are introduced by injection
medications that are introduced by injection are called what
Parenteral
Parenteral solutions are examined at least three times at the activity at which they are ultimately used. They are:
upon receiving the solution
periodically while in storage
immediately preceding use
what are the five methods of parenteral administration?
subcutaneous intradermal intramuscular intravenous intrathecal or intraspinal
______ is the medication injected just below the skin’s cutaneous layers
subcutaneous
_______ is the medication injected within the dermis layer of the skin.
intradermal
_______ is the medication injected into the muscle.
intramuscular
_______ is the medication introduced directly into the vein.
intravenous
what is the route of parenteral administration that provides the most rapid onset of action?
Intravenous
_____ is the medication introduced into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column.
intrathecal or intraspinal
intrathecal or intraspinal is the medication introduced into the _____ space of the spinal column.
subarachnoid
____ is the means of introducing medication through the respiratory system in the form of a gas, vapor, or powder.
inhalation
What are the three major types of inhalation routes?
vaporization
gas inhalation
nebulization
what is the process by which a medication is changed from a liquid or solid to a gas or vapor by the use of heat?
vaporization
which type of inhalation type is almost entirely restricted to anesthesia?
gas inhalation
What is the process by which a medication is converted into a fine spray by the use of compressed gas?
nebulization
what medication route is applied to a surface area of the body?
topical
Topically applied medications serve what two purposes?
local effect
systemic effect
What medication route is preferred to the oral route when there is danger of vomiting or when the PT is unconscious, uncooperative, or mentally incapable?
rectal
what are the six PT rights?
right Patient right mediation right dose right route right time right documentation
medications are classified according to set criteria and fall into three specific areas. these areas are:
general
chemical
therapeutic
Which of the three medication classification group medications according to their source? (animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin)
general
Medication normally have three names. those three names are:
chemical name
generic name
brand name
what type of medication name is often derived from the chemical name?
generic name
what type of medication name is a proprietary name given by the manufacturer?
brand name
what class of medication cause a shrinkage of the skin and mucous membranes, and is mainly used to stop seepage, weeping, or discharge from mucous membranes?
astringents
What astringent medication is used as a wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin, such as athlete’s foot, poison ivy, swelling, eternal otitis, bruises and insect bites?
aluminum acetate solution
burrow’s solution, domeboro
What astringent medication is used to treat various skin afflictions in the same way as aluminm acetate. it should be applied to blistered, raw, r oozing areas of the skin?
calamine, zinc oxide, glycerin, and bentonite magma in calcium hydroxide.
(calamine lotion)
What class of medication is aluminum acetate solution?
astringent
what class of medication is calamine lotion?
astringent
What class of medications are bland or fatty substances that may b applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft?
emollients
what is an excellent emollient with a pleasant odor?
theobroma oil
cocoa butter
what is ideal for the treatment of chapped skin and lips, cracked nipples, or minor irritated or abraded skin areas?
theobroma oil
cocoa butter
What is a good emollient that provides a highly occlusive, protective barrier? when used as an ointment base, it may not release some drugs.
petrolatum
petroleum jelly
What is a white petrolatum containing approximately 20% zinc oxide powder? it is used as an emollient with slightly astringent properties.
zinc oxide
what class of medications are commonly used in the symptomatic treatment of the common cold or bronchitis?
expectorants and antitussives
what type of medication are more accurately known as bronchomucotropic agents? these agents assist in the removal of secretions or exudates from the trachea, bronchi, or lungs.
expectorants
what class of medication are agents that inhibit or suppress the act of coughing.
antitussives
what drug combination may be useful in symptomatic relief of dry, nonproductive cough, and in the presence of mucous in the respiratory tract?
Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan
Robitussin DM
____ is a synthetic non-narcotic derivative of codeine that acts as an antitussive. it is used to control non productive coughs by soothing minor throat and bronchial irritations.
Dextromethorphan
What drug combination are combined to relieve the symptoms of the common cold?
Guaifenesin and codeine phosphate
Robitussin AC
What class of medication is often combined with antihistamines, antitussives, and expectorants to relieve symptoms of colds, allergies, and sinusitis?
nasal decongestants
what medication is indicated for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion due to the common cold, hay fever, or other upper respiratory allergies?
pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed)
What medication combination are combined for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion and cough due to the common cold, hay fever, or other respiratory allergies
pseudoephedrine and Guaifenesin
Mucinex D
what is the most common side effect of antihistamines?
may cause drowsiness
what medication combination includes a nasal decongestant and an antihistamine combination?
Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride and triprolidine hydrochloride
Actifed
What medication is given for active and prophylactic treatment of motion sickness, as a nighttime sleep aid, and for the symptomatic relief of urticarial, allergic rhinitis, and other allergic conditions?
diphenhydramine HCL
Benadryl
What mediation is used for the symptomatic treatment of urticarial and other allergic conditions?
chlorpheniramine maleate
chlor-Trimeton
What medication is given to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting , and dizziness of motion sickness? It has a longer duration of action than diphenhydramine HCL
meclizine HCL
Antivert, Bonine
What medication is similar to other antihistamines, the greater usefulness is the prevention and treatment of motion sickness? it may also be used to treat nausea and vomiting associated with radiation poisoning.
dimenhydrinate
Dramamine
What class of medication block histamines that cause an ncrease f gastric acid secretion in the stomach?
Histamine H2 receptor antagonist
what medication is used for the short term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers
cimetidine
Tagamet
What medication is like cimetidine and is used for short term treatment and maintenance in active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers to promote healing of duodenal ulcers?
it is used to treat GERD
ranitidine
zantac
What class of medication are used to counteract hyperacidity in the stomach?
antacids
what medication is used for the symptomatic relief of upset stomach associated with hyperacidity, treatment and maintenance of duodenal ulcers, and used to reduce phosphate absorption in PTs with chronic renal failure?
magnesium HCL
milk of magnesia USP
Prolonged use of what medication may result in kidney stones?
magnesium HCL
milk of magnesia USP
Magnesium HCL may cause ___, and have what type of an effect?
kidney stones
laxative effect
What medication is used to manage peptic ulcers, gastritis, and gastric hyperacidity?
aluminum hydroxide gel
Amphojel
what is the major advantage of aluminum hydroxide gel however it may cause what?
advantage is that there is no systemic alkalosis produced
disadvantage is that it may cause constipation
what medication combination coats the stomach lining and neutralizes gastric acid?
it is less constipating than aluminum hydroxide alone.
alumina and magnesia oral suspension
Maalox
What class of medications suppress the growth of microorganisms?
antiseptics
What class of medication kills susceptible organisms?
germicides
What class of medication are used on inanimate objects and are primarily germicidal in their action?
disinfectants
historically, one of the first antiseptic agents was what?
phenl
carbolic acid
What is the standard by which all other antiseptic, disinfectant, and germicidal agents are measured in effectiveness?
phenol
carbolic acid
Phenol is inactivated by what?
alcohol
What medication is used externally to destroy bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and yeasts?
povidone-iodine
What medication is used in a 70% solution as a skin antiseptic and has volatile as well as a drying effect on the skin?
isopropyl alcohol
what bacteriostatic cleansing agent is effective against gram positive organisms?
hexachlorophene
What medication is a neurotoxin agent and must not be used on premature infants, denuded skin, burns, or mucous membranes?
hexahlorophene
What medication in an eye drop form is used to prevent gonorrheal ophthalmia in newborns?
silver nitrate
what is the most common side effect of silver nitrate?
the skin turns black where the nitrate comes in contact with it.
what was the first effective chemotherapeutic agents to be available in safe therapeutic dosage ranges?
sulfonamides
_____ are synthetically produced and are effective against what types of organisms
both grams stain positive and negative.
What medication is indicated to treat urinary tract infections and acute otitis media?
sulfisoxazole
gantrisin
What medication combination is used to treat UTIs and acute otitis media?
trimethoprim and sufamethoxazole
What medication is an ophthalmic bacteriostatic for the treatment of conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, and other superficial ocular infections?
sulfacetamide sodium
what is a topical antimicrobial agent used to treat second and third degree burns to prevent wounds sepsis?
silver sulfadiazide
What is one of the most important antibiotics?
PCN
what is PCN derived from?
a number of penicillium molds commonly found on breads and fruits
What medication is indicated for susceptible infections such as meningococcal meningitis, anthrax, and gonorrhea?
PCN G aqueous
can only be used IV
what medication is indicated for conditions such as syphilis and upper respiratory tract infections caused by streptococcal group a bacteria?
PCN G benzathine
Which PCN G has a longer duration of action than most of the other PCNs?
PCN G Procaine
What medication is used to treat conditions such as URIs, otitis media, sinusitis, bacterial endocarditis, and mild staphylococcal infection of skin and soft tissue?
PCN V potassium
What medication is used to treat infections caused by PCN G resistant staphylococci?
dicloxacillin sodium
dynapen
what medication is use to treat shigella, salmonella, E-coli, and gonorrhea?
ampicillin
Some patients allergic to PCN may also be allergic to what type of medication?
CEPHALOSPORINS
The cephalosporins are generally divided into how many generations?
three
what medication is used preoperatively to reduce the chance of certain infections following surgical procedures?
cefazolin sodium
What medication is indicated for the treatment of infection of the respiratory tract, otitis media, skin and sin structures, and genitourinary system?
cephalexin
Keflex
What is considered to be the first truly broad-spectrum antibiotics?
tetracyclines
What year were tetracyclines introduced?
1948
what is the mode of action for tetracyclines?
the blocking of the formation of polpypeptides used in protein synthesis
True of False:
Allergic reactions to tetracyclines is rare.
true
Administration of tetracyclines to children and pregnant women is not indicated because________.
it may produce discoloration of the teeth and depress bone marrow growth.
what is the major hazard of tetracycline therapy?
overgrowth of resistant organisms, especially candida and staphylococci.
Tetracyclines should not be administered with what? (4)
milk
milk products
antacids
iron preparations
What is used to treat infections caused by rickettsiae (such as rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus fever?
tetracycline hydrochloride
achromycin, sumycin
What medication can be used for malaria prophylaxis?
doxycycline
What is one of the drugs of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?
erythromycin
what class of medication is erythromycin?
macrolides
what class of medication is doxycycline?
tetracycline
what is used to treat susceptible anaerobic organism?
Clindamycin
clindamycin has often been associated with what severe side effects?
severe colitis and profuse diarrhea
what class of medication is clindamycin?
macrolides
what medication is indicated in potentially life threatening infections not treatable with other effective, less toxic antimicrobials, including PCN?
vancomycin
what class of medication is vancomycin?
macrolides
What class of medication is azithromycin?
macrolides
_____ are antibiotics that constituting a large group of bacteriostatic agents that inhibit protein synthesis/
macrolides
what medication is used for community acquired pneumonia, otits media, infections of the skin structure, sexually transmitted diseases, and bacterial sinusitis?
azithromycin
____ are agents that inhibit or suppress the growth systems of fungi, dermatophytes, or candida.
antifungals
what is used to treat pediculosis capitis (head lice), and phthirus pubis (crab lice)?
permethrin
what class of medication is permetherin?
antiparasitic
What medication is effective in treating amebiasis?
metronidazole
flagyl
PTs should be warned about combining flagyl and alcohol, as it can produce what kind of side effects?
violent side effects
what is effective in treating infestations of hookworm, roundworm, pinworm, and whipworm?
pyrantel pamoate (antiminth)
What are the two antimalarial medicaitons?
chloroquine
primaquine
what is the drug of choice in treating acute malarial attackes?
chloroquine
what is the drug of choice for the prevention or relapse of malaria caused by P. vivax and P. Ovale?
primaquine
primaquine is contraindicated in personnel with what?
G-6-PD
what is an emollient laxative used to lubricate the fecal mass?
mineral oil
what is used for the treatment of chronic constipation?
lactulose
what is relatively nontoxic irritant cathartic that reflexively stimulates the colon on contact?
bisacodyl
dulcolax
bisacodyl (dulcolax) usually produces softly formed stools in how many hours and is normally taken when?
6-12 hours
bedtime
What is a saline irritant laxative that also inhibits the absorption of water from the intestines?
magnesium citrate
what is the preferred laxative by radiology departments for use prior to special x-rays?
magnesium citrate
what laxative works by absorbing water?
psyllium
what is a stool softener that promotes water retention in the fecal mass?
ducosate calcium
surfak
What type of medication increase the rate of urine formation?
diuretics
What medication is used for edema associated with CHF, and other edematous conditions?
hydrochlrothiazide
esidrix, oretic
what is a potent diuretic used to treat edema associated with CHF, cirrhosis of the liver and renal disease?
furosemide
Lasix
What are medications that relieve pain without producing unconsciousness or impairing mental capacities?
non-narcotic analgesics
What type of medication relieves or reduces fevers?
antipyretics
what is the most economical analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory agent available?
aspirin
What medication is an analgesic and antipyretic used to relieve pain and fever accompanying disease?
acetaminophen
What medication is indicated for patients who are allergic to asprin?
acetaminophen
what medication is indicated for relief of mild to moderate pain including cases of gastrointestinal bleeding, or renal impairment, or during the third trimester of pregnancy?
ibuprofen
what is an analgesic indicated for the relief of mild to moderate pain?
naproxen
what is an anti-inflammatory agent and is contraindicated in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
meloxicam
Mobic
What are two examples of CNS stimulants?
methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) Dextroamphetamine sulfate (dexadrine)
what medication is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and children with ADD?
In children it acts as a CNS depressant and is also indicated for narcolepsy in adults.
methylphenidate hydrochloride
Ritalin
What medication is primarily indiated for narcolepsy, but occasionally used as an adjunct to diet therapy for obesity caused by overeating?
dextroamphetamine sulfate(dexadrine)
What are three examples of CNS depressants?
phenobarbital (luminal)
pentobarbital (Nembutal)
Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin)
what is a long lasting barbiturate frequently used to treat convulsive disorders and is the drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy?
phenobarbital
Luminal
What medication is indicated for short term treatment of insomnia?
pentobarbital
Nembutal
What mediation is a nonbarbiturate anticonvulsant that is the drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal epilepsy?
phenytoin sodium
Dilantin
What is an opium alkaloid indicated for the relief of severe pain?
morphine sulfate
morphine is contraindicated for PT with what three things?
head injuries
acute alcoholism
convulsive disorders
what has only 1/6th the analgesic power and 1/4th of the respiratory depressant effect of morphine?
codeine sulfate
Codeine is used for moderate to severe pain and as a ____.
antitussive
what is a synhetic analgesic similar to morphine?
meperidine hydrochloride
Demerol
What medication is indicated for alleviating manifestations of psychosis, tension, and agitation and may be used as an antiemetic?
chlorpromazine hydrochloride
throazine
what medication is used for antipsychotic purposes and is considered to be a good all around tranquilizer?
thioridazine
mellaril
what mediation is indicated for treating schizophrenia with manifestations of acute manic symptoms?
haldol
What medication is used to treat manic episodes of manic-depressive illness?
it is the drug of choice to prevent or diminish the intensity of manic episodes
lithium
What medication is used in the abatement of acute withdrawal symptoms of alcoholism?
chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride
Librium
what medication is useful in treating mild to moderate depression with anxiety and tension?
diazepam
valium
What medication is indicated as an adjunct to rest and physical therapy for relief of muscle spasm and acute painful musculoskeletal conditions?
cyclobenzaprine
flexeril
What medication is a topical vasoconstrictor used to relieve nasal congestion?
oxymetazonline hydrochlorid
Afrin
What medication is used in prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?
heparin sodium
what medication is used extensively to treat embolism in the prevention of occlusions?
(blood)
warfarin sodium
Coumadin
Which vitamin deficiency leads to rickets in children and asteomalaia in adults?
vitamin D
Which vitamin is necessary for the prevention and cre of scurvy?
Vitamin C
Which vitamin is most often used during INH therapy?
vitamin B6
Which vitamin deficiency leads to an increase in blood clotting time?
Vitamin K
What medications is commonly called laughing gas and is used with oxygen in general anesthesia?
nitrous oxide
high concentrations of nitrous oxide may cause what? (2)
cyanosis and asphyxia
what medication is used for inhalation anesthesia in most operative procedures with PTs of all ages?
halothane
What medication is a fast acting general anesthetic agent used as preinductation n agent or for procedures that do not require skeletal muscle relaxation?
Ketamine
what anesthetic agent is administered only by injection?
procaine hydrochloride
Novocain
What medication is the standard to which all other anesthetic are compared?
lidocaine hydrochloride (xylocaine)
What medication is a local ophthalmic anesthetic used topically?
proparacaine
How do oytoic medications work?
produce a rhythmic contrition of the uterus.
What are the three basic measurements used for weight, volume, and linear units?
weight: gram
Volume: liter
Linear unit: meter
what does the prefix deka mean?
multiples by ten
what does the prefix hector mean?
multiples by 100
what does the prefix kilo mean?
multiples by 1,000
5ml is = to 1___
teaspoon
15ml is = to 1__
tablespoon
____ are aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.
elixirs
_____ are coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.
suspensions
____ are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.
ointments
____ are gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally
capsules
What are elixirs?
aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.
What are suspensions?
coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.
What are ointments?
are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.
What are capsules?
gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally
What are the two types of pharmaceutical balances commonly used in the Navy?
torsion balances
electronic balances
what type of pharmaceutical balance is also called a class A prescription balance?
torsion balance
A torision balance are used for weighing loads from __mg to __ G.
120mg to 120g
All dispensing pharmacies are required to have how many class A balances on havd at all times?
at least one
Most pharmacies now use what type of balances?
electronic
What are a mortar and pestle used for?
to reduce substances to fine powders
What is a spatula?
knifelike utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade, available in various sizes.
What are the three classes of medication incompatibilities?
therapeutic
physical
chemical
what are the two standardized forms used for prescriptions?
DD form 1289
NAVMED 6710/6
Which prescription form is used extensively for outpatient prescriptions?
DD 1289
How many medications does a DD 1289 contain?
only one
How many medications can be on a NAVMED 6710/6?
up to four
all for the same PT
What are the four parts of the prescription block?
inscription
superscription
subscription
signa
what is the superscription?
Rx
what is the inscription?
the part of the prescription that list the name and quantity of the medication to be used
What is the subscription?
directions to the compounder
what is the signa?
the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient
What is the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient ?
the signa
Currently, prescriptions are required to be kept on file for at least how long after the date of issue?
2 years
schedule II medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
7 days
How may refills can be ordered for schedule II medications?
none
schedule III medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
How may refills can be ordered for schedule III medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
schedule IV medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
How may refills can be ordered for schedule IV medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
schedule V medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
How may refills can be ordered for schedule V medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
How many control substance levels are there
five
