HM MAN ch 18: pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural medications and their constituents?

A

pharmcognosy

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2
Q

what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications?

A

pharmacy

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3
Q

what is the study of the dosages of medicines and medications?

A

posology

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4
Q

what is the study of the action or effects of medications on living organisms?

A

pharmacodynamics

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5
Q

what is the study of the uses of medications in the treatment of disease?

A

pharmacotherapeutics

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6
Q

what is the study of poisons, their actions, their detection, and the treatment of the conditions produced by them?

A

toxicology

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7
Q

what is the science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, treat or cure diseases and infections, or prolong life?

A

therapeutics

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8
Q

what text sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency and provides standards for medications of therapeutic usefulness and pharmaceutical necessity?

A

USP-NF

United States Pharmacopeia and National formulary

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9
Q

What text is a comprehensive medication information reference that is organized by therapeutic medication class?

A

Drug Facts and comparisons

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10
Q

Which publication is used as a reference for in-depth information on pharmaceutical products by healthcare providers and pharmacy personnel?

A

Drug facts and comparisons

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11
Q

What is an easy to use reference for clinicians and healthcare providers seeking quick and concise medication information?

A

Drug information handbook

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12
Q

what is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies?

A

Remington: the science and practice of pharmacy

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13
Q

the Remington is a textbook of _____, ____, and ____.

A

pharmacology
toxicology
therapeutics

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14
Q

what text is also known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology?

A

the Remington

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15
Q

the amount of medication to be administered is referred to as the what?

A

dose

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16
Q

the doses given in the USP-NF are average therapeutic doses and are known as what?

A

“usual adult doses”

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17
Q

____ is a term applying to the range between the minimum and maximum amounts of a given medication required to produce the desired effect.

A

dosage range

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18
Q

___ is the least amount of medication required to produce a therapeutic effect.

A

minimum dose

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19
Q

___ is the largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect.

A

maximum dose

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20
Q

___ is the least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning.

A

toxic dose

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21
Q

___ is referred to as the normal adult dose, the usual dose, or average dose.

A

therapeutic dose

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22
Q

___ is the amount of medication needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect.

A

therapeutic dose

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23
Q

the therapeutic dose is calculated on an average adult ____ (male/female) of ___ years in age who weighs approximately ___ pounds.

A

male
24
150

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24
Q

__ is the least amount of medication that can produce death.

A

minimum lethal dose

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25
Q

what is the most common factor that influences the amount of medication to be given?

A

age

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26
Q

what is young’s rule?

A

(age in years/age in years +12) X adult dose= child’s dose

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27
Q

In the calculation of dosages, what has a more direct bearing on the dose than any other factor?

A

weight

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28
Q

what is Clark’s rule?

A

(weight in pounds/150) X adult dose= child’s dose

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29
Q

what are 9 factors that influence dosages of medications?

A
age
weight
sex
race
occupation
habitual use
time of administration
frequency of administration
mode of administration
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30
Q

what is the most common route of administration of medication?

A

oral

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31
Q

What are two medication administration methods that are closely associated with oral administration?

A

sublingual and buccal

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32
Q

define parenteral medications.

A

medications that are introduced by injection

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33
Q

medications that are introduced by injection are called what

A

Parenteral

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34
Q

Parenteral solutions are examined at least three times at the activity at which they are ultimately used. They are:

A

upon receiving the solution
periodically while in storage
immediately preceding use

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35
Q

what are the five methods of parenteral administration?

A
subcutaneous
intradermal
intramuscular
intravenous
intrathecal or intraspinal
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36
Q

______ is the medication injected just below the skin’s cutaneous layers

A

subcutaneous

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37
Q

_______ is the medication injected within the dermis layer of the skin.

A

intradermal

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38
Q

_______ is the medication injected into the muscle.

A

intramuscular

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39
Q

_______ is the medication introduced directly into the vein.

A

intravenous

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40
Q

what is the route of parenteral administration that provides the most rapid onset of action?

A

Intravenous

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41
Q

_____ is the medication introduced into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column.

A

intrathecal or intraspinal

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42
Q

intrathecal or intraspinal is the medication introduced into the _____ space of the spinal column.

A

subarachnoid

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43
Q

____ is the means of introducing medication through the respiratory system in the form of a gas, vapor, or powder.

A

inhalation

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44
Q

What are the three major types of inhalation routes?

A

vaporization
gas inhalation
nebulization

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45
Q

what is the process by which a medication is changed from a liquid or solid to a gas or vapor by the use of heat?

A

vaporization

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46
Q

which type of inhalation type is almost entirely restricted to anesthesia?

A

gas inhalation

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47
Q

What is the process by which a medication is converted into a fine spray by the use of compressed gas?

A

nebulization

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48
Q

what medication route is applied to a surface area of the body?

A

topical

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49
Q

Topically applied medications serve what two purposes?

A

local effect

systemic effect

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50
Q

What medication route is preferred to the oral route when there is danger of vomiting or when the PT is unconscious, uncooperative, or mentally incapable?

A

rectal

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51
Q

what are the six PT rights?

A
right Patient
right mediation
right dose
right route
right time
right documentation
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52
Q

medications are classified according to set criteria and fall into three specific areas. these areas are:

A

general
chemical
therapeutic

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53
Q

Which of the three medication classification group medications according to their source? (animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin)

A

general

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54
Q

Medication normally have three names. those three names are:

A

chemical name
generic name
brand name

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55
Q

what type of medication name is often derived from the chemical name?

A

generic name

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56
Q

what type of medication name is a proprietary name given by the manufacturer?

A

brand name

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57
Q

what class of medication cause a shrinkage of the skin and mucous membranes, and is mainly used to stop seepage, weeping, or discharge from mucous membranes?

A

astringents

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58
Q

What astringent medication is used as a wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin, such as athlete’s foot, poison ivy, swelling, eternal otitis, bruises and insect bites?

A

aluminum acetate solution

burrow’s solution, domeboro

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59
Q

What astringent medication is used to treat various skin afflictions in the same way as aluminm acetate. it should be applied to blistered, raw, r oozing areas of the skin?

A

calamine, zinc oxide, glycerin, and bentonite magma in calcium hydroxide.
(calamine lotion)

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60
Q

What class of medication is aluminum acetate solution?

A

astringent

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61
Q

what class of medication is calamine lotion?

A

astringent

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62
Q

What class of medications are bland or fatty substances that may b applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft?

A

emollients

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63
Q

what is an excellent emollient with a pleasant odor?

A

theobroma oil

cocoa butter

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64
Q

what is ideal for the treatment of chapped skin and lips, cracked nipples, or minor irritated or abraded skin areas?

A

theobroma oil

cocoa butter

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65
Q

What is a good emollient that provides a highly occlusive, protective barrier? when used as an ointment base, it may not release some drugs.

A

petrolatum

petroleum jelly

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66
Q

What is a white petrolatum containing approximately 20% zinc oxide powder? it is used as an emollient with slightly astringent properties.

A

zinc oxide

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67
Q

what class of medications are commonly used in the symptomatic treatment of the common cold or bronchitis?

A

expectorants and antitussives

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68
Q

what type of medication are more accurately known as bronchomucotropic agents? these agents assist in the removal of secretions or exudates from the trachea, bronchi, or lungs.

A

expectorants

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69
Q

what class of medication are agents that inhibit or suppress the act of coughing.

A

antitussives

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70
Q

what drug combination may be useful in symptomatic relief of dry, nonproductive cough, and in the presence of mucous in the respiratory tract?

A

Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan

Robitussin DM

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71
Q

____ is a synthetic non-narcotic derivative of codeine that acts as an antitussive. it is used to control non productive coughs by soothing minor throat and bronchial irritations.

A

Dextromethorphan

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72
Q

What drug combination are combined to relieve the symptoms of the common cold?

A

Guaifenesin and codeine phosphate

Robitussin AC

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73
Q

What class of medication is often combined with antihistamines, antitussives, and expectorants to relieve symptoms of colds, allergies, and sinusitis?

A

nasal decongestants

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74
Q

what medication is indicated for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion due to the common cold, hay fever, or other upper respiratory allergies?

A
pseudoephedrine hydrochloride
(Sudafed)
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75
Q

What medication combination are combined for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion and cough due to the common cold, hay fever, or other respiratory allergies

A

pseudoephedrine and Guaifenesin

Mucinex D

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76
Q

what is the most common side effect of antihistamines?

A

may cause drowsiness

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77
Q

what medication combination includes a nasal decongestant and an antihistamine combination?

A

Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride and triprolidine hydrochloride

Actifed

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78
Q

What medication is given for active and prophylactic treatment of motion sickness, as a nighttime sleep aid, and for the symptomatic relief of urticarial, allergic rhinitis, and other allergic conditions?

A

diphenhydramine HCL

Benadryl

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79
Q

What mediation is used for the symptomatic treatment of urticarial and other allergic conditions?

A

chlorpheniramine maleate

chlor-Trimeton

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80
Q

What medication is given to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting , and dizziness of motion sickness? It has a longer duration of action than diphenhydramine HCL

A

meclizine HCL

Antivert, Bonine

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81
Q

What medication is similar to other antihistamines, the greater usefulness is the prevention and treatment of motion sickness? it may also be used to treat nausea and vomiting associated with radiation poisoning.

A

dimenhydrinate

Dramamine

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82
Q

What class of medication block histamines that cause an ncrease f gastric acid secretion in the stomach?

A

Histamine H2 receptor antagonist

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83
Q

what medication is used for the short term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers

A

cimetidine

Tagamet

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84
Q

What medication is like cimetidine and is used for short term treatment and maintenance in active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers to promote healing of duodenal ulcers?
it is used to treat GERD

A

ranitidine

zantac

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85
Q

What class of medication are used to counteract hyperacidity in the stomach?

A

antacids

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86
Q

what medication is used for the symptomatic relief of upset stomach associated with hyperacidity, treatment and maintenance of duodenal ulcers, and used to reduce phosphate absorption in PTs with chronic renal failure?

A

magnesium HCL

milk of magnesia USP

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87
Q

Prolonged use of what medication may result in kidney stones?

A

magnesium HCL

milk of magnesia USP

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88
Q

Magnesium HCL may cause ___, and have what type of an effect?

A

kidney stones

laxative effect

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89
Q

What medication is used to manage peptic ulcers, gastritis, and gastric hyperacidity?

A

aluminum hydroxide gel

Amphojel

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90
Q

what is the major advantage of aluminum hydroxide gel however it may cause what?

A

advantage is that there is no systemic alkalosis produced

disadvantage is that it may cause constipation

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91
Q

what medication combination coats the stomach lining and neutralizes gastric acid?
it is less constipating than aluminum hydroxide alone.

A

alumina and magnesia oral suspension

Maalox

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92
Q

What class of medications suppress the growth of microorganisms?

A

antiseptics

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93
Q

What class of medication kills susceptible organisms?

A

germicides

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94
Q

What class of medication are used on inanimate objects and are primarily germicidal in their action?

A

disinfectants

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95
Q

historically, one of the first antiseptic agents was what?

A

phenl

carbolic acid

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96
Q

What is the standard by which all other antiseptic, disinfectant, and germicidal agents are measured in effectiveness?

A

phenol

carbolic acid

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97
Q

Phenol is inactivated by what?

A

alcohol

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98
Q

What medication is used externally to destroy bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and yeasts?

A

povidone-iodine

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99
Q

What medication is used in a 70% solution as a skin antiseptic and has volatile as well as a drying effect on the skin?

A

isopropyl alcohol

100
Q

what bacteriostatic cleansing agent is effective against gram positive organisms?

A

hexachlorophene

101
Q

What medication is a neurotoxin agent and must not be used on premature infants, denuded skin, burns, or mucous membranes?

A

hexahlorophene

102
Q

What medication in an eye drop form is used to prevent gonorrheal ophthalmia in newborns?

A

silver nitrate

103
Q

what is the most common side effect of silver nitrate?

A

the skin turns black where the nitrate comes in contact with it.

104
Q

what was the first effective chemotherapeutic agents to be available in safe therapeutic dosage ranges?

A

sulfonamides

105
Q

_____ are synthetically produced and are effective against what types of organisms

A

both grams stain positive and negative.

106
Q

What medication is indicated to treat urinary tract infections and acute otitis media?

A

sulfisoxazole

gantrisin

107
Q

What medication combination is used to treat UTIs and acute otitis media?

A

trimethoprim and sufamethoxazole

108
Q

What medication is an ophthalmic bacteriostatic for the treatment of conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, and other superficial ocular infections?

A

sulfacetamide sodium

109
Q

what is a topical antimicrobial agent used to treat second and third degree burns to prevent wounds sepsis?

A

silver sulfadiazide

110
Q

What is one of the most important antibiotics?

A

PCN

111
Q

what is PCN derived from?

A

a number of penicillium molds commonly found on breads and fruits

112
Q

What medication is indicated for susceptible infections such as meningococcal meningitis, anthrax, and gonorrhea?

A

PCN G aqueous

can only be used IV

113
Q

what medication is indicated for conditions such as syphilis and upper respiratory tract infections caused by streptococcal group a bacteria?

A

PCN G benzathine

114
Q

Which PCN G has a longer duration of action than most of the other PCNs?

A

PCN G Procaine

115
Q

What medication is used to treat conditions such as URIs, otitis media, sinusitis, bacterial endocarditis, and mild staphylococcal infection of skin and soft tissue?

A

PCN V potassium

116
Q

What medication is used to treat infections caused by PCN G resistant staphylococci?

A

dicloxacillin sodium

dynapen

117
Q

what medication is use to treat shigella, salmonella, E-coli, and gonorrhea?

A

ampicillin

118
Q

Some patients allergic to PCN may also be allergic to what type of medication?

A

CEPHALOSPORINS

119
Q

The cephalosporins are generally divided into how many generations?

A

three

120
Q

what medication is used preoperatively to reduce the chance of certain infections following surgical procedures?

A

cefazolin sodium

121
Q

What medication is indicated for the treatment of infection of the respiratory tract, otitis media, skin and sin structures, and genitourinary system?

A

cephalexin

Keflex

122
Q

What is considered to be the first truly broad-spectrum antibiotics?

A

tetracyclines

123
Q

What year were tetracyclines introduced?

A

1948

124
Q

what is the mode of action for tetracyclines?

A

the blocking of the formation of polpypeptides used in protein synthesis

125
Q

True of False:

Allergic reactions to tetracyclines is rare.

A

true

126
Q

Administration of tetracyclines to children and pregnant women is not indicated because________.

A

it may produce discoloration of the teeth and depress bone marrow growth.

127
Q

what is the major hazard of tetracycline therapy?

A

overgrowth of resistant organisms, especially candida and staphylococci.

128
Q

Tetracyclines should not be administered with what? (4)

A

milk
milk products
antacids
iron preparations

129
Q

What is used to treat infections caused by rickettsiae (such as rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus fever?

A

tetracycline hydrochloride

achromycin, sumycin

130
Q

What medication can be used for malaria prophylaxis?

A

doxycycline

131
Q

What is one of the drugs of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?

A

erythromycin

132
Q

what class of medication is erythromycin?

A

macrolides

133
Q

what class of medication is doxycycline?

A

tetracycline

134
Q

what is used to treat susceptible anaerobic organism?

A

Clindamycin

135
Q

clindamycin has often been associated with what severe side effects?

A

severe colitis and profuse diarrhea

136
Q

what class of medication is clindamycin?

A

macrolides

137
Q

what medication is indicated in potentially life threatening infections not treatable with other effective, less toxic antimicrobials, including PCN?

A

vancomycin

138
Q

what class of medication is vancomycin?

A

macrolides

139
Q

What class of medication is azithromycin?

A

macrolides

140
Q

_____ are antibiotics that constituting a large group of bacteriostatic agents that inhibit protein synthesis/

A

macrolides

141
Q

what medication is used for community acquired pneumonia, otits media, infections of the skin structure, sexually transmitted diseases, and bacterial sinusitis?

A

azithromycin

142
Q

____ are agents that inhibit or suppress the growth systems of fungi, dermatophytes, or candida.

A

antifungals

143
Q

what is used to treat pediculosis capitis (head lice), and phthirus pubis (crab lice)?

A

permethrin

144
Q

what class of medication is permetherin?

A

antiparasitic

145
Q

What medication is effective in treating amebiasis?

A

metronidazole

flagyl

146
Q

PTs should be warned about combining flagyl and alcohol, as it can produce what kind of side effects?

A

violent side effects

147
Q

what is effective in treating infestations of hookworm, roundworm, pinworm, and whipworm?

A
pyrantel pamoate
(antiminth)
148
Q

What are the two antimalarial medicaitons?

A

chloroquine

primaquine

149
Q

what is the drug of choice in treating acute malarial attackes?

A

chloroquine

150
Q

what is the drug of choice for the prevention or relapse of malaria caused by P. vivax and P. Ovale?

A

primaquine

151
Q

primaquine is contraindicated in personnel with what?

A

G-6-PD

152
Q

what is an emollient laxative used to lubricate the fecal mass?

A

mineral oil

153
Q

what is used for the treatment of chronic constipation?

A

lactulose

154
Q

what is relatively nontoxic irritant cathartic that reflexively stimulates the colon on contact?

A

bisacodyl

dulcolax

155
Q

bisacodyl (dulcolax) usually produces softly formed stools in how many hours and is normally taken when?

A

6-12 hours

bedtime

156
Q

What is a saline irritant laxative that also inhibits the absorption of water from the intestines?

A

magnesium citrate

157
Q

what is the preferred laxative by radiology departments for use prior to special x-rays?

A

magnesium citrate

158
Q

what laxative works by absorbing water?

A

psyllium

159
Q

what is a stool softener that promotes water retention in the fecal mass?

A

ducosate calcium

surfak

160
Q

What type of medication increase the rate of urine formation?

A

diuretics

161
Q

What medication is used for edema associated with CHF, and other edematous conditions?

A

hydrochlrothiazide

esidrix, oretic

162
Q

what is a potent diuretic used to treat edema associated with CHF, cirrhosis of the liver and renal disease?

A

furosemide

Lasix

163
Q

What are medications that relieve pain without producing unconsciousness or impairing mental capacities?

A

non-narcotic analgesics

164
Q

What type of medication relieves or reduces fevers?

A

antipyretics

165
Q

what is the most economical analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory agent available?

A

aspirin

166
Q

What medication is an analgesic and antipyretic used to relieve pain and fever accompanying disease?

A

acetaminophen

167
Q

What medication is indicated for patients who are allergic to asprin?

A

acetaminophen

168
Q

what medication is indicated for relief of mild to moderate pain including cases of gastrointestinal bleeding, or renal impairment, or during the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

ibuprofen

169
Q

what is an analgesic indicated for the relief of mild to moderate pain?

A

naproxen

170
Q

what is an anti-inflammatory agent and is contraindicated in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

meloxicam

Mobic

171
Q

What are two examples of CNS stimulants?

A
methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine sulfate (dexadrine)
172
Q

what medication is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and children with ADD?
In children it acts as a CNS depressant and is also indicated for narcolepsy in adults.

A

methylphenidate hydrochloride

Ritalin

173
Q

What medication is primarily indiated for narcolepsy, but occasionally used as an adjunct to diet therapy for obesity caused by overeating?

A

dextroamphetamine sulfate(dexadrine)

174
Q

What are three examples of CNS depressants?

A

phenobarbital (luminal)
pentobarbital (Nembutal)
Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin)

175
Q

what is a long lasting barbiturate frequently used to treat convulsive disorders and is the drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy?

A

phenobarbital

Luminal

176
Q

What medication is indicated for short term treatment of insomnia?

A

pentobarbital

Nembutal

177
Q

What mediation is a nonbarbiturate anticonvulsant that is the drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal epilepsy?

A

phenytoin sodium

Dilantin

178
Q

What is an opium alkaloid indicated for the relief of severe pain?

A

morphine sulfate

179
Q

morphine is contraindicated for PT with what three things?

A

head injuries
acute alcoholism
convulsive disorders

180
Q

what has only 1/6th the analgesic power and 1/4th of the respiratory depressant effect of morphine?

A

codeine sulfate

181
Q

Codeine is used for moderate to severe pain and as a ____.

A

antitussive

182
Q

what is a synhetic analgesic similar to morphine?

A

meperidine hydrochloride

Demerol

183
Q

What medication is indicated for alleviating manifestations of psychosis, tension, and agitation and may be used as an antiemetic?

A

chlorpromazine hydrochloride

throazine

184
Q

what medication is used for antipsychotic purposes and is considered to be a good all around tranquilizer?

A

thioridazine

mellaril

185
Q

what mediation is indicated for treating schizophrenia with manifestations of acute manic symptoms?

A

haldol

186
Q

What medication is used to treat manic episodes of manic-depressive illness?
it is the drug of choice to prevent or diminish the intensity of manic episodes

A

lithium

187
Q

What medication is used in the abatement of acute withdrawal symptoms of alcoholism?

A

chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

Librium

188
Q

what medication is useful in treating mild to moderate depression with anxiety and tension?

A

diazepam

valium

189
Q

What medication is indicated as an adjunct to rest and physical therapy for relief of muscle spasm and acute painful musculoskeletal conditions?

A

cyclobenzaprine

flexeril

190
Q

What medication is a topical vasoconstrictor used to relieve nasal congestion?

A

oxymetazonline hydrochlorid

Afrin

191
Q

What medication is used in prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?

A

heparin sodium

192
Q

what medication is used extensively to treat embolism in the prevention of occlusions?
(blood)

A

warfarin sodium

Coumadin

193
Q

Which vitamin deficiency leads to rickets in children and asteomalaia in adults?

A

vitamin D

194
Q

Which vitamin is necessary for the prevention and cre of scurvy?

A

Vitamin C

195
Q

Which vitamin is most often used during INH therapy?

A

vitamin B6

196
Q

Which vitamin deficiency leads to an increase in blood clotting time?

A

Vitamin K

197
Q

What medications is commonly called laughing gas and is used with oxygen in general anesthesia?

A

nitrous oxide

198
Q

high concentrations of nitrous oxide may cause what? (2)

A

cyanosis and asphyxia

199
Q

what medication is used for inhalation anesthesia in most operative procedures with PTs of all ages?

A

halothane

200
Q

What medication is a fast acting general anesthetic agent used as preinductation n agent or for procedures that do not require skeletal muscle relaxation?

A

Ketamine

201
Q

what anesthetic agent is administered only by injection?

A

procaine hydrochloride

Novocain

202
Q

What medication is the standard to which all other anesthetic are compared?

A
lidocaine hydrochloride
(xylocaine)
203
Q

What medication is a local ophthalmic anesthetic used topically?

A

proparacaine

204
Q

How do oytoic medications work?

A

produce a rhythmic contrition of the uterus.

205
Q

What are the three basic measurements used for weight, volume, and linear units?

A

weight: gram
Volume: liter
Linear unit: meter

206
Q

what does the prefix deka mean?

A

multiples by ten

207
Q

what does the prefix hector mean?

A

multiples by 100

208
Q

what does the prefix kilo mean?

A

multiples by 1,000

209
Q

5ml is = to 1___

A

teaspoon

210
Q

15ml is = to 1__

A

tablespoon

211
Q

____ are aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.

A

elixirs

212
Q

_____ are coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.

A

suspensions

213
Q

____ are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.

A

ointments

214
Q

____ are gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally

A

capsules

215
Q

What are elixirs?

A

aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.

216
Q

What are suspensions?

A

coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.

217
Q

What are ointments?

A

are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.

218
Q

What are capsules?

A

gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally

219
Q

What are the two types of pharmaceutical balances commonly used in the Navy?

A

torsion balances

electronic balances

220
Q

what type of pharmaceutical balance is also called a class A prescription balance?

A

torsion balance

221
Q

A torision balance are used for weighing loads from __mg to __ G.

A

120mg to 120g

222
Q

All dispensing pharmacies are required to have how many class A balances on havd at all times?

A

at least one

223
Q

Most pharmacies now use what type of balances?

A

electronic

224
Q

What are a mortar and pestle used for?

A

to reduce substances to fine powders

225
Q

What is a spatula?

A

knifelike utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade, available in various sizes.

226
Q

What are the three classes of medication incompatibilities?

A

therapeutic
physical
chemical

227
Q

what are the two standardized forms used for prescriptions?

A

DD form 1289

NAVMED 6710/6

228
Q

Which prescription form is used extensively for outpatient prescriptions?

A

DD 1289

229
Q

How many medications does a DD 1289 contain?

A

only one

230
Q

How many medications can be on a NAVMED 6710/6?

A

up to four

all for the same PT

231
Q

What are the four parts of the prescription block?

A

inscription
superscription
subscription
signa

232
Q

what is the superscription?

A

Rx

233
Q

what is the inscription?

A

the part of the prescription that list the name and quantity of the medication to be used

234
Q

What is the subscription?

A

directions to the compounder

235
Q

what is the signa?

A

the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient

236
Q

What is the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient ?

A

the signa

237
Q

Currently, prescriptions are required to be kept on file for at least how long after the date of issue?

A

2 years

238
Q

schedule II medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?

A

7 days

239
Q

How may refills can be ordered for schedule II medications?

A

none

240
Q

schedule III medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?

A

30 days

241
Q

How may refills can be ordered for schedule III medications?

A

may be refilled up to five times within 6 months

242
Q

schedule IV medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?

A

30 days

243
Q

How may refills can be ordered for schedule IV medications?

A

may be refilled up to five times within 6 months

244
Q

schedule V medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?

A

30 days

245
Q

How may refills can be ordered for schedule V medications?

A

may be refilled up to five times within 6 months

246
Q

How many control substance levels are there

A

five