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advancement instructions > HM MAN ch 19: clinical Laboratory > Flashcards

HM MAN ch 19: clinical Laboratory Flashcards

1
Q

what is the SF 545?

A

laboratory report display

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2
Q

when performing a capillary finger puncture make a quick stab no greater than how deep on the side of the finger?

A

2mm

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3
Q

when performing venipuncture apply the tourniquiet areound the arm approx how many inches above the intended site?

A

3 to 4 inches

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4
Q

when performing a venipuncture the HM must cleanse the desired site with what?

A

70% alcohol pad or

povidone-iodine

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5
Q

when performing a venipuncture what degree angle should the needle be introduced?

A

15-30 degrees

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6
Q

how long can a tourniquet be applied when performing a venipuncture?

A

no more than one minutes

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7
Q

___ is the stucture tah supports the magnification and focusing system of the microscope.

A

arm

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8
Q

___ is the handle by which the microscope is carried

A

arm

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9
Q

___ is the platform on which a specimen is placed for examination

A

stage

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10
Q

___ is composed of a compact lens system and is located below the stage.it concentrates and focuses light from the light source on the specimen

A

condenser

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11
Q

___ is located on the condenser to control the amount of light and angle of light rays.

A

iris diaphragm

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12
Q

how much magnification is provided by the low-power objective?

A

10x

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13
Q

how much magnification is provided by the high-power objective?

A

40x

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14
Q

how much magnification is provided by the oil immerision ovjective?

A

100x

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15
Q

the oil immersion objective is used for detailed study of what?

A

stained blood and bacterial smears

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16
Q

A complete blood count consists of what five tests?

A
  1. total RBC count
  2. Hemoglobin determination (Hgb)
  3. Hematocrit calculation (Hct)
  4. Total WBC count
  5. WBC differential count
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17
Q

A RBC count that drops below normal values may indicate what?

A

anemia

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18
Q

What are the normal values for hemoglobin in woman?

A

12 to 16

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19
Q

what are the normal values for hemoglobin in men?

A

14 to 18

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20
Q

packed RBC volume is also know as what?

A

hematocrit

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21
Q

what is hematrocrit?

A

the ratio of the volume of RBCs to the volume of whole blood

normally expressed as a percentage

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22
Q

what is the percentage of hematocrit in women?

A

37-47%

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23
Q

what is the percentage of hematocrit in men?

A

42-52%

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24
Q

what is the name for WBCs?

A

leukocycte

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25
Q

what should never be used to clean lenses on a microscope?

A

alcohol or similiar solvents

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26
Q

Normal WBC values in adults range from ___ to ___ cells per cubic millimeter.

A

4,800- 10,800

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27
Q

how are normal WBC values normally reported?

A

4.8-10.8 X 10 (upper case 6)/ml (per cubic millimeter)

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28
Q

When WBCs rise above normal values the condition is referred to as what?

A

leukocytosis

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29
Q

_____frequently occurs when systemic or local infections are present.

A

leukocytosis

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30
Q

When does leukocytosis frequently occur?

A

systemic or local infections are present

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31
Q

what are seven examples of other physiological conditions that can cause leukocytosis, other than systemic or local infections?

A 
shortly after the mother gives birth
pregnancy
appendicitis
ulcers
emotional stress
anxiety
strenuous exercise
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32
Q

an abnormally low WBC count is known as what?

A

leukopenia

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33
Q

what is leukopenia?

A

low WBC count

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34
Q

Severe or advanced bacterial infections such as typhoid, partyphoid and sometimes tularemia can cause which WBC condition?

A

leukopenia

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35
Q

Measles, rubella, smallpox, hepatits, dengue fever and influenza can cause what WBC conditions

A

leukopenia

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36
Q

anaphylactic shock can cause what WBC conditions?

A

leukopenia

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37
Q

radiation can cause what WBC condition?

A

leudopienia

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38
Q

what are the five types of WBCs?

A 
neutophils
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyctes
monocyctes
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39
Q

Which WBC accounts for the largest percentage of leukocytes found in a normal blood sample?

A

neutorphils

40
Q

Which WBC has the function to destroy parasites and respond in immediate allergic reactions?

A

Eosinophils

41
Q

What is the most common cause of increased eosinophils worldwide?

A

parasites, in particular helminthic

42
Q

a rise in this WBC is associated with inflammatory disorders and certain leukemias.

A

Basophil

43
Q

The function of this WBC is associated with immune response and the body’s defense against viral infections

A

lyphocyte

44
Q

what are the larges of the normal WBCs?

A

monocycte

45
Q

what are the four growth requirements for bacteria?

A

temperature
oxygen
nutrition
moisture

46
Q

what temperature do psychrophilic bacteria enjoy?

A

cold

4 degrees C

47
Q

what are the three categories of bacteria temperature requirements?

A

Psychrophilic
mesophilic
thermophilic

48
Q

What temperature do mesophilic bacteria best reproduce at?

A

body temp

35 degrees C

49
Q

what temp do thermophilic bacteria reproduce at?

A

how
42 degrees C or higher
120 degrees F

50
Q

what are the two types of bacteria oxygen requirement categories?

A

aerobes

anaerobes

51
Q

___ are oganisms that reproduce in the presence of oxygen

A

aerobes

sounds like air

52
Q

___ are organisms that do not reproduce in the presence of oxygen

A

anaerobes

53
Q

what are the three distinct shapes or categories of bacteria?

A

Coccus
Bacillus
Spirochetes

54
Q

what shape are coccus bacteria?

A

spherical

55
Q

What shape are bacillus bacteria?

A

rod-shaped

56
Q

what shape are spirochete bacteria?

A

spiral or corkscrew shaped

57
Q

what are the two categories of toxins?

A

endotoxin

exotoxin

58
Q

which type of toxin are highly poisonous and associated iwth septic shock?

A

exotoxin

59
Q

which toxin is less potent but may affect the PT during the course of antibiotic therapy?

A

endotoxin

60
Q

what color are gram stain positive cells?

A

crystal violet

61
Q

what color are gram stain negative cells?

A

pink

62
Q

what shape are gram negative cells?

A

rods

63
Q

what shape are gram postive cells?

A

cocci

64
Q

what shape and gram stain are streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumonia)?

A

cocci

gram stain positive

65
Q

what shape and gram stain are streptococcus pyogenes (strep throat)?

A

cocci

gram stain positive

66
Q

what shape and gram stain are neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)?

A

cocci

gram stain negative

67
Q

what shape and gram stain are neisseria meningitis?

A

cocci

gram stain negative

68
Q

what shape and gram stain are corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Bacilli

gram stain positive

69
Q

what shape and gram stain are botulism, tetanus and gas gangrene?

A

bacilli

gram stain positive

70
Q

what shape and gram stain are yersinia pestis (bubonic plague)?

A

bacilli

gram stain negative

71
Q

what shape and gram stain are bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)?

A

bacilli

gram stain negative

72
Q

what does RPR stand for?

A

rapid plasma reagin

73
Q

what does RPR test for?

A

syhilis

74
Q

what are the two outcomes of available from a RPR test?

A

reactive or non-reactive

75
Q

the ___ test is an accurate, 2 minute disposable test designed to detect the presence of infectious mononucleosis.

A

monospot test

76
Q

how long does the monospot test take?

A

2 minutes

77
Q

what is the simple and frequently used method of detecting fungi?

A

the potassium hydrodxide preparation KOH

78
Q

to detect fungi in infected tissue , place skin, hair, or nail scrapingfrom the affected area on a glass slide and add one drop of _____.

A

10% KOH

79
Q

which UA is the ideal screening specimen and why?

A

first morning urine specimen

usually concentrated and more likely to rebeal abnormalities

80
Q

what are the normal adult urine volume ranges?

A

600-2,000 ml

the average is 1,500ml

81
Q

What is the definition of urine specific gravity?

A

the density of a solution compared to an equal volume of distilled water

82
Q

red or red-brown urine is caused by what?

A

blood

83
Q

what causes yellow or brown urine?

A

bile

84
Q

what causes olive green to brown-black urine?

A

phenols

85
Q

what causes urine to be dark orange in color?

A

pyridium

topical analgesic used in the treatment of urinary tract infections

86
Q

what are the normal specific gravity ranges during a 24 hour period?

A

1.015 to 1.030

87
Q

Microscopic examination of urine sediment is usually performed at what level of magnification?

A

40X

high-powered

88
Q

during a urine sediment exam there are normally ___ leukocytes per high power field.

A

0 to 3

89
Q

more than ___ leukoyctes cells per high power field may indicate disease somewhere in the urinary tract.

A

3

90
Q

How are Casts in urinary sediments formed?

A

coagulation of albuminous material in the kidney tubles

91
Q

if cast are present in large numbers, the urine is almost sure to be positive for what?

A

albumin

92
Q

What are four critical laboratory results?

A
  1. WBC count above 50,000 indicates an acute infection
  2. Heoglobin concentration below 7 indicates sever anemia and may require a transfustion
  3. Glucose and ketones in urine
  4. bacteria present in a gram stain from direct patient smears
93
Q

A minimum file of what percent of certain ship’s company is required to be enrolled in the walking blood bank?

A

10%

94
Q

What does a WBC count above 50,000 indicate?

A

the presence of an acute infection

95
Q

what does hemoglobin concentrations below 7 indicate?

A

severe anemia that may require a transfusion

96
Q

What does glucose and ketones in urine indicate?

A

uncontrolled diabetes

advancement instructions (55 decks)

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