HM MAN ch 14: physical examinations Flashcards

1
Q

which chapter of the MANMED discusses physicals?

A

chapter 15

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2
Q

what are the four types of routine physical examinations?

A
  1. entrance
  2. PHA
  3. Reenlistment
  4. Separation
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3
Q

Entrance physical examination results are documented on what two forms?

A

DD 2807 report of medical examination

DD 2808 report of medical history

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4
Q

how frequent must PHAs be performed?

A

annually

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5
Q

what is the purpose of a reenlistment examination?

A

to ensure no new medial conditions have developed or previously diagnosed conditions have materially changed

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6
Q

is a complete medical examination required if there is a valid examination in the service member’s health record for a reenlistment exam?

A

no

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7
Q

Reenlistment examination results are documented on what two forms?

A

DD 2807 report of medical examination

DD 2808 report of medical history

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8
Q

when is a PHA considered complete?

A

When the member has met all individual medical requirements

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9
Q

Separation examinations are required for personnel separating from the Navy, the Marine Corps, and Activated reservist serving __ consecutive days or greater on active duty.

A

31

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10
Q

A thorough physical examination must be completed not less that ___ days form the last day served on active duty for a separation exam.

A

180

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11
Q

what documents are used for a MEB or PEB member separation from the Navy or Marines?

A

the MEB or PEB documents

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12
Q

for service members found “unfit for continued naval service” what will be generated stating member found untif and processed for separation?

A

SF 600

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13
Q

what are two situations in which a PA or Nurse Practisioner may perform a special duty exam?

A

if a MO or DOD physician is not available

workload is too great

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14
Q

What are the single most important factor in determining fitness for duty in today’s Navy?

A

medical evaluation

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15
Q

Processing time should not exceed __ working days to report TLD.

A

5

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16
Q

what form is used to complete separation exams?

A

DD 2697

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17
Q

what form is used to complete suitability screening for members that have orders for overseas and remote duty locations.

A

NAVMED 1300/1

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18
Q

what is the most important test of eye function?

A

visual acuity

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19
Q

what are the three accepted methods for testing visual acuity?

A
  1. snellen chart
  2. jaeger cards
  3. armed forces vision tester (AFVT)
20
Q

what is the first step in testing for visual acuity ?

A

find out if the PT wears corrective eyewear

21
Q

what blocks are used on the 2808 for visual acuity?

A

blocks 61 and 63

22
Q

when hanging the snellen chart on the wall ensure that the 20/20 line is __ inches from the floor.

A

64 inches

23
Q

direct the examinees to stand how far away from a snellen chart?

A

20 feet

24
Q

record the smallest line read on the snellen chart from the 20 foot distance on which block of the 2808?

A

block 61

25
Q

when the AFVT is not available what test should be used to asses near vision?

A

Jaeger cards

26
Q

how many paragraphs are on each jaeger card?

A

6

27
Q

how is the smallest paragraph labeled on the jaeger cards?

A

J-1

28
Q

how is the largest printed paragraph labeled on the Jaeger cards?

A

J-6

29
Q

when using the Jaeger cards the PT must hold the card at what distance?

A

14-16 inches

30
Q

what block on the 2808 is used to record near vision?

A

block 63

31
Q

how should block 63 of the 2808 be recorded?

A

the smallest type that can be comfortably read and record the distance of the block
J-2 at 14 inches

32
Q

True or false:

the MANMED requires that all applicants for the naval service recieve a color vision test.

A

true

33
Q

what are the two color vision test that the Navy uses?

A
  1. Farnsworth Lantern test (FALANT)

2. Pseudoisochromatic plates (PIP)

34
Q

what is the preferred color vision test?

A

FALANT

35
Q

what is the purpose of the farnsworth lantern test?

A

to evaluate color perception

36
Q

what are the possible colors visible on thee FALANT test?

A

red
green
white

37
Q

during the FALANT test the examinee is asked to identify the color combinations from top to bottom at what distance.

A

8 feet

38
Q

A passing FALANT score is obtained by correctly identifying __ out of __ presentations of the first test series.

A

9 out of 9

39
Q

on the second series of the FALANT test a passing score is obtained by correctly identifying what thee presentations?

A

16, 17, or 18

40
Q

what are the two test available for the PIP?

A

18 plate test and the 15 plate test

41
Q

when administering the PIP exam, hold the plates __ inches from the examinee.

A

30 inches

42
Q

when administering the PIP exam allow __ seconds for the idetification of each plate.

A

2 seconds

43
Q

can the examinee touch the plates during the PIP test?

A

no

44
Q

what is considered passing on the PIP exam?

A

correctly identifying 12,13, or 14 out of 14 plates or 16, 17, or 18 out of 18 plates

45
Q

an audiogram is a record of ___ an individual has for various sound frequencies.

A

hearing thresholds

46
Q

all audiometric tracing or reading are recorded on what blocks of the DD 2808?

A

71a and 71b