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Year 5 - Krish Pathology Guide 2018 > Histopathology (All Topics) > Flashcards

Histopathology (All Topics) Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac Pathology:

What is the definition of atherosclerosis?

A
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2
Q

Cardiac Pathology:

What are the steps in atherogenesis?

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3
Q

Cardiac Pathology:

What are the 3 principal components of atherosclerotic plaques?

A
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4
Q

Cardiac Pathology:

Which blood vessels are more commonly affected?

How are they affected?

A
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5
Q

Cardiac Pathology:

What are the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?

A
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6
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What is the pathogenesis of Myocardial Infarction?

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7
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What are the mechanical complications of Myocardial Infarction?

A
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8
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What are the arrhythmia caused by Myocardial Infarction?

A
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9
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What are the pericardial complications of Myocardial Infarction?

A
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10
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What is the evolution of Myocardial Infarction Histological findings?

A
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11
Q

Heart failure:

What are the common causes of Heart Failure?

A
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12
Q

Heart failure:

What are the complications of Heart Failure?

A
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13
Q

Heart failure:

What is the pathophysiology of Heart Failure?

A
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14
Q

Heart failure:

What does left Ventricular Failure cause?

A
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15
Q

Heart failure:

What does Right Ventricular Failure cause?

A
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16
Q

Heart failure:

What is the definition, common phenotype and histological findings of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

A
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17
Q

Heart failure:

What are the genetic defects in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

A
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18
Q

Heart failure:

What effect can Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in young people?

What is Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy and what are its effects?

A
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19
Q

Cardiomyopathy:

What is/are the mechanism, causes and indirect myocardial dysfunction of Dilated cardiomyopathy?

A
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20
Q

Cardiomyopathy:

What is/are the mechanism, causes and indirect myocardial dysfunction of Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
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21
Q

Cardiomyopathy:

What is/are the mechanism, causes and indirect myocardial dysfunction of Restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A
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22
Q

Myocardial Infarction:

What is a Mural Thrombus?

A
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23
Q

Cardiomyopathy

What is Arrythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?

A
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24
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever:

What is the peak age of Rheumatic Fever?

What are its effects on:

  1. Heart
  2. Joints
  3. Skin
  4. CNS
A
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25
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever:

What are the major clinical features of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

What is the Jones Major Criteria?

A
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26
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever:

What are the minor symptoms of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A
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27
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever:

What are the common causative organisms?

A
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28
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever:

What is the treatment of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A
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29
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What are the causes of Infective Endocarditis?

A
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30
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What are the causative organisms, virulence, vegetation morphology and spread of Acute and Subacute Infective Endocarditis?

A
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31
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What are the clinical features of Infective Endocarditis?

A
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32
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What values are commonly affected in Infective Endocarditis?

A
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33
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What is the Duke criteria?

A
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34
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What what is the treatment of Infective Endocarditis?

A
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35
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What is Chronic Rheumatic valve disease?

A
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36
Q

Infective Endocarditis:

What is Mitral valve prolapse?

A
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37
Q

Vegetative Endocarditis:

What is/are the pathology and characteristics of Vegetations of Rheumatic heart disease?

A
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38
Q

Vegetative Endocarditis:

What is/are the pathology and characteristics of Vegetations of Infective endocarditis?

A
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39
Q

Vegetative Endocarditis:

What is/are the pathology and characteristics of Vegetations of Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (marantic)?

A
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40
Q

Vegetative Endocarditis:

What is/are the pathology and characteristics of Vegetations of Libman-Sacks endocarditis?

A
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41
Q

Valve disease:

What is/are the pathophysiology and causes of Aortic Stenosis?

A
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42
Q

Valve disease:

What is/are the pathophysiology and causes of Aortic Regurgitation?

A
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43
Q

Valve disease:

What is/are the pathophysiology and causes of Mitral Stenosis?

A
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44
Q

Valve disease:

What is/are the pathophysiology and causes of Mitral Regurgitation?

A
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45
Q

Pericarditis:

What is the definition of Pericarditis and what are the subtypes?

A
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46
Q

Pericarditis:

What is the definition of Pericardial effusion and Hemopericardium?

A
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51
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the tissues lining the Oesophagus?

A
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52
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the main Paediatric Congenital Gastrointestinal Diseases?

A
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53
Q

Oesophagus:

What is/are aetiology, symptoms, genetics, investigations and treatment for hirschsprung’s disease?

A
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55
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the Mechanical Acquired Gastrointestinal diseases?

A
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56
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the inflammatory Acquired Gastrointestinal diseases?

A
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57
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the ischaemic Acquired Gastrointestinal diseases?

A
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58
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of reflux oesophagitis (GORD)?

  • Complications
  • Treatment
A
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59
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A
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60
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of Oesophageal Adenocarcinoma?

A
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61
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of Squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma?

  • Aetiology
  • Epidemiology
A
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62
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of Squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma?

  • Presentation.
A
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63
Q

Oesophagus:

What are the characteristics of Varices?

A
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64
Q

Stomach:

What are the cells lining the stomach?

A
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65
Q

Stomach:

What are the characteristics of Gastritis, Acute and Chronic?

A
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66
Q

Stomach:

What are the characteristics for the special types of Gastritis?

A
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67
Q

Stomach:

What are the characteristics of Gastric ulcer?

  • Symptoms
A
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68
Q

Stomach:

What are the characteristics of Gastric ulcer?

  • Risk factors
  • Investigations
  • Complications
A
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69
Q

Stomach:

What are the characteristics of Gastric lymphoma?

A
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70
Q

Duodenum:

What are the characteristics of Duodenal ulcer?

A
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71
Q

Duodenum:

What are the characteristics of Coeliac disease?

  • Aetiology
  • Symptoms
A
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72
Q

Duodenum:

What are the characteristics of Coeliac disease?

  • Investigation
  • Management
A
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73
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the epidemiology for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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74
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the aetiology for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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75
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the pathophysiology for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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76
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the Clinical features of Crohn’s Disease?

A
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77
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the complications of Crohn’s Disease?

A
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78
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the investigations for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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79
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the management for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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80
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the epidemiology for Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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81
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the aetiology for Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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82
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What is the pathophysiology for Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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83
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the clinical features of Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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84
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the extra-GI manifestations of Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A
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85
Q

Acquired Diseases:

What are the complications of Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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86
Q

Acquired Diseases:

How do you investigate Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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87
Q

Acquired Diseases:

How do you manage Ulcerative Colitis?

A
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90
Q

Oesophagus:

What is the classification of Acquired Gastrointestinal Diseases?

A
  1. Mechanical
    1. Obstruction
  2. Inflammatory
    1. Acute colitis
    2. Chronic Colitis
  3. Ischaemia
    1. ​Ischaemic coclitis
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91
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

How are tumours of the colon and rectum classified?

A
  • Neoplastic Polyps
    • Adenomas
  • Non-Neoplastic polyps
    • Hamartomatous polyp
    • Hyperplastic polyp
    • Inflammatory
  • Colorectal cancer
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92
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is/are the definition, aetiology epidemiology and classification of Adenomas Neoplastic Polyps?

A
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93
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are is/are the disease progression and risk factors for malignancy of Adenomas Neoplastic Polyps?

A
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94
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is/are the genetics and epidemiology of Hamartomatous polyps?

A
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95
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What disease are Hamartomatous polyps also seen in and what do they carry an increased risk of?

A
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96
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the clinical feature of Hyperplastic Syndrome?

A
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97
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the clinical features of Inflammatory Syndrome?

A
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98
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is the epidemiology of colorectal cancer?

A
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99
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is the aetiology of colorectal cancer?

A
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100
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the clinical features of colorectal cancer?

A
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101
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the investigations of colorectal cancer?

A
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102
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is the classification of colorectal cancer?

A
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103
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is the management of colorectal cancer?

A
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105
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the features of Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

A
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106
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the features of Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer/Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)?

A
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107
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is/are the aetiology, investigations and management of C.Difficile?

A
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108
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and complications of diverticular disease?

A
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109
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What is the definition of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A
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110
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the differences between Carcinoid syndrome and Carcinoid crisis?

A
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111
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the investigations and management of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A
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123
Q

Tumours of the colon and rectum:

What are the familial syndromes of colorectal cancer?

A
  • Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
  • Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer/L
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124
Q

Pancreatic Disease:

What are the functions, secretions and islets of Langerhans for Exocrine glands?

A
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125
Q

Pancreatic Disease:

What are the functions, secretions and islets of Langerhans for Endocrine glands?

A
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126
Q

Pancreas:

What is the role of the pancreas?

What is secretin? (add and buffering with HCO3-)

A
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127
Q

Pancreas:

What is CCK?

A
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128
Q

Pancreas:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and signs of Metabolic Syndrome?

A
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129
Q

Pancreas:

How is Diabetes Mellitus Diagnosed?

A
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130
Q

Pancreas:

What is T1DM and T2DM?

A
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131
Q

Pancreas:

What are the complications of Diabetes?

A
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132
Q

Pancreas:

What is/are the aetiology, presentation and histology of acute pancreatitis?

A
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133
Q

Pancreas:

What is/are the aetiology, presentation, histology and complications of chronic pancreatitis?

A
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134
Q

Pancreas:

What is/are the aetiology, presentation, histology and prognosis of Acinar Cell Carcinoma?

A
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135
Q

Neuroendocrine Tumours:

What is/are the aetiology and genetics of Neuroendocrine tumours?

A
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136
Q

Neuroendocrine Tumours:

What are the functional and nonfunctional Neuroendocrine tumours?

A
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137
Q

Neuroendocrine Tumours:

What are the investigations and management of Neuroendocrine tumours?

A
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138
Q

Neuroendocrine Tumours:

What is the aetiology of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia?

A
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139
Q

Neuroendocrine Tumours:

What are the main Pancreatic Malformations?

A
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140
Q

Pancreatic Carcinoma:

What are the epidemiology, site and risk factors of ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?

A
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141
Q

Pancreatic Carcinoma:

What are the clinical features of ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?

A
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142
Q

Pancreatic Carcinoma:

How do you investigate adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?

A
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143
Q

Pancreatic Carcinoma:

How do you manage adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?

A
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144
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is the basic structure of the Liver?

A
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145
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are centrilobular and Periportal hepatocytes?

A
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146
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are the main functions of the liver?

A
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147
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/are the definition and main features of Cirrhosis?

A
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148
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are the main causes of Cirrhosis?

A
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149
Q

Liver Pathology:

How can Cirrhosis be classified?

A
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150
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is the pathophysiology of Macronodular Cirrhosis?

A
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151
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are the implications of different Child Pugh scores?

A
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152
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is the definition of Portal Hypertension?

A
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153
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are the causes of Portal Hypertension?

A
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155
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/are the definition and subtypes of Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver disease?

A
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156
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/are the epidemiology, genetics, subtypes and treatment of Autoimmune Hepatitis?

A
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157
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/are the definition, epidemiology, and investigations of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)?

A
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158
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/ are the histology, symptoms and treatment of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)?

A
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159
Q

Liver Pathology:

What is/are the definition and epidemiology of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)?

A
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160
Q

Liver Pathology:

What are the investigations for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)?

A
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162
Q

Liver Tumours:

What are the clinical features of Hepatic adenoma?

A
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163
Q

Liver Tumours:

What are the clinical features of Haemangioma?

A
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164
Q

Liver Tumours:

What are the clinical features of Hepatocellular Carcinoma?

A
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165
Q

Liver Tumours:

What are the clinical features of Cholangiocarcinoma?

A
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166
Q

Liver Tumours:

What are the clinical features of Metastases from other primary tumours?

A
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167
Q

Modified Child Pugh Score:

What is the score of 1, score of 2 and score of 3 for:

  1. Ascites
  2. Encephalopathy
  3. Bilirubin
  4. Albumin
  5. Prothrombin time (sec > normal).
A
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168
Q

Alcoholic Liver Disease:

What are the macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of Hepatic Steatosis (Fatty Liver)?

A
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169
Q

Alcoholic Liver Disease:

What are the macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of Alcoholic hepatitis?

A
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170
Q

Alcoholic Liver Disease:

What are the macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of Alcoholic Cirrhosis?

A
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171
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What is the incidence, age, pathophysiology and histology of Haemochromatosis?

A
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172
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What are the signs/symptoms and investigations of Haemochromatosis?

A
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173
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What is the incidence, age, pathophysiology and histology of Wilson’s Disease?

A
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174
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What are the signs/symptoms and investigations of Wilson’s Disease?

A
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175
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What is the incidence, age, pathophysiology and histology of Alpha 1 Antitrypsin Deficiency?

A
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176
Q

Genetic Causes of Cirrhosis:

What are the signs/symptoms and investigations of Alpha 1 Antitrypsin Deficiency?

A
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177
Q

Liver Pathology:

What happens when portal pressure exceeds 10 to 12 mmHg?

A
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186
Q

Liver Pathology: What are the causes of Cirrhosis?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis Hepatic steatosis Alcoholic Cirrhosis Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease Viral Hepatitis Autoimmune hepatitis Biliary causes of cirrhosis Primary biliary cirrhosis Primary Sclerosing cholangitis

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193
Q

Liver Tumours:

What is the classification of liver tumours?

A
  • Benign
    • Hepatic adenoma
    • Haemangioma
  • Malignant
    • Hepatocellular
    • Carcinoma
    • Angiosarcoma
    • Hepatoblastoma
    • Cholangiosarcoma
    • Metastasis from other primary sources
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194
Q

Urological Pathology:

What is/are the subtypes and aetiology of Cystitis?

A
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195
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the predisposing factors and clinical features of Cystitis?

A
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196
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the complications and treatment of Cystitis?

A
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197
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the main types of Bladder tumours?

A
  1. Transitional cell tumours
  2. Squamous cell carinoma
  3. Adenocarinoma
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198
Q

Urological Pathology:

What is/are the epidemiology and contributing factors of Transitional Cell tumours?

A
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199
Q

Urological Pathology:

What is/are the clinical features and diagnosis of Transitional Cell tumours of the bladder Bladder?

A
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200
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the features of Squamous cell carinoma Bladder tumours?

A
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201
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the features of Adenocarcinoma Bladder tumours?

A
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202
Q

Urological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

A
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203
Q

Urological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, risk factor, grading and diagnosis of Prostate Cancer?

A
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204
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the subtypes of Prostitis and their causes?

A
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206
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the features of Seminoma testicular tumours?

A
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207
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the features of Teratoma testicular tumours?

A
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208
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the features of Maldescent of testis?

A
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209
Q

Testicular Tumours:

What are the % incidence, types and predisposing factors for Germ cell testicular tumours?

A
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210
Q

Testicular Tumours:

What are the % incidence, types and predisposing factors for sex chord - stromal testicular tumours?

A
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221
Q

Urological Pathology:

What are the types of testicular tumours?

A
  1. Seminoma
  2. Teratoma
  3. Maldescent of testis
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222
Q

Renal pathology:

How can diseases of the kidney be classified?

A
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223
Q

Renal pathology:

What is Nephrotic Syndrome and what are the key words in EMQs for it?

A
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224
Q

Renal pathology:

What is Nephritic syndrome and the symptoms it presents with?

A
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226
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the symptoms of Acute Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis?

A
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227
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are investigations and Biopsy findings of Acute Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis?

A
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228
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are epidemiology, aetiology and symptoms of IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease)?

229
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the complications and Biopsy findings of IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease)?

230
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the definition, symptoms and classification of Rapidly progressive (Crescentric) GN?

231
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are genetics and symptoms of Hereditary Nephritis (Alport’s syndrome)?

232
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are aetiology, genetics, epidemiology and symptoms of Thin Basement membrane disease (Benign familial haematuria)?

233
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the differentials for Asymptomatic Haematuria and how are they differentiated?

234
Q

Renal pathology:

What should be done if an Asymptomatic Haematuria doesn’t have histological information?

235
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the aetiology of cause of Acute Tubular Injury (ATI) aka Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)?

236
Q

Renal pathology:

What is /are the causes and histology findings of Acute Tubular Injury (ATI) aka Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)?

238
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and investigations for Acute Pyelonephritis?

239
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the aetiology of Chronic Pyelonephritis and reflux nephropathy?

240
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the aetiology and symptoms Acute intestinal nephritis?

241
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the symptoms of Chronic interstitial nephritis / Analgesic nephropathy?

242
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the main causes of Thrombotic Microangiopathies and their characteristics?

243
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the pathophysiology of Thrombotic Microangiopathy?

244
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the definition of Acute Renal failure?

245
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the subtypes of Acute Renal failure?

246
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the definition of Chronic Renal failure?

247
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the commonest causes of Chronic Renal failure?

248
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the stages of Renal Failure related to GFR?

249
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the genetics and epidemiology of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

250
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the Pathological and clinical features of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

251
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the definition of Lupus Nephritis?

252
Q

Renal pathology:

What is the classification of Lupus Nephritis?

253
Q

Renal pathology:

What is/are the types, risk factors and clinical features of Renal Cell carcinoma?

254
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the epidemiology, light microscopy and electron microscopy of minimal change disease?

255
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis and anything miscellaneous about minimal change disease?

256
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the epidemiology, light microscopy and electron microscopy of Membranous glomerular disease?

257
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis and anything miscellaneous about Membranous glomerular disease?

258
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the epidemiology, light microscopy and electron microscopy of Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?

259
Q

Primary causes of Nephrotic syndrome:

What is the immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis and anything miscellaneous about Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?

260
Q

Renal pathology (Diabetes and Amyloidosis):

What is the histology and hints in a question for Diabetes?

261
Q

Renal pathology (Diabetes and Amyloidosis):

What is the histology of Amyloidosis?

262
Q

Renal pathology (Diabetes and Amyloidosis):

What are the hints in questions for Amyloidosis?

263
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the Pathogenesis and causes of Type 1 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

264
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy and additional organ involvement in Type 1 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

265
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the Pathogenesis and causes of Type 2 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

266
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy and additional organ involvement in Type 2 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

267
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the Pathogenesis and causes of Type 3 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

268
Q

Types of Rapidly progressing GN:

What are the light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy and additional organ involvement in Type 3 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis?

269
Q

Thrombotic Microangiopathies:

What is the epidemiology and pathophysiology of HUS?

270
Q

Thrombotic Microangiopathies:

What are the signs/symptoms of HUS?

271
Q

Thrombotic Microangiopathies:

What is the epidemiology and pathophysiology of TTP?

272
Q

Thrombotic Microangiopathies:

What are the signs/symptoms of TTP?

273
Q

Thrombotic Microangiopathies:

What is/are the investigations/daignosis for HUS/TTP?

275
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the causes of Nephritic syndrome?

A
  1. Acite postinfections (Poststreptococcal) GN
  2. IgA Nephropathy (Berger’s Disease)
  3. Rapidly progressive (Crescentic) GN
  4. Hereditary Nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome)
  5. Thin basement memebrane disease (Benign familial haematuria)
287
Q

Renal pathology:

What are the types of tubulointerstitial Nephritis?

A

A group of renal inflammatory disorders that involve the tubules and interstitium:

  1. Acute pyelonephritis:
  2. Chronic pyelonephritis and reflux nephropathy
  3. Acute interstitial nephritis
  4. Chronic interstitial nephritis / Analgesic nephropathy
288
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology and symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory disease?

289
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What are the complications of Pelvic Inflammatory disease?

290
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is the definition and aetiology of Endometriosis?

291
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What are the clinical, macroscopic and microscopic features of Endometriosis?

292
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology and clinical features of Adenomyosis?

293
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms, macroscopic and microscopic findings Leiomyoma (fibroid)?

294
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What are the clinical features of Leiomyoma (fibroid)?

295
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology and classification of Endometrial carcinoma?

A
  • Endometrioid
  • Non Endometrioid
296
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the pathophysiology and risk factors of Endometrioid Endometrial Carcinoma?

297
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the pathophysiology and risk factors of Non-Endometrioid Endometrial Carcinoma?

298
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is normal vulval histology?

299
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, grading and progression of Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)?

300
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is/are the usual and differentiated type of Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)?

301
Q

Gynaecological Pathology:

What is Vulval carcinoma?

302
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is normal cervical histology?

303
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is the transformation zone?

304
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is/are the definition and grading of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)?

305
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is/are the progression and risk factors of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)?

306
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) and how is it treated?

307
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is/are the aetiology, and subclassification of Cervical carcinoma?

308
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN):

What is/are the clinical presentation and prognosis of Cervical carcinoma?

310
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Serous cystadenoma?

311
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Mucinous cystadenoma?

312
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Clear cell tumours?

313
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Dysgerminoma?

314
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Teratoma?

315
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Choriocarcinoma?

316
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Fibroma (from cells of ovarian stroma)?

317
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Granulosa-Theca cell tumour?

318
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour?

319
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

What are the characteristics of Endometrioid?

340
Q

Ovarian Carcinoma:

Outline the classification of Ovarian Carcinoma:

A
  1. Epithelial (70%): Derived from surface epithelium that covered the ovary. Can be benign, borderline or malignant.
    1. Serous cystadenoma
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma
    3. ndometrioid
    4. Clear cell
  2. Germ cell (20%): Derived from germ cells, usually benign in adults and malignant in children
    1. Dysgerminoma
    2. Teratoma
    3. Choriocarcinoma
  3. Sex cord/stromal (10%): From sex cord or strome of gonad, can differentiate towards female (granulosa and theca cells) or male (Sertoli and Leydig cells) structures
    1. Fibroma (from cells of the ovarian stroma)
    2. Granulosa Theca cell tumour
    3. Sertoli Leydig cell tumour (deepened voice, enlarged clitoris)
341
Q

Breast pathology:

What are the features of most breast lesions?

343
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are aetiology, symptoms and treatment of Acute Mastitis?

344
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the risk factors and histology findings of Periductal mastitis?

345
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the epidemiology, symptoms and cytology finding of Mammary Duct ectasia?

346
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and causes of Fat Necrosis?

347
Q

Breast pathology:

What is are the main Fibrocystic changes and their causes?

348
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the definition of, indications and histology of Gynaecomastia?

349
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the epidemiology, aetiology and symptoms of Fibroadenoma?

350
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms and investigations of Duct papilloma?

351
Q

Breast pathology:

What are the features of Radial scars?

352
Q

Breast pathology:

What is the classification of breast pathology?

A
  1. Inflammatory conditions
    1. Acute Mastitis
    2. Periductal mastitis
    3. Mammary Duct ectasia
    4. Fat necrosis
  2. Benign Proliferative conditions
    1. Fibrocystic disease
    2. Gynaecomastia
  3. Benign neoplastic conditions
    1. Fibroadenoma
    2. Duct papilloma
    3. Radial scar
  4. Malignant neoplastic conditions
    1. Breast carcinoma
    2. Carcinoma in situ
    3. Invasive breast carcinoma
    4. Basal like carcinoma
    5. Phyllodes tumour
353
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the epidemiology and risk factors of Breast Carcinoma?

354
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the symptoms and screening on Breast Carcinoma?

356
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the aetiology and epidemiology of Lobular Carcinoma in situ?

357
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the presentation and complications of Ductal Carcinoma in situ?

358
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are aetiology, epidemiology and symptoms of Invasive breast carcinoma and its subtypes?

359
Q

Breast pathology:

What is the triple assessment?

How is histological subtype and grade assessed?

360
Q

Breast pathology:

What are the actions of Tamoxifen and Herceptin/trastuzumab

361
Q

Breast pathology:

What are the histological features of Basal-like carcinoma?

362
Q

Breast pathology:

What is/are the aetiology, epidemiology and management of Phyllodes tumour?

371
Q

Breast pathology:

What are the subtypes of Breast carcinoma?

A
  1. Breast carcinoma
  2. Carcinoma in situ
  3. Invasive breast carcinoma
  4. Basal like carcinoma
  5. Phyllodes tumour
374
Q

Breast pathology:

What is the definition and epidemiology of Carcinoma in situ?

What are its subtypes?

A

Subtyypes are Lobular and Ductal

375
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

What is the epidemiology and aetiology/risk factors of stroke?

376
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

What are the signs/symptoms and vascular territories commonly affected in stroke?

377
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

How do you investigate and manage stroke?

378
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

What is the epidemiology and aetiology/risk factors of TIA?

379
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

What are the signs/symptoms and vascular territories commonly affect in TIA?

380
Q

Cerebral Pathology:

How do you investigate and manage TIA?

381
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the following CSF features in Pyogenic Meningitis:

  1. Appearance
  2. Predominant cell
  3. Cell count
  4. Glucose
  5. Protein
  6. Bacteria
382
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the following CSF features in TB Meningitis:

  1. Appearance
  2. Predominant cell
  3. Cell count
  4. Glucose
  5. Protein
  6. Bacteria
383
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the following CSF features in Viral Meningitis:

  1. Appearance
  2. Predominant cell
  3. Cell count
  4. Glucose
  5. Protein
  6. Bacteria
384
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is the definition of infarction?

What % of strokes dose infarction account for?

What is the most common cause?

What are important predictors for future stroke?

386
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is/are the aetiology and epidemiology of Intraparenchymal haemorrhage?

387
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is/are the aetiology and epidemiology of Subarachnoid haemorrhage?

388
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is/are the aetiology Extradural haemorrhage?

389
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is/are the aetiology Subdural haemorrhage?

390
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What are the types of Traumatic parenchymal injury?

391
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is the aetiology of raised Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?

392
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the symptoms of Bacterial Meningitis and what should be done if it is suspected?

393
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the symptoms of Meningism?

394
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the symptoms of Viral Meningitis?

395
Q

Cerebral infection:

What is/are the aetiology and symptoms of Viral Encephalitis?

396
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the bacterial and viral causes of Meningitis in:

  1. Neonates
  2. 1 month to 6 years
  3. Young adults
  4. Elderly
397
Q

Cerebral infection:

Where are the features of secondary brain tumours?

398
Q

Cerebral infection:

What is the aetiology of primary brain tumours?

399
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the buzzwords for primary brain tumours?

400
Q

Cerebral infection:

What are the symptoms and causative organisms of Viral Encephalitis?

410
Q

Cerebral infarction:

What is the classification of Cranial Haemorrhage?

A
  1. Non Traumatic
    1. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage
    2. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  2. Traumatic
    1. Extradural haemorrhage
    2. Subdural haemorrhage
    3. Increased ICP
411
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is the definition of Neurodegenerative disorders?

412
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is the definition of dementia?

413
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

Define:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Agnosia
414
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What are the pathological proteins associated with:

  1. Alzheimer’s disease
  2. Dementia with Lewy bodies
  3. Corticobasal degeneration
  4. Frontotemporal dementia linked to Chr 17 Pick’s disease
415
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the aetiology and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

416
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What are the investigations and management of Alzheimer’s disease?

417
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the symptoms of Dementia with Lewy bodies?

418
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the aetiology symptoms and histology findings of Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease?

419
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the definition, aetiology and symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

420
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the classification, pathology and EMQ hints of Multiple Sclerosis?

421
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases:

What is/are the definition and symptoms of Multiple System Atrophy?

422
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What is the aetiology and disease features of Osteoporosis?

423
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are the symptoms and risk factors of Osteoporosis?

424
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are X-ray and histology findings and biochemistry for Osteoporosis?

425
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What is the aetiology and disease features of Osteomalacia /rickets?

426
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are the symptoms and risk factors of Osteomalacia/rickets?

427
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are X-ray and histology findings and biochemistry for Osteomalacia/rickets?

428
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What is the aetiology and disease features of Hyperparathyroidism (primary)?

429
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are the symptoms and risk factors of Hyperparathyroidism (primary)?

430
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are X-ray and histology findings and biochemistry for Hyperparathyroidism (primary)?

431
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What is the aetiology and disease features of Paget’s disease?

432
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are the symptoms and risk factors of Paget’s disease?

433
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are X-ray and histology findings and biochemistry for Paget’s disease?

434
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What is the aetiology and disease features of Renal Osteodystrophy?

435
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are the symptoms and risk factors of Renal Osteodystrophy?

436
Q

Metabolic Bone Disease:

What are X-ray and histology findings and biochemistry for Renal Osteodystrophy?

437
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What is the epidemiology, aetiology and joints affected with Gout?

438
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the clinical features and crystal type for Gout?

439
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

How do you investigate and manage Gout?

440
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What is the epidemiology, aetiology and joint affected with Pseudogout?

441
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the clinical features and crystal type of Pseudogout?

442
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

How do you investigate and manage Pseudogout?

444
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the main types of fracture?

How are bone fractures repaired?

What factors have effects on the bone healing?

445
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What is osteomyelitis and what are the most common causative organisms in Adults and Children?

446
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What is/are the symptoms, X-Ray changes and rare causes of Osteomyelitis?

447
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What is the definition of Osteoarthritis?

448
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the clinical features of Rheumatoid arthritis?

449
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the characteristic deformities of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

455
Q

Non-neoplastic Bone Disease:

What are the main Non-Neoplastic Bone Diseases?

A
  1. Gout
  2. Pseudogout
  3. Trauma
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Osteoarthritis
  6. Rheumatoid arthritis
456
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is/are the age and affected bones of Osteosarcoma?

457
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is/are the age and affected bones of Chondrosarcoma?

458
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is/are the age and affected bones of Ewing’s sarcoma?

459
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is/are the age and affected bones of Giant cell (borderline malignancy)?

460
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Osteoid Osteoma?

461
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Osteoid Osteoma?

462
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Osteoma?

463
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Osteoma?

464
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Enchondroma?

465
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Enchondroma?

466
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Osteochondroma (= exostosis)?

467
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Osteochondroma (= exostosis)?

468
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Fibrous dysplasia?

469
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Fibrous dysplasia?

470
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Simple bone cyst?

471
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of simple bone cyst?

472
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What is the age, bone and special features of Osteoblastoma?

473
Q

Benign bone tumours:

What are the histology and x-ray findings of Osteoblastoma?

474
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is the histology and x-ray appearance of Osteosarcoma?

475
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is the histology and x-ray appearance of Chondrosarcoma?

476
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is the histology and x-ray appearance of Ewing’s sarcoma?

477
Q

Malignant bone tumours:

What is the histology and x-ray appearance of Giant cell (boarderline malignancy)?

478
Q

Skin Pathology:

Outline the layers of the skin

479
Q

Skin Pathology:

Define:

  1. Hyperkeratosis
  2. Parakeratosis
  3. Acanthosis
480
Q

Skin Pathology:

Define:

  1. Acantholysis
  2. Spongiosis
  3. Lentiginous
481
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is the difference between dermatitis and eczema?

482
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the definition, most common subtype, symptoms and histology findings of Psoriasis?

483
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the pathophysiology, subclasses and associated features of Psoriasis?

484
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the symptoms, aetiology and histology findings of Lichen Planus?

485
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the symptoms, causes and treatment of Erythema Multiforme?

487
Q

Skin Pathology:

What are the histology findings and most important prognostic factors of Melanoma/Melanocytic naevi?

488
Q

Skin Pathology:

What are the subtypes of Melanoma?

489
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the definition and symptoms of Steven Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?

490
Q

Skin Pathology:

What are the symptoms of Pityriasis Rosea?

491
Q

Dermatitis/eczema:

What are the histology and clinical features of Atopic dermatitis?

492
Q

Dermatitis/eczema:

What are the histology and clinical features of Contact dermatitis?

493
Q

Dermatitis/eczema:

What is the histology and clinical features of Seborrhoeic dermatitis?

496
Q

Bullous Disease:

What is the pathophysiology of dermatitis herpetiformis?

497
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the clinical features of dermatitis herpetiformis?

498
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the histology findings of dermatitis herpetiformis?

499
Q

Bullous Disease:

What is the pathophysiology of pemphigoid?

500
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the clinical features of pemphigoid?

501
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the histology findings of pemphigoid?

502
Q

Bullous Disease:

What is the pathophysiology of pemphigus?

503
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the clinical features of pemphigus?

504
Q

Bullous Disease:

What are the histology findings of pemphigus?

505
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Actinic (Solar/Senile) Keratosis?

506
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Keratoacanthoma?

507
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Bowen’s Disease?

508
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Squamous cell carcinoma?

509
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Basal cell carcinoma?

510
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What are the characteristics and histology of Seborrhoeic Keratosis?

516
Q

Skin Pathology:

What is/are the main subtypes of Melanocytic?

A
  1. Benign: Melanocytic nevi (=moles). They can be junctional, compound or intradermal
  2. Malignant: melanoma
524
Q

Dermatitis/eczema:

What is the classification of Dermatitis?

A
  1. Aptoic dermatitis
  2. Contact dermatitis
  3. Sebrrhoeic dermatitis

Histology:

  1. ACUTE:
    1. Spongiosis
    2. Inflammatory infiltrate in dermis
    3. Dilated dermal capillaries
  2. CHRONIC:
    1. Acanthosis
    2. Crusting
    3. Scaling
525
Q

Cutaneous Neoplasms:

What is the classification of Cutaneous Neoplasms?

A
  1. Benign
    1. Seborrhoeic Keratosis
  2. Premalignant
    1. Actinic (solar/Senile Keratosis)
    2. Keratoacanthoma
    3. Bowen’s Disease
  3. Malignant
    1. Squamous cell carcinoma
    2. Basal cell carcinoma
526
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is the definition of Amyloidosis and its classification?

527
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is/are the aetiology and investigations of Primary Amyloidosis?

528
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is/are the aetiology and investigations of Secondary Amyloidosis?

529
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is the aetiology of Haemodialysis associated Amyloidosis?

530
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is/are the aetiology and subtypes of Familial Amyloidosis?

531
Q

Amyloidosis:

What are the clinical features of Amyloidosis?

532
Q

Amyloidosis:

What is the Pathology of Amyloidosis?

533
Q

Sarcoidosis:

What is the definition of Sarcoidosis?

534
Q

Sarcoidosis:

What are the histology findings of Sarcoidosis?

535
Q

Sarcoidosis:

What is/are the epidemiology, aetiology and typical presentation of Sarcoidosis?

536
Q

Sarcoidosis:

What are the extrapulmonary manifestations of Sarcoidosis?

537
Q

Sarcoidosis:

What are the investigations for Sarcoidosis?

538
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases:

What is/are the site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features and complications of Chronic bronchitis?

539
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases:

What is/are the site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features and complications of Bronchiectasis?

540
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases:

What is/are the site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features and complications of Asthma?

541
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases:

What is/are the site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features and complications of Emphysema?

542
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases:

What is/are the site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features and complications of Small airway disease / Bronchiolitis?

543
Q

Obstructive lung diseases:

What are the Inflammatory causes of Bronchiectasis?

544
Q

Obstructive lung diseases:

What are the congenital causes of Bronchiectasis?

545
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are interstitial lung diseases?

546
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

How much of respiratory practice is due to interstitial lung diseases?

What features of interstitial lung diseases show on spirometry?

547
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What do interstitial lung diseases typically present with?

Why is it difficult to find the original causes in end stage disease?

548
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What do interstitial lung diseases typically present with?

Why is it difficult to find the original causes in end stage disease?

549
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the types of Fibrosing interstitial lung diseases?

550
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the types of Granulomatous interstitial lung diseases?

551
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the definition, M:F ratio, aetiology and histology of Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis?

552
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the symptoms and management of Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis?

553
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the symptoms and aetiology of Pneumoconiosis?

554
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is the definition of Granulomatous lung disease? What are examples of Granulomatous infections?

555
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the following examples of and what are their histological findings?

  1. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
  2. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
  3. Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
  4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)
556
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What causes an acute presentation of:

  1. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
  2. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
  3. Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
  4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)
557
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What causes a chronic presentation of:

  1. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
  2. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
  3. Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
  4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)
558
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the subtypes of Pneumonia?

559
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the subtypes of Pneumonia?

560
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the epidemiology, genetics, symptoms and histology of Squamous cell carcinoma?

561
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are cytology, subtypes and progression of Squamous cell carcinoma?

562
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the epidemiology, aetiology, histology and cytology of Lung Adenocarcinoma?

563
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What is/are the aetiology, epidemiology, genetics, and symptoms of Small Cell carcinoma?

564
Q

Interstitial lung diseases:

What are the features of Large Cell Carcinoma?

565
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

What are the paraneoplastic syndromes caused by:

  1. ADH
  2. ACTH
  3. PTH/PTHrP
  4. Calcitonin
  5. Serotonin
  6. Bradykinin
566
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

What are the molecular features of paraneoplastic syndrome?

567
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

What is the staging of paraneoplastic syndromes?

568
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

What is a mesothelioma?

569
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

What is the staging of paraneoplastic syndromes?

570
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What is/are the aetiology and risk factors of Pulmonary Embolism?

571
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What are the subtypes of Pulmonary Embolism?

572
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What is/are the definition and subtypes of Pulmonary Hypertension?

573
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What is the pathophysiology of Pulmonary Hypertension?

574
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What are the complications of Pulmonary Hypertension?

575
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What is pulmonary oedema?

576
Q

Diseases of the Pulmonary Vasculature:

What is diffuse alveolar damage?

Year 5 - Krish Pathology Guide 2018 (70 decks)

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