Chemical Pathology (All Topics) Flashcards

1
Q

Fluid balance:

What is:

  1. The % of body water content
  2. Ratio of intracellular: extracellular fluid

What are the main types of Extracellular fluid?

A
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2
Q

Fluid balance:

What is the best analogy for why body cells need a high sodium environment?

A
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3
Q

Fluid balance:

What is there difference between Osmolality and Osmolarity?

A
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4
Q

Fluid balance:

What are the Physiological and Pathological determinants of Serum Osmolarity?

A
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5
Q

Fluid balance:

How is Osmolarity Calculated?

A
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6
Q

Fluid balance:

How can the difference between Osmolality and Osmolarity be useful?

A
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7
Q

Sodium:

How is true hyponatraemia defined using serum osmolality?

What is TURP syndrome?

A
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8
Q

Sodium:

What are the subclassifications of Hyponatraemia and what are their causes?

A
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9
Q

Sodium:

How can hydration status and Urinary Sodium be used to distinguish true Hyonatraemia?

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10
Q

Sodium:

How does Cirrhosis cause Hyponatraemia?

A
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11
Q

Sodium:

What is the danger of rapid correction of Hyponatraemia?

What are the possible causes of Hyponatraemia post surgery?

A
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12
Q

Sodium:

What is the laboratory criteria for Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A
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13
Q

Sodium:

What are the causes of Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A
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14
Q

Sodium:

  1. What is the normal range for blood Sodium?
  2. How much is freely exchangeable?
  3. How are serum levels maintained?
  4. What are ECT levels dependent on?
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15
Q

Sodium:

  1. What is the definition of Hyponatraemia?
  2. How should it be treated?
  3. What different symptoms are caused at different Sodium levels?
A
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16
Q

Sodium:

What is the treatment for Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

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17
Q

Sodium:

What is the definition of Hypernatraemia?

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19
Q

Sodium:

What are the causes of Hypovolaemic Hypernatraemia?

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20
Q

Sodium:

What are the causes of Euvolaemic Hypernatraemia?

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21
Q

Sodium:

What are the causes of Hypervolaemic Hypernatraemia?

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22
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:

What are the clinical features of Diabetes Insipidus?

A
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23
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:

What is Cranial Diabetes Insipidus?

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24
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:

What is Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?

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25
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:

How is Diabetes Insipidus diagnosed?

A
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26
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:

How should Exam Questions on Sodium be handled?

A
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27
Q

Potassium:

What is the normal range of potassium levels in the body?

Is it mostly intracellular or extracellular?

How much of it is freely exchangeable?

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28
Q

Potassium:

What is/are the definition and main causes of Hypokalaemia?

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29
Q

Potassium:

What is the treatment for Hyporkalaemia?

A
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30
Q

Potassium:

What is the definition of Hyperkalaemia?

Is it more or less common than Hypokalaemia?

A
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31
Q

Potassium:

What are the possible causes of Hyperkalaemia?

A
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32
Q

Potassium:

How is Hyperkalaemia treated?

What does a high Potassium and Low Sodium suggest?

A
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33
Q

Potassium:

What is the relationship between Hydrogen and Potassium?

A
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34
Q

Acid Base:

What are the normal ranges for pH, CO2, Bicarbonate and Oxygen?

A
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35
Q

Acid Base:

How is [H+] calculated?

What is [H+] equivalent to?

A
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36
Q

Acid Base:

What are the steps in solving a case?

A
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37
Q

Acid Base:

What is/are the pH, Bicarbonate, CO2 and Causes of:

  1. Metabolic Acidosis
  2. Metabolic Alkalosis
  3. Respiratory Acidosis
  4. Respiratory Alkalosis
A
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38
Q

Acid Base:

What is compensation?

What extra information is needed for metabolic acidosis?

A
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39
Q

Acid Base:

What is the Anion Gap and how is it calculated?

What is its normal range?

A
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40
Q

Acid Base:

What are the possible causes of elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A
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41
Q

Acid Base:

What is the osmolar gap and what is an increase in it caused by?

A
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42
Q

Liver function tests:

What are the LFTs that are markers and liver cell damage and synthetic function?

A
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43
Q

Liver function tests:

What are the normal levels of AST/ALT? What are the main causes of them being raised?

A
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44
Q

Liver function tests:

What are the normal levels of ALP What are the main causes of them being raised?

A
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45
Q

Liver function tests:

What are the normal levels of GGT?

What are the main causes of them being raised?

A
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46
Q

Porphyrias:

What is the definition of a Porphyria?

A
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47
Q

Porphyrias:

What is/are the inheritance and symptoms of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)?

A
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48
Q

Porphyrias:

What is/are the investigations, predisposing facts and management of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)?

A
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49
Q

Porphyrias:

What is/are the subtypes, genetics and symptoms of Acute Porphyrias with Skin Lesions?

A
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50
Q

Porphyrias:

What are the diseases caused by Non-Acute Porphyrias?

A
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51
Q

Porphyrias:

What are the symptoms of Erythropoietic Protoporphyria (EPP)?

A
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52
Q

Porphyrias:

What is/are the genetics, symptoms, investigations and management of Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)?

A
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53
Q

Thyroid:

What are the reference ranges for TSH, Free T4 and Free T3?

A
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54
Q

Thyroid:

What are the interpretations of:

  1. ↑TSH ↓T4
  2. ↑TSH ↔T4
  3. ↑TSH ↑T4
  4. ↓TSH ↑T4
  5. ↓TSH ↔T3 and T4
  6. ↓TSH ↓T4
  7. ↑(later↓) TSH ↓T3 and ↓ T4
  8. ↔TSH, abnormal T4
A
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56
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of High Uptake Hyperthyroidism?

A
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57
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Low Uptake Hyperthyroidism?

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58
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Autoimmune Hypothyroidism?

A
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59
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of “Other” types of Hypothyroidism?

A
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60
Q

Thyroid:

What is the treatment of Hyper and Hypothyroidism?

A
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61
Q

Thyroid:

What are the types of Thyroid Neoplasia?

A

Thyroid Neoplasia:

  1. Papillary
  2. Follicular
  3. Medullary
  4. Lymphoma
  5. Anaplastic
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62
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Papillary Thyroid Neoplasia?

A
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63
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Follicular Thyroid Neoplasia?

A
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64
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Medullary Thyroid Neoplasia?

A
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65
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Lymphoma Thyroid Neoplasia?

A
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66
Q

Thyroid:

What are the details of Anaplastic Thyroid Neoplasia?

A
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67
Q

Thyroid:

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia?

A
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69
Q

Thyroid:

What are the main types and causes of Hypo and Hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Hyperthyroidism:
    • High Uptake
      • Graves Disease
      • Toxic multinodular
      • Toxic Adenoma
    • Low Uptake
      • Subacute
      • Postpartum thyroiditis
  • Hypothyroidism:
    • Autoimmune
      • Primary atrophic
      • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    • Other
      • Iodine deficiency
      • Post thyroiditis
      • Drug induced
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70
Q

Therapeutic Drug monitoring:

What is/are the toxicity signs, signs under treatment, interactions and cautions and treatment for Phenytoin?

A
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71
Q

Therapeutic Drug monitoring:

What is/are the toxicity signs, signs under treatment, interactions and cautions and treatment for Digoxin?

A
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72
Q

Therapeutic Drug monitoring:

What is/are the toxicity signs, signs under treatment, interactions and cautions and treatment for Lithium?

A
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73
Q

Therapeutic Drug monitoring:

What is/are the toxicity signs, signs under treatment, interactions and cautions and treatment for Gentamicin?

A
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74
Q

Therapeutic Drug monitoring:

What is/are the toxicity signs, signs under treatment, interactions and cautions and treatment for Theophylline?

A
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75
Q

Calcium:

What are normal blood calcium levels?

What form does it take in the blood?

A
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76
Q

Calcium:

What are the two main hormones involved in Calcium Metabolism and what do they do?

A
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77
Q

Calcium:

Outline the overall Calcium feedback loop

78
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Primary Hyperparathyroidism

79
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

80
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism

81
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Hypoparathyroidism

82
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Rickets/Osteomalacia

83
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk Phos level and Vitamin D levels for Paget’s disease

84
Q

Calcium:

Outline the Primary Defect, Calcium Level, Phosphate level, Alk level and Vitamin D levels for Osteoporosis

85
Q

Calcium:

What are the causes of Hypocalcaemia?

86
Q

Calcium:

What is/are the symptoms and treatment of Hypocalcaemia?

87
Q

Calcium:

What are the causes of Hypercalcaemia?

88
Q

Calcium:

What is/are the symptoms and treatment of Hypercalcaemia?

89
Q

Calcium:

What are the risk factors for Renal stones?

90
Q

Calcium:

What is/are the signs, causes and preventative management of Calcium Stones?

91
Q

Calcium:

What is/are the % frequency and X-ray appearance of:

  1. Mixed Calcium stones
  2. Calcium oxalate
  3. Calcium phosphate
  4. Triple phosphate“Struvite”
  5. Uric acid
  6. Cysteine
  7. Others eg xanthine
92
Q

Calcium:

What are the investigations for recurrent stones?

93
Q

Enzyme and cardiac markers:

What does raised Amylase indicate?

94
Q

Enzyme and cardiac markers:

What is Creatine Kinase used for?

What do raised levels indicate?

95
Q

Enzyme and cardiac markers:

Where are there high levels of ALP?

What are the main causes of raised ALP?

96
Q

Enzyme and cardiac markers:

What is troponin and what are its uses?

97
Q

Enzyme and cardiac markers:

What is an “international unit”?

98
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

Outline Lipoprotein Metabolism

100
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What are the diseases caused by Primary Hypercholesterolaemia and their features?

101
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What are the diseases caused by Primary Hypertriglyceridaemia and their features?

102
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What are the diseases caused by Primary Mixed Hyperlipidaemia and their features?

103
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What are the diseases caused by Primary Mixed Hyperlipidaemia and their features?

What are the diseases caused by Hyperlipidaemia and their features?

104
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What is the Lipoproteins In order of density?

What is PCSK9?

What is Lipoprotein a risk factor for?

110
Q

Lipoprotein metabolism:

What are the main types of Lipoprotein disorders?

A
  • Primary Hypercholesterolemia:
    • Familial hypercholesterolemia (type II)
    • Polygenic hypercholesterolemia
    • Familial hyperα-lipoproteinemia
    • Phytosterolemia
  • Primary Hypertriglyceridaemia:
    • Familial Type I
    • Familial Type V
    • Familial Type IV
  • Primary Mixed Hyperlipidaemia:
    • Familial Combined hyperlipidaemia
    • Familial dysβlipoproteinaemia
    • Familial hepatic lipase deficiency
  • Hyperlipidaemia:
    • Aβ-lipoproteinemia
    • Hypoβ-lipoproteinemia
    • Tangier Disease
    • Hypoα-lipoproteinemia
111
Q

Nutrition:

What are the fat soluble vitamins, water soluble vitamins and trace elements?

A
  • Fat Soluble:
    • A: Retinol
    • D: Cholecalciferol
    • E: Tocopherol
    • K: Phytomenadione
  • Water soluble:
    • B1: Thiamine
    • B2: Riboflavin
    • B6; Pyridoxine
    • B12: Cobalamin
    • C: Ascorbate
    • Folate
    • B3: Niacin
  • Trace elements:
    • Iron
    • Iodine
    • Zinc
    • Copper
    • Fluoride
112
Q

Nutrition:

What is/are the deficiency disease, excess disease and tests for:

  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin K
113
Q

Nutrition:

What is/are the deficiency disease, excess disease and tests for:

  • Vitamin B1
  • Vitamin B2
  • Vitamin B6
  • Vitamin B12
114
Q

Nutrition:

What is/are the deficiency disease, excess disease and tests for:

  • Vitamin C
  • Folate
  • Vitamin B3
115
Q

Nutrition:

What is/are the deficiency disease, excess disease and tests for:

  • Iron
  • Iodine
  • Zinc
  • Copper
  • Fluoride
116
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Which diseases are screened in the “Guthrie” blood spot test?

How is it done?

117
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What is the outcome and screening test for Phenylketonuria?

118
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What is the outcome and screening test for Congenital Hypothyroidism?

119
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What is the outcome and screening test for Cystic Fibrosis?

120
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What is the outcome and screening test for Medium Chain Acyl CoA dehydrogenase Deficiency?

121
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What does the newborn screening promgramme measure?

122
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What do specificity and sensitivity refer to?

What do Positive and Negative predictive values refer to?

123
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Using this example table, how is the sensitivity calculated?

124
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Using this example table, how is the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) calculated?

125
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Using this example table, how is the Negative Predictive Value (NPV) calculated?

127
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Organic acidemias?

128
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Urea cycle disorders?

129
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Aminoacidopathies?

130
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Glycogen storage disorders?

131
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Galactosaemia?

132
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Fatty acid oxidation disorders?

133
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Peroxisomal disorders?

134
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Peroxisomal disorders?

135
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Group 4, Defects in Large Molecule metabolism?

136
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What are the key features of Group 5, mitochondrial disorders?

137
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Which diseases are screened in the “Guthrie” blood spot test?

138
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

Using this example table, how is the specificity calculated?

148
Q

Metabolic Disorders:

What is the classification of Inherited Metabolic Disorders?

A
  • Group 1: Accumulation of toxins
    • Organic acidemias
      • includes propionic acidaemia
    • Urea cycle disorders
      • includes ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
    • Aminoacidopathies
      • includes PKU and maple syrup urine disease
  • Group 2: Reduced energy stores
    • Glycogen storage disorders
      • Includes Von Gierke’s
    • Galactosaemia
    • Fatty acid oxidation
      • Includes MCADD
  • Group 3: Large molecule synthesis
    • Peroxisomal disorders
    • Glycosylation disorders
  • Group 4: Defects in large molecule metabolism
    • Lysosomal disorders
  • Group 5: Mitochondrial
    • Various
149
Q

Hyperglycaemia:

What are the causes of Hyperglycaemia?

150
Q

Hyperglycaemia:

What is/are the epidemiology and investigations for Diabetes Mellitus?

151
Q

Hyperglycaemia:

How is Hypoglycaemia classified and what are their causes?

152
Q

Hyperglycaemia:

What is the flow chart for finding the cause of Hypoglycaemia?

153
Q

Hyperglycaemia:

What is Non-islet Tumour Hypoglycaemia?

154
Q

Paediatric:

What are the causes of:

  1. Insensible water loss Fluid overload
  2. Hypernatraemia Hyponatraemia
155
Q

Paediatric:

What are the common problems fun low birth weight?

156
Q

Paediatric:

How is the Paediatric Renal system different to Adults?

157
Q

Paediatric:

What are the common Paediatric features of Electrolyte disturbances?

158
Q

Paediatric:

What is the broad classification of Neonatal jaundice?

159
Q

Renal Physiology:

What is normal GFR?

What its the age related decline?

160
Q

Renal Physiology:

What is clearance?

161
Q

Renal Physiology:

What is the gold standard for measurement of GFR?

162
Q

Renal Physiology:

How is creatine used with respect to GFR?

163
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the single samples and 24hr collection investigations of urine?

164
Q

Renal Physiology:

What is the definition of Acute Kidney Injury?

What subclassifications are there?

165
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the causes of Prerenal Acute Kidney Injury?

166
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the causes of Renal Acute Kidney Injury?

167
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the causes of Post-renal Acute Kidney Injury?

168
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the indications for dialysis in an emergency?

169
Q

Renal Physiology:

What is the description, GFR and Prevalence (% of population) of Stage 1 to 5 Chronic Kidney Disease?

170
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the commonest causes of Chronic Kidney Disease?

171
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the consequences of Chronic Kidney Disease?

172
Q

Renal Physiology:

What are the common findings and causes of Urine Microscopy?

173
Q

Adrenals:

What are the causes of Cushing’s?

174
Q

Adrenals:

What are the signs/symptoms of Cushing’s?

175
Q

Adrenals:

What are the investigations for Cushing’s?

176
Q

Adrenals:

What is the management for Cushing’s?

177
Q

Adrenals:

What are the causes of Addison’s?

178
Q

Adrenals:

What are the signs/symptoms of Addison’s?

179
Q

Adrenals:

What are the investigations for Addison’s?

180
Q

Adrenals:

What is the management for Addison’s?

181
Q

Adrenals:

What are the causes of Pheochromocytoma?

182
Q

Adrenals:

What are the causes of Conn’s?

183
Q

Adrenals:

What are the signs/symptoms of Pheochromocytoma?

184
Q

Adrenals:

What are the signs/symptoms of Conn’s?

185
Q

Adrenals:

What are the investigations for Pheochromocytoma?

186
Q

Adrenals:

What are the investigations for Conn’s?

187
Q

Adrenals:

What is the management for Pheochromocytoma?

188
Q

Adrenals:

What is the management for Conn’s?

189
Q

Pituitary:

What are the hormones produced in the Hypothalamus and the actions they have on the Pituitary?

190
Q

Pituitary:

What are the indications for a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

191
Q

Pituitary:

What is the procedure of a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

192
Q

Pituitary:

What are the hormones produced in the Hypothalamus and the actions they have on the Pituitary?

193
Q

Pituitary:

How is the Insulin tolerance test interpreted in a a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

194
Q

Pituitary:

How is the Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone Test interpreted in a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

195
Q

Pituitary:

How is the Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone Test interpreted in a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

What does an inadequate response suggest?

196
Q

Pituitary:

How can tumours affect the Pituitary?

What is the definition of a Microadenoma and a Macroadenoma?

What symptoms can patients present with?

197
Q

Pituitary:

What hormones are produced in the Anterior Pituitary?

198
Q

Pituitary:

What are the causes of excess ADH?

199
Q

Pituitary:

What are the causes of ADH failure?

200
Q

Pituitary:

What are the contraindications of a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

201
Q

Pituitary:

What are the side effects of a combined pituitary function test (CPFT)?

202
Q

Pituitary

How is Gonadotrophin deficiency diagnosed in men and women?

What happens if sex steriods are present in Children?